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Old May 3rd, 2014, 01:40 PM
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Default Army Medical College, Pune Entrance Exam Previous year papers

Will you please share the previous year question paper of entrance examination conducted by Army Medical College, Pune????

Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC), Pune is a leading institute of medical sciences in the country. It conducts AFMC Entrance Exam and here I am sharing the previous year questions paper of AFMC Entrance Exam

1. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
A. proximal tubule B. distal tubule C. collecting duct D. loop of Henle
[Ans. (A)]
2. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
A. 500 ml B. 140 ml C. 1 litre D. 1.5 ml
[Ans. (B)]
3. Which one is imino acid?
A. Pepsin B. Proline C. Cysteine D. Renin
[Ans. (B)]
4. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
A. Cell membrane B. Cell Wall C. Ribosome D. Mitochondria[
Ans. (B)]
5. ACTH is secreted from
A. Adrenal cortex B. Pituitary C. Adrenal Medulla D. Thyroid
[Ans. (B)]
6. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?
A. SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibers
B. AV node  Bundle of His  SA node  Purkinje fibers
C. SA node  Purkinje fibers  AV node  Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers  AV node  SA node  Bundle of His
[Ans. (A)]
7. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are line by
A. cubical epithelium B. columnar epithelium C. squamous epithelium D. ciliated epithelium
[Ans. (D)]
8. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
A. CT Scan B. Sphygmomanometer C. ECG D. EEG
[Ans. (D)]
9. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity ?
A. T-lymphocyte B. B-lymphocyte C. I-lymphocyte D. P-lymphocyte
[Ans. (B)]
10. Fertilization occur in
A. Uterus B. Ureter C. Vagina D. Fallopian tube
[Ans. (D)]
11. The Gastrin is secreted from
A. Intestine B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Rectum
[Ans. (B)]

12. The cause of cretinism is
A. Hypothyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism
[Ans. (A)]
13. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?
A. Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Adrenalin D. Aldosterone
[Ans. (D)]
14. The part of the brain where the centre for hunge and thirst is located is
A. Cerebrum B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Medulla Oblongata
[Ans. (B)]
15. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as
A. Monosynsptic reflex arc B. Disynaptic reflex arc
C. Polysynaptic reflex arc D. Asynaptic reflex arc
[Ans. (A)]
16. The lactase hydrolyzes lactose into
A. Glucose B. Glucose and galactose C. Fructose D. Glucose and fructose
[Ans. (B)]
17. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
A. 1.7 litres B. 7 litres C. 17 litres D. 170 litres
[Ans. (D)]
18. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is
A. Dyspnea B. Hypoxia C. Asphyxia D. Apnea
[Ans. (B)]
19. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
A. Calcium B. Sodium C. cAMP D. cGMP
[Ans. (B)]
20. The name of the pace maker of the heart is
A. Lymph node B. S.A. node
C. Juxtaglumerular apparatus D. Semilunar valve
[Ans. (B)]
21. What is a genophore ?
A. DNA in prokaryotes B. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
C. DNA and protein in prokaryotes D. RNA in prokaryotes
[Ans. (A)]
22. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is
A. Ligin B. Suberin C. Inulin D. Starch
[Ans. (D)]
23. Who wrote the famous book "Origin of Species"?
A. Larmarck B. Darwin C. De Vries D. Mendel
[Ans. (B)]
24. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
A. Autopolyploid B. Triploid C. Allopolyploid D. Monoploid
[Ans. (C)]

25. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
A. 0.05 Å B. 0.15 Å C. 0.25 Å D. 0.30 Å
[Ans. (A)]
26. Biolistic technique is used in
A. Tissue culture process B. Gene transfer process
C. Hybridization process D. Germplasm conservation process
[Ans. (B)]
27. Example of water soluble plant pigment is
A. Chlorophyll-a B. Chlorophyll-b C. Anthocyanin D. Xanthophyll
[Ans. (C)]
28. Structure element of Chromatin is
A. Histone B. Acid protein and DNA C. Nuclear matrix D. Nucleosomes
[Ans. (D)]
29. Inulin is a polymer of
A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Arabinose
[Ans. (C)]
30. Mannitol is
A. Amino acid B. Amino alcohol C. Sugar alcohol D. Sugar acid
[Ans. (C)]
31. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
A. Zygomorphic B. Actinomorphic C. Regular D. Perfect
[Ans. (A)]
32. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called
A. Explant B. Somaclone C. Inoculant D. Clone
[Ans. (A)]
33. VAM is
A. Symbiotic bacteria B. Saprophytic bacteria C. Saprophytic fungi D. Symbiotic fungi
[Ans. (D)]
34. Ovule integument gets transformed into
A. seed B. fruit wall C. seed coat D. cotyledons
[Ans. (C)]
35. Acid rain is caused by
A. NO2 B. SO2 C. SO3 D. CO2
[Ans. (B)]
36. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants ?
A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus thuringiensis
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
[Ans. (D)]
37. A plant cell becomes turgid due to
A. Plasmolysis B. Exosmosis C. Endosmosis D. Electrolysis
[Ans. (C)]

38. Restriction enzymes are used to cut
A. Single stranded RNA B. Double stranded DNA
C. Single stranded DNA D. Double stranded RNA
[Ans. (B)]
39. Spindle fibre is made up of
A. humulin B. intermediate filament C. flagellin D. tubulin
[Ans. (D)]
40. Edible part of Mushroom is
A. Basidiocarp B. Primary mycelium C. Fungal hyphae D. Basidiospores
[Ans. (A)]
41. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of
A. Parathyroid hormone B. Calcitonin C. Thyroxine D. Adrenaline
[Ans. (A)]
42. Kupffer's cells are
A. Phagocytic B. Mast cells
C. Hormone secreting D. Digestive juice secreting
[Ans. (A)]
43. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature ?
A. Anterior hypothalamus B. Posterior hypothalamus
C. Limbic system D. Red nucleus
[Ans. (A) Heat loss centre i.e. Anterior hypothalamus]
44. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity
A. Myoglobin B. Actin C. Myosin D. Fibrin
[Ans. (A)]
45. Longest phase of meiosis
A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Anaphase I D. Metaphase II
[Ans. (A)]
46. Tetany is caused by
A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism
[Ans. (B)]
47. Which of the following is a gastro intestine hormone ?
A. Prolactin B. Enterokinase C. GH D. FSH
[Ans. (B)]
48. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.
A. LH B. FSH C. GH D. TSH
[Ans. (D)]
49. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson's disease ?
A. GABA B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. Glutamic acid
[Ans. (C)]
50. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
A. facial nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve
[Ans. (C)]

51. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe ?
A. Hearing B. Speech C. Vision D. Memory
[Ans. (C)]
52. Meissner's corpuscles occur is
A. Brain B. Nerve cells C. Skin D. Tongue
[Ans. (C)]
53. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
A. Infants due to protein enertgy malnutrition B. Adults due to protein enertgy malnutrition
C. Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency D. Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency
[Ans. (C)]
54. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by
A. Blood cells B. Bone cells C. Sex chromosomes D. Autosomes
[Ans. (D)]
55. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
A. Pepsin B. Mucus C. Rennin D. HCl
[Ans. (D)]
56. Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria ?
A. Nerve cell B. Red blood cell C. Liver cell D. White blood cell
[Ans. (B)]
57. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?
A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene
[Ans. (C)]
58. Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon ?
A. UGU B. AAU C. UUG D. UAG
[Ans. (D)]
59. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel ?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9
[ According to English version Answer is B i.e. 5 pairs.
According to Bengali version pair is NOT mention in question ]
60. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive
character (a) the genotype of parents are
A. Aa × Aa B. Aa × aa C. AA × aa D. AA × Aa
[Ans. (B)]
61. Structural lipids of cell membrane are
A. Simple lipid B. Chromolipids C. Steroid D. Phospholipids
[Ans. (D)]
62. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
A. Glycogen B. Sucrose C. Lactose D. Maltose
[Ans. (A)]
63. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG ?
A. TAC – GTC B. UAC – GUC C. UCA – TUA D. TCA – GTC
[Ans. (B)]

64. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area ?
A. Sibling species B. Allopatric species C. Sympatric species D. Endemic species
[Ans. (D)]
65. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?
A. Sycon – Canal system B. Star fish – Radial symmetry
C. Ascaris – Flame cell D. Prawn – Haemocoel
[Ans. (C)]
66. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?
A. Platyhelminthes B. Annelida C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata
[Ans. (A)]
67. Cardiac muscles are
A. Striated and voluntary B. Striated and involuntary
C. Smooth and voluntary D. Smooth and involuntary
[Ans. (B)]
68. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?
A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
[Ans. (B)]
69. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell ?
A. Macrophage B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Basophil
[Ans. (D)]
70. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man ?
A. Homo habilis B. Australopithecus
C. Rampithecus punjabicus D. Homo neanderthalensis
[Ans. (C)]
71. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
A. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length
B. Proboscis long and palpi short
C. Proboscis short and palpi long
D. Both proboscis and palpi are short
[Ans. (A)]
72. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents
A. Nerve ring B. Cervical papilla C. Excretory System D. Reproductive system
[Ans. (C)]
73. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
A. Biotic potential B. Fertility C. Carrying capacity D. Birth rate
[Ans. (A)]
74. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
A. Habitat B. Niche C. Ecotone D. Ecotype
[Ans. (C)]
75. Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is
A. Always upright B. Always inverted C. Mostly upright D. Mostly inverted
[Ans. (A)]

76. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for green house effect ?
A. SO2 B. CO2 C. CO D. O2
[Ans. (B)]
77. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?
A. Barbus stigma B. Cyprinus carpio C. Labeo bata D. Cirrhinus mrigala
[Ans. (B)]
78. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
A. TSH and ACTH B. Oestrogen and progesterone
C. FSH and LH D. Vassopressin and oxytocin
[Ans. (C)]
79. Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man?
A. Gametocyte B. Merozoite C. Cryptomerozoite D. Sporozoite
[Ans. (D)]
80. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
A. Bombyx mori B. Antheraea mylitta
C. Antheraea assamensis D. Philosomia ricini
[Ans. (B)]

DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
FULL MARKS : 20
(Each question carries two marks)
1. What are poikilothermic animals ?
Ans. Also called cold blooded animals. Their body temperature changes according surrounding environment. These
animals are less active.
e.g. all invertebrates, fishes, amphibians, reptiles.
2. Write two functions of juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Ans. Functions :
(i) Juxtaglomerular cells secretes Renin which through RAAS (Renin-Angiotensis Aldosterone System) help in
absorption of Na+ from DCT and therefore increases Blood pressure.
(ii) Its Macula densa cells act as chemorecptor feeding information to JG cells.
3. State two differences between red and white muscle.
Ans. Difference between Red & White Muscle.

Red Muscles White Muscles
i) Rich in Myoglobin. i) Less myoglobin.
ii) Mitochondria are more in number. ii) Less in number.
iii) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum. iii) More sarcoplasmic reticulum.
iv) Can carry out considerable aerobic
respiration.
iv) Depends mainly on anaerobic
respiration.
v) Slow rate of contraction for long
period.
v) Fast rate of contraction for short
period.
4. What is the difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis ?
Ans.

Phagocytosis Pinocytosis
i) Bulk intake of fluid material by cell. i) Intake of solid material from outside to
inside of the cell.
ii) Vesicles formed are small. ii) Large
iii) Lysosome play no role. iii) Lysosomes are essential.
5. State four important functions of plasma membrane.
Ans. (i) Helps in Transport by active and passive processes.
(ii) Take part in Exocytosis and Endocytosis.
6. What is bioaccumulation ?
Ans. Different types of elements and compound deposited inside the living beings. Which is called Bioaccumulation or
Bioconcentration. Like in scallops maximum quantity of Zn, Cu, Cd and Cr deposited and in human beings
maximum Iodide deposieted in thyroid glands.

7. What is a test cross ? Why is it so named ?
Ans. When F1 progeny is crossed with recessive parent then it is called Test Cross. Test Cross helps to find out the
genotype of dominant individual.
8. What is ribozyme ?
Ans. Ribozymes are the RNA molecules (Non protein enzyme) that possess catalytic activity they function in RNA
splicing reactions.
9. What are mycorrhizae?
Ans. The association of fungi with the roots of higher plant, is called mycorrhizae. Mycorrhizal association fround in
conifers plant.
10. Write down the scientific name of China rose plant. Give its floral formula.
Ans. Hibiscus rosasinensis :
Br Epi7 k(5) C5 A( ) G(5– )

Address:
Armed Forces Medical College
Opposite Race Course, Pune Solapur Rd,
Pune, Maharashtra 411013 ‎
020 2602 6010 ‎

Map:


Last edited by Aakashd; February 27th, 2020 at 10:22 AM.
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  #2  
Old February 26th, 2015, 04:14 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Default Re: Army Medical College, Pune Entrance Exam Previous year papers

The AFMC Entrance Exam is conducted by Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC) Pune which is a leading institute of medical sciences in the country.

AFMC conducts an all India entrance exam every year for admission to its MBBS course. The AFMC question paper is based on Physics, Chemistry, and Biology.

You are asking for the AFMC Entrance Exam Previous year papers. Here I am provide you the AFMC Entrance Exam Previous year papers. This is as follows:

SET 1 :- ( PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY)

1. If the velocity of light C, the universal gravitational constant G and Planck’s constant h be chosen as fundamental quantities then the dimensions of mass is this system

a. hCG

b. hCG–1

c. h–1C–1G

d. h1/2C1/2G–1/2

2. The force F acting on a particle in terms of time t and distance x is given by

F = (AcosBx) (CsinDt)

The dimensions of (AC) and (BD) respectively are

a. MLT–2, M0L–1T1

b. MLT–2, ML–1T–1

c. ML2T–2, M0L–1T–2

d. MLT–2, M0L–1T–1

3. The density of a material in the CGS system is 8 g/cm3. In a system in which the unit of length is 5 cm and the unit of mass is 20 g, the density is

a. 16 units

b. 25 units

c. 32 units

d. 50 units

4. Two forces P and Q acting at a point are such that if P is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned through 90°. Then

a. P = Q

b. P = 2Q

c. P = Q/2

d. Non relation between P & Q

5. Of the following which one has dimensions different from the remaining three

a. Energy per unit volume

b. Force per unit area

c. Stress × strain

d. Force × area

6. How many moles of HCl will be present in 100 mL of a solution of specific gravity 1.08, containing 20% HCl by mass ?

a. 0.50

b. 0.60

c. 0.80

d. 0.12

7. The solubility of K2SO4 in water is 16g at 50°C. The minimum amount of water required to dissolve 4g K2SO4 is:

a. 10g

b. 25g

c. 50g

d. 75g

8. 1.0 g of pure calcium carbonate was found to require 50 mL of dilute HCl for complete reactions. The strength of the HCl solution is given by:

a. 4 N

b. 2 N

c. 0.4 N

d. 0.2 N

9. In Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of the gaseous mixture under the aforesaid conditions in the end?

a. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 20 L H2

b. 10 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

c. 20 L NH3, 10 L N2 and 30 L H2

d. 20 L NH3, 25 L N2 and 15 L H2

10. For the reaction A + 2B ->C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce

a. 5 moles of C

b. 4 moles of C

c. 8 moles of C (4) 13 moles of C

d. The number of gram atoms of oxygen in 0.16 mol

11. A room has dimension 5m × 3m × 4m. A mosquito files from one corner of the room to its diagonally opposite corner, then magnitude of displacement of mosquito is

a. 5 m

b. 5 2 m

c. 4 m

d. 3 m

12. If the resultant of the two vectors having magnitude of 7 and 4 is 11, the dot product of the two vectors could be

a. 28

b. 3

c. Zero

d. 7/4

13. A force vector F = 2ˆI + 3ˆj N acts at a point P (4m, 2m) in xy plane then magnitude moment of force about origin of co-odinate system is

a. 14 Nm

b. 8 Nm

c. 12 Nm

d. Zero

14. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q are in the ratio 3 : 1. Which of the following relations is true

a. P = 2Q

b. P = Q

c. PQ = 1

d. None of these

15. Which pair of the following forces will never give resultant force of 2N

a. 2 N and 2 N

b. 1 N and 1 N

c. 1 N and 3 N

d. 1 N and 4 N

16. The equivalent weight of KIO3 in the reaction,

2Cr(OH)3 + (OH)- + KIO3 à 2CrO42- + 5H2O + KI is :

a. Molecular weight

b. (Molecularweight)/3

c. (Molecularweight)/6

d. (Molecularweight)/2

17. 1g of a metal required 50 mL of 0.5 N HCl to dissolve it.The equivalent mass of the metal is :

a. 25

b. 50

c. 20

d. 40

18. When KMnO4 is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes from :

a. 7 to 4

b. 6 to 4

c. 7 to 2

d. 4 to 2

19. In nitric oxide (NO), the oxidation state of nitrogen is:

a. –2

b. +1

c. –1

d. +2

20. A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.3 % Xe. Oxidation number of Xe in this compound is :

a. –4

b. zero

c. +4

d. +6

21. A particle has an initial velocity of 9 m/s due east and a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2 due west. The distance covered by the particle in the fifth second of its motion is

a. 0

b. 0.5 m

c. 2 m

d. none of these

22. A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upwards in quick secessions is such a way that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum height. If the maximum height is 5m.The number of balls thrown per minute is: (Take g = 10 m/ s2 )

a. 80

b. 120

c. 40

d. 60

22. A ball is projected upwards from the top of tower with a velocity 50 ms-1 making an angle 30° with the horizontal. The height of tower is 70 m. After how many seconds from the instant of throwing will the ball reach the ground?

a. 2 s

b. 5 s

c. 7 s

d. 9 s

23. A man goes at the top of a smooth inclined plane. He releases a bag to fall
freely and he himself slides on inclined plane to reach the bottom. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of the man and bag respectively, then :

(1) v1 > v2

(2) v1 < v2

(3) v1 = v2

(4) v1 and v2 cannot be compared

24. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms-1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is :

a. 15 s

b. 10.90 s

c. 5.49 s

d. 2.745 s

25. The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 10% by increasing its speed of projection, without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the horizontal range will be

a. 20%

b. 15%

c. 10%

d. 5%

26. An electron is present in 4f subshell. The possible values of azimuthal quantum number for this electron are

a. 0, 1, 2, 3

b. 1, 2, 3, 4

c. 3

d. 4

27. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine times the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated with it would become

a. 3 times

b. 9 times

c. 1/3 times

d. 1/9 times

28. The quantum number not obtained from the Schrodinger wave equation is

a. n

b. l

c. m

d. s

29. The subshell with n = 6 and l = 4 can accommodate a maximum of

a. 18 electrons

b. 16 electrons

c. 14 electrons

d. 10 electrons

30. If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s7 it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3 , because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed. It violates

a. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

b. Hund’s rule

c. Pauli’s exclusion principle

d. Bohr postulate of stationary orbits

31. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards when the bus takes a sudden turn. This happens because of

a. Outward pull on them

b. Inertia

c. Change in momentum

d. Change in acceleration

32. If an elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration ‘a’, force exerted on the floor by a passenger of mass M travelling in the elevator is

a. Ma

b. Mg

c. Mg – Ma

d. Mg + Ma

33. Newton’s second law of motion gives the measure of:

a. Acceleration

b. Momentum

c. Force

d. Angular momentum

34. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weight less than actual when

a. The elevator moves upward with constant acceleration

b. The elevator moves downward with constant acceleration

c. The elevator moves upward with uniform velocity

d. The elevator moves downward with uniform velocity

35. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 1 kg are in contact with each other on a frictionless table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is applied to the block of mass 4 kg, the value of the force of contact between the two blocks is

a. 4 N

b. 3 N

c. 2 N

d. 0.6 N

36. Which of the following should be the order of increasing values of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F

a. C > N > F > O

b. C < F < N < O

c. C < F < N < O

d. C < N < F < O

37. Electron–affinity of Cl is larger than that of F because

a. higher atomic radius of F

b. weaker inter electronic repulsion in Cl

c. more vacant p–subshell in Cl

d. smaller electronegativity of Cl

38. Mendeleef periodic law failed because it was

a. based on electronic configuration of atom

b. based on atomic weight

c. discovery of isotope

d. related to Octaws rule

39. False statement for periodic classification of elements is

a. The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers

b. No. of nonmetallic elements is less than the number of metallic elements

c. First ionization energy of elements is not change continuously with increasing of atomic number in a period

d. d–subshell is filled by directional electron with increasing atomic number of transition elements.

40. Which of the following does not affect the ionisation potential of the atom?

a. Nuclear charge

b. Electron neutrality with protons

c. Penetration effect

d. Atomic size

41. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating the gun can exert and average force of 144 N at the most. How many bullets (maximum number) can be shot per sec?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 6

42. A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 6 m on a frictionless surface by a fore of 106 N applied to the other end. The linear density of the rope is 0.5 kg/m. The force acting on 50 kg mass is

a. 50 N

b. 100 N

c. 150 N

d. 200 N

43. A scooter of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h. The force required to stop of the scooter in 10 s is

a. 180 N

b. 208 N

c. 360 N

d. 720 N

44. N bullets each of mass m kg are fired with a velocity of v m/s at the rate of n bullets per second upon a wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is (assuming no rebounce)

a. Nmv/n

b. n N mv

c. nNv/m

d. nmv

45. A bullet fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105t where F is in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. The average impulse imparted to the bullet is

a. 8 Ns

b. 0.9 Ns

c. 1.8 Ns

d. Zero

46. The boiling point of HF is less than H2O. This is because

a. H2O has hydrogen bonding where as HF has dipole dipole interaction.

b. H2O can form more number of hydrogen bonds

c. Oxygen – hydrogen hydrogen bond is stronger.

d. The above statement is false

47. What is the actual dipole moment of HX if the bond length is 1.3A° and percentage ionic character is 20.

a. 0.26

b. 1.248

c. 0.624

d. 2.496

48. Covalent substances generally have low melting and boiling points because

a. Covalent bond is weaker bond

b. Covalent bond is directional in nature

c. The intermolecular forces are generally weak

d. Covalent molecules are bulky

49. Glycerol (CH2OHCHOHCH2OH) is more viscous than ethanol because

a. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in ethanol

b. Hydrogen bonding is more extensive in glycerol

c. Glycerol has higher molecular mass

d. Intramolecular H-bonding occurs in glycerol

50. If two ice cubes are placed together, the force of attraction between them is

a. Vanderwaals forces

b. Hydrogen bond

c. Dipole – dipole interaction

d. Covalent bond

AFMC Entrance Exam Previous year papers

SET 2 : – (BIOLOGY)
1. Blue eye colour in humans is recessive to brown eye colour. The expected children of a marriage between a blue eyed woman and a brown eyed man who had a blue eyeed mother will be
a. All blue eyed
b. All brown eyed
c. All black eyed
2. If genes A and B show supplementary gene effect for mice coat colour, such that aa is rescessively epistatic to B, what would be the ratio of agouti, black & albino in the cross aaBB × AaBb
a. 1 : 2 : 1
b. 1 : 1 : 2
c. 2 : 2
d. 4: 3 : 1
3. A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism (a recessive character) is self pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype
a. 900
b. 600
c. 1200
d. 300
4. A person meet with an accident and great loss of blood has occured. There is not time to analyse his blood groups. It is safe to transfuse blood of
a. AB, Rh+
b. AB, Rh¯
c. O, Rh¯
d. O, Rh+
5. When chicken on F1 generation are mated among themselves, they produce an F2 generation of four kind of birds, as far as comb type and plumage colour are concerned in the following proportion 9 rose comb blacks, 1 single comb white, 3 rose comb whites, 3 single comb blacks. Based on this find out which two are the recessive characters in these birds
a. Black plumage and white plumage
b. Single comb and white plumage
c. Rose comb and single comb
d. Rose comb and black plumage
6. In Spallanzani’s experiment, one set of flasks had access to air through holes in the corks and the other set did not. In the set which had access to air, the contents showed abundant growth of microorganisms. What inference can be drawn from this experiment?
a. Spontaneous generation needs contact with air
b. Spontaneous generation does not need air
c. In the set of jars which were closed with corks, the contents had not been boiled thoroughly
d. Air must have got into the jars through the holes in the corks and must have carried the microorganisms along with it
7. In its most widely accepted sense, organic evolution mean, i.e., the “Doctrine of evolution” is particularly concerned with
a. Descent with modification
b. Special Creation
c. Spontaneous growth
d. Environmental conditions
8. The Theory of Recapitulation means that
a. All animals start as an egg
b. Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history
c. Body parts once lost are regenerated
d. Progeny of an organisms resembles its parents
9. Which one is a pair of homologous organs
a. Wings of grasshopper and crow
b. Wings of bats and butterflies
c. Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu
d. Arm of monkey and arm of human
10. According to the theory of evolution, all of the different kinds of homologies-namely, anatomical,molecular, and embryological should
a. be completely independent of each other
b. produce similar patterns of evolutionary relatedness
c. yield very different hierarchical patterns
d. link all of the species currently present on earth
11. Wheat plant is 6n = 42. What will be the number of chromosomes in it’s Monosomic, haploid and Trisomics?
a. 41, 21 and 7
b. 43, 21 and 7
c. 15, 7 and 7
d. 13, 7 and 15
12. X-rays cause mutation by
a. Transition
b. Transversion
c. Deletion
d. Base substitution
13. The chromosomes bearing loops for rapid transcription and informosomes production are
a. Lampbrush chromosomes
b. Polytene chromosomes
c. SAT chromosomes
d. B chromosomes
14. Which of the following histones is associated with linker DNA?
a. H1
b. H2A
c. H3
d. H4
15. Mutations
a. Are the ultimate source of genetic variability
b. Are goal directed
c. Are commonly occurring phenomenon
d. Arise as a result of, or in anticipation of environmental necessities
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of natural selection?
a. Natural selection causes genetic changes in individuals
b. Natural selection acts on individuals but evolution occurs in populations
c. Fitness of an organism is measured by its reproductive success
d. Natural selection is not the only evolutionary force
17. Speciation is the process by which new species form. The scientist who played a major role in describing the process of speciation was
a. Charles Darwin
b. Ernst Mayr
c. G. J. Mendel
d. George Palade
18. The evolution of numerous species, such as Darwin’s finches, from a single ancestor is called
a. Adaptive radiation
b. Sympatric speciation
c. Gradualism
d. Convergent evolution
19. If a new allele suddenly becomes very abundant in, a population, most likely it is
a. Mutating rapidly
b. Flowing with emigrants
c. Strongly selected for
d. A product of assortative mating
20. In evolutionary terms, an organism’s fitness is measured by its
a. Health
b. Contribution to the gene pool of the next generation
c. Mutation rate
d. Genetic variability
21.Dominant gene for tallness is T and for yellow colour is Y. A plant heterozygous for both the traits is selfed, then the ratio of pure homozygous dwarf and green offspring would be
a. 1/4
b. 4/16
c. 3/16
d. 1/16
22. The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is
a. 3 : 1
b. 1 : 2 : 1
c. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
d. 1 : 1
23. The flightless bird, Kiwi is found in
a. Mauritius
b. Indonesia
c. New Zealand
d. New Guinea
24. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by
a. Development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
b. Development of common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestory
c. Development of characteristics by random mating
d. Replacement of common characteristics in different groups
25. Which one represents a connecting link as an evidence from comparative anatomy in favour of organic evolution
a. Whale between fishes and mammals
b. Archaeopteryx between birds and mammals
c. Duckbill platypus between reptiles and mammals
d. Java ape-man between modern man and Peking Man
26. Two geographical regions separated by high mountain ranges
a. Palaearctic and Oriental
b. Oriental and Australian
c. Nearctic and Palaearctic
d. Neotropical and Ethopian
27. Most primitive living mammals which provide an evidence of organic evolution from geographical distribution are found in
a. China
b. India
c. Australia
d. Africa
28. Galapagos islands are associated with the name of
a. Wallace
b. Malthus
c. Darwin
d. Lamarck
29. Presence of temporary gill pouches in embryos of snakes, birds and mammals indicates that
a. These embryos need the pouches for breathing
b. Common ancestor of these animals had gill pouches
c. Lungs evolved from gills
d. Fluid medium in which these embryos develop has abundant O2
30. Pasteur succeeded in disproving the spontaneous generation theory, because
a. He was lucky
b. He was ingenious in drawing out the necks of the glass flasks so as to provide access to air, but not to the micro-organisms
c. Of the fact that the sample of yeast taken by him was dead
d. Of the clean surroundings of his laboratory
31. Geology and Zoology are intimately connected in
a. Archaeology
b. Palaeontology
c. Sociology
d. Zoogeography
32. 9: 3 : 3:1 ratio is due to
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Complete dominance
c. Espistatic genes
d. Polygenic inheritance
33. A mother of blood group O has a group O child. The father could be?
a. A or B or O
b. O only
c. A or B
d. AB only

34. Normal man without widow peak marries to a woman having widow peak (dominant character) produce a boy child with widow peak which marries to a normal female what is the probability to have a widow peak child in next generation
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 0%
35. A dwarf pea plant was treated with GA. The plant became tall. The treated plant was then crossed with a homozygous tall pea. The results in F2 are expected to be
a. All tall
b. Tall and dwarf in 3 : 1 ratio
c. 50% tall
d. All dwarf
36. Presence of heterochromatin …… the frequency of crossing over
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. does not effect
d. Is directly related to
37. In Melandrium, sex determination is of
a. XX–XO
b. ZZ–ZW
c. XX–XY
d. XY–XO
38. Higest number of chromosomes in plants have been recorded in
a. Marsilia
b. Aulosira
c. Ophioglossum
d. Parthenium
39. Mustard gas was used as a chemical mutagen for the first time by
a. Muller
b. Alterberg
c. Auerbach and Robinson
d. Stadler
40. Which of the following increases the frequency of crossing over when increased ?
a. Temperature
b. X rays
c. Radium radiations
d. All of these
41. Mendel observed that some characters did not assort independently. Later researches found it to be due to
a. Crossing over
b. Linkage
c. Dominance of one trait over theother
d. Amitosis
42. The condition required for Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is
a. No mutation and no gene flow between populations
b. Very large population and random mating
c. There must be no natural selection
d. All of the above
43. Genetic drift is a
a. Random process
b. Directed process
c. Selection-driven process
d. Co-evolutionary process
44. Disruptive selection
a. Adapts individuals within a population to different habitats
b. Favours individuals who possess relatively extreme values for a trait at the expense of individuals with average values
c. Favours organisms at both ends of the distribution of the trait
d. All of the above
45. Allopatric speciation can occur in populations that are
a. Physically separated
b. In the same area
c. Physically non-separated
d. In the same area and within the same ecological conditions
46. Genetic basis of adaptation was demonstrated through experiments by
a. Lederberg
b. Hugo de Vries
c. Charles Darwin
d. Lamarck
47. Population of dark Biston betularia increased greatly in England from 1848 to 1898. The selective agent causing the change was/were
a. Tree bark
b. Birds
c. Human beings
d. Toxins from smoke
48. The smallest unit that can evolve is a
a. Species
b. Genotype
c. Gene
d. Population
49. ……… and ……… generate variation, while ……… results in adaptation to the environment.
a. Genetic drift ……… natural selection ……… mutation
b. Mutation ……… sexual recombination ……… natural selection
c. Overproduction of offspring ……… mutation ……… sexual recombination
d. Natural selection ……… mutation ……… sexual recombination
50. Two animals are considered different species if they
a. Look different
b. Cannot inter-breed
c. Live in different habitats
d. Are members of different populations
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