Go Back   2018-2019 StudyChaCha > >




  #1  
Old April 23rd, 2014, 01:12 PM
Sashwat's Avatar
Sashwat
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 35,716
Default

I want to give the exam of All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance so I want to get the previous year question papers as I want to prepare myself so can you please help kemp in this?

All India Pre Medical Test (AIPMT) is the all India level medical entrance test for admission in dental and Medical Courses.

Sample Questions:

BIOLOGY
Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six
elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and
shivering. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while
these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid
space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of
the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs
is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice:
(4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at
different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but
protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct
choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the
following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their
cells. Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following
sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are
multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct
choice: (1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches
the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule
disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided
by elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class
Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of
Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result
of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living
things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in
industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area
or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of
Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c,
Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c.
Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice:
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
- 4-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal
possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous
system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in
embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill
slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella
fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic
acid. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other
plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed
germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for
rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of
photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one
which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in
prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on
inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial
matrix. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement
of growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA - Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid - Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid - Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin - Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene - one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould
(Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell
and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain.
Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor
pressure - 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm,
turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the
cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous
nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules
of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the
plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant
growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following
would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency
disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising
glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell
junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them
will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will
not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a
multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated
this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from
other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on
the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his
body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage
(S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have
been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage
is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 /
yr). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside,
Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control
emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in
India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum - : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being
stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of
oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan
Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule
binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on
DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes
are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in
transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote
chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct
choice: (4)
Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
assumes a saddle - like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of
maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will
show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are
highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few
recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2
generation as compared to recombinants.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded
plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants
would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in
eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the
chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of
others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are
formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for
further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water
bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of
phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is
discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during
rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type
growth curve. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other
in opposite direction.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis
Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to
two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this
person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous
pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes
- Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar
Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca
-silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 - 70 MHz
b. 30 - 45 MHz
c. 15 - 30 MHz
d. 1 - 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. With which of the following configuration an atom has the lowest ionization
enthalpy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. represents the excited state of a Neon atom. The energy needed to
knock off an electron from the excited state of neon must be least. Correct choice is: (4)
Q. 2. An element, X has the following isotopic composition; 200X:90% ; 199X:8.0% ;
202X:2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to :
a. 199 amu
b. 200 amu
c. 201 amu
d. 202 amu
Sol. The weighted average atomic mass of element (X) = 0.9 (200) + 0.08 (199) + 0.02
(202) = 180 + 15.92 + 4.04 = Correct choice is: (2)
Q. 3. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H 2SO 4 by mass and has a density of
1.80 g. mL-1 . Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 is,
a. 5.55 mL
b. 11.10 mL
c. 16.65 mL
d. 22.20 mL
Sol. Density = 1.80 g/ml
Correct choice: (1)
Q.4. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:
n I M s
(a) 3 0 0 + ½
(b) 2 2 1 + ½
(c) 4 3 -2 - ½
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible
a. a and c
b. b, c and d
c. a, b, c and d
d. b, d and e
Sol. Choice (b), (d) and (e) are incorrect. Remember that value of ‘l’ ranges from (0) to (n
– 1) and values of ‘m’ range from (–l) to (+l). Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
sulphite ion in acidic solution is:
a. 1
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice : (4)
Q. 6. In a first-order reaction , if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the
reactant A is 0.5 M then the half-life is :
a.
b.
(d) 1 0 -1 - ½
(e) 3 2 3 +1/2
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 7. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:
This reaction is of first order with respect to , following mechanisms
were proposed :
Mechanism A :
Mechanism B :
Which of the above mechanism (s) can be consistent with the given information about the
reaction
a. A only
b. B only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. The rate law is invariably determined from the slowest step of the mechanism.
Therefore mechanism (B) is consistent with the data given for order of reaction. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 8. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same
reaction would be completed in approximately :
a. 40 minutes
b. 50 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 9. The equilibrium constant of the reaction :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 10. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionized. If Kf for water is
1.86 K kg mol sup-1 , the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
a. – 0.56 K
b. – 1.12 K
c. 0.56 K
d. 1.12 K
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 11.The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Efficiency of a fuel cell Correct choice: (4)
Q. 12. Consider the following reactions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Heat of formation of H2O(l) = -X2 kJ / mol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 13. Given that bond energies of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 14. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption
a. The adsorbed molecules interact with each other
b. The adsorption takes place in multilayers
c. The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
d. The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
Sol. angmuir adsorption has the following postulates
a. The isotherm is devised for adsorption equilibrium i.e., when rate of adsorption =
rate of desorption
b. Adsorption at all sites is equivalent
c. Adsorption at a site is unaffected by adsorption at neighboring sites.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 15. The following equilibrium constants are given
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 16. Caulate the pOH of a solution at 250C that contains
a. 1.000
b. 7.000
c. 4.000
d. 9.000
Sol. Correct choice : (3)
Q. 17. Aweak acid, mol of this acid is dissolved in
one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
a. 0.100%
b. 99.0%
c. 1.00%
d. 99.9%
Sol. We know that, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 18. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Packing fraction for a simple cube Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. Identify the correct order of the size of the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Anions have the largest sizes followed by neutral atoms and then cations for a
respective period. So, the correct order should be
Correct choice: (3)
Q.20. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Both -
Q. 21. The correct order of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order of
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form
stable compound?
a. I- b. HS- c.
d. E- Sol. Strongest base would have the highest proton affinity i.e, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
a. SrSO4
b. BaSO4
c. MgSO4
d. RaSO4
Sol. MgSO4 is the most soluble out of the given alkaline earth metal sulphates. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 24. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting sulphide ore
before reduction is not true?
a. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
b. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
c. The of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 andH2S
d. The is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
Sol. Carbon and hydrogen are not suitable for reduction of sulphides directly. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 25. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Sulphides ores of metals are usually concentrated by Froth Flotation process.
Which one of the following sulphides oresoffers an exception and is concentrated by
chemical leaching?
a. Sphalerite
b. Argentite
c. Galena
d. Copper pyrite
Sol. Argentite ore is leached with NaCN during extraction of silver in the Mc Arthur
Forrest Cyanide process. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. Which one of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Chain silicates have the general formula Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid
strengths of the given acids?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 29. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin
respectively?
a. + 2, + 2
b. + 4, + 2
c. + 2, + 4
d. + 4, + 4
Sol. Among common characteristic states for Pb and Sn, we find +2 and +4 respectively.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 30. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
b. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
c. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
d. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition
elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements
Sol. The atomic radii of 4d and 5d elements down the group become quite similar due to
lanthanidecontraction. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 31. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(Atomic number. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
Sol . is the most stable ion in aqueous medium. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 32. The d electron configurations of Cr . Which one of the
following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. will have two unpaired electrons and
will show least paramagnetic character. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . The complex ion can show optical isomerism in its cis-isomer, and
will form a pair of enantiomorphs. Its trans-form will be optically inactive (meso).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 34. If NaCl is doped with
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Number of moles of cationic vacancies
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 35. Which of the following presents the correct order of the acidity in the given
compounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 36. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
a. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
b. a beta-hydroxy acid
c. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
d. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
Sol. Aldol condensation leads to formation of
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 37. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and
conc.HCl is called
a. Wolf-Kishner Reduction
b. Clemmensen Reduction
c. Cope Reduction
d. Dow Reduction
Sol. This is Clemmensen’s reduction. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 38. Consider the following compounds
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
a. (b) > (d) > (a) > (c)
b. (b) > (d) > (c) > (a)
c. (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
d. (d) > (b) > (a) > (c)
Sol. The attack of the nucleophile onto the carbonyl carbon is the rate-determining step.
So, order must be (b) > (d) > (a) > (c) Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Benzaldehyde has no hydrogen atom, so it can undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a
secondary amine?
a. Methyl Cyanide
b. Nitroethane
c. Methylisocyanide
d. Acetamide
Sol. Methyl isocyanide on reduction with LiAlH 4 will give dimethylamine. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 41. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the
following:
a. Benzene
b. Toluene
c. Chlorobenzene
d. Phenol would be
a. d > b > a > c
b. a > b > c > d
c. b > d > a > c
d. d > c > b > a
Sol. The correct order is d > b > a > c. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 42. Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 43. Which of the compounds with molecular formulaC5H10 yields acetone on
ozonolysis?
a. 2 – Methyl – 1 – butene
b. 2 – Methyl – 2 – butane
c. 3 – Methyl – 1 – butane
d. Cyclopentane
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 44. If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent,
thought to be chiral, it may mean that
a. the compound may be a racemic mixture
b. the compound is certainly a chiral
c. the compound is certainly meso
d. there is no compound in the solvent
Sol. The given compound was thought to be chiral because of a chiral carbon/s. If there is
no optical activity, it means the compound must certainly be meso. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. For the following
a. l–
b. Cl –
c. Br- the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The order of nucleophilicities of halides ions in water (default solvent) will be
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 46. has a chiral centre. Which one of the following
represents its R configuration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Q. 47. In the reaction
Which of the following compounds will be formed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 48. Which one of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitam in K
Sol. Vitamin (B) and vitamin (C) are water soluble, while Vitamin (A), (D), (E) and (K)
are fat soluble. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 49. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
a. D – sugar component
b. L – sugar component
c. Chiral bases
d. Chiral phosphate ester units
Sol. Deoxyribose and ribose sugars are D -chiral sugars in DNA and RNA. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 50. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?
a. Styrene ]
b. Nylon – 66
c. Teflon
d. Rubber
Sol. Nylon-66 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid.
\Correct choice: (2)
PHYSICS
Q. 1. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M,
of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 2. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given
are constant. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In
the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0 , the particle’s velocity (vx ) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
If they have asked instantaneous velocity when Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform
speed vd .The average speed for this round trip is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. In question it must be car moves from X to Y and returns to X.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane.
Its co-ordinates at a later time are . The path of the particle makes with the x-axis
an angle of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity
V. If is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come
to rest after a time
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 6. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a
height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the
spring is compressed by a distance d . The net work done in the process is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2 and an initial angular speed of
2.00 rad / sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of
a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
Sol. Correct choice:
(3)
Q. 8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 9. The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x -axis is given by
where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle
when it achieves maximum speed along the +x direction?
a. 24 m
b. 32 m
c. 54 m
d. 81 m
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 10. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the
ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When
pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring
constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the
mass gets detached from the pan?
a. 4.0 cm
b. 8.0 cm
c. 10.0 cm
d. any value less than 12.0 cm
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 11. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity V along the straight
line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is
at A and LB when it is at B, then
a.
b.
c.
d. The relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 12. A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod
is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the
rod about , the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 13. Two satellites of earth, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of is
four times the mass of . Which one of the following statements is true?
a. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal.
b. The time period of is four times that of .
c. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal.
d. are moving with the same speed.
Sol . As orbital velocity it is independent of mass of satellite Correct choice:
(4)
Q. 14. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r , radiating like a
black body at temperature , the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the
incident rays) at a distance R from the center of the sun is (where is the Stefan’s
constant).
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Power radiated
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 15. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by
620C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 16. A black body is at . It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 17. The frequency of a light wave in a material is and wavelength is
5000Å. The refractive index of material will be
a. 1.33
b. 1.40
c. 1.50
d. 3.00
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 18. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
particle executing simple harmonic motion is
a. (1) zero
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy .
The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 20. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a . The period
of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude
from the equilibrium position is
a. T / 2
b. T / 4
c. T / 8
d. T /12
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 21. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
a. in phase and perpendicular to each other
b. in phase and parallel to each other
c. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
d. in opposite phase and parallel to each other
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light
from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see
figure). How fast is the light traveling in the liquid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 23. Charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance
2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q
along the semicircle CRD is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. At C potential
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 24. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If f is the electric flux in units
of volt × meter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
surface A in units of volt × meter will be
a.
b.
c.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 25. Three point charges +q, - 2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x =
0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the
electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other of capacity C/2, are connected to
a V-volt battery, as shown. The work done in charging fully both the condensers is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 27. The total power dissipated in Watts in the circuit shown here is
a. 4
b. 16
c. 40
d. 54
Sol . Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltameter for 10 minute. If
the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30´10 -5 gm coulomb-1 , the mass of copper
deposited on the electrode will be
a. 0.27 gm
b. 0.40 gm
c. 0.50 gm
d. 0.67 gm
Sol . m = Zit; m = 0.27gm Correct choice: (1)
Q. 29. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 00C and the hot junction is kept at
T0C, then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn ) and temperature of inversion (Ti
) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Three resistances P, Q, R each of and an unknown resistance S form the four
arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of is connected in parallel to
S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol .
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. The resistance of an ammeter is and its scale is graduated for a current upto
100 Amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes
possible to measure currents upto 750 Amperes by this meter. The value of shuntresistance
is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charge-particle is moving in a
circle of radius R with constant speed V. The time period of the motion
a. depends on R and not on V
b. depends on V and not on R
c. depends on both R and V
d. is independent of both R and V
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. A charged particle (charge q ) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed
v . The associated magnetic moment is given by
a. qvR
b. qv R / 2
c. qv R2
d. qvR2 / 2
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 34. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 35. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
respectively. If the magnetic flu f linked with the primary coil is given by
is a constant, the output
voltage across the secondary coil is
a. 30 volts
b. 90 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 220 volts
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 36. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is a maximum in a series
LCR circuit with
a. 10 mH
b. 100 mH
c. 1 mH
d. cannot be calculated unless R is known
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the
main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 90%
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 38. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is
increased beyond Curie temperature then it will show
a. diamagnetism
b. paramagnetism
c. anti ferromagnetism
d. no magnetic property
Sol . Fact based Correct choice: (2)
Q. 39. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength . When placed
0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the
source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will
a. be reduced by a factor of 2
b. be reduced by a factor of 4
c. be reduced by a factor of 8
d. be reduced by a factor of 16
Q. 40. Monochromatic light of frequency is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is . The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the
source per second is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 41. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially
accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of
radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio
will be proportional to
a. R
b. 1/R
c. 1/R2
d. R2
Sol . Radius of path
Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 42. If the nucleus 13 has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then Te
would have its radius approximately as
a. 4.8 fm
b. 6.0 fm
c. 9.6 fm
d. 12.0 fm
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted particles are
a. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
b. the electrons present inside the nucleus
c. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
d. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
Sol . When neutron decays as given Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. A nucleus has nucleus A X
Z has mass represented by M (A, Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of proton and neutron
respectively and B.E the binding energy in Me V then
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants respectively.
At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those
of B will be after a time interval
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 46. The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The
kinetic energy of an electron in the firstm excited state is
a. 1.7 eV
b. 3.4 eV
c. 6.8 eV
d. 13.6 eV
Sol. Total energy in 1st excited state
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled
circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is
a. an n-type semiconductor
b. a p-type semiconductor
c. an insulator
d. a metal
Sol. In diagram acceptor level is near valance band which will happen in p-type
semiconductor. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of
and an output impedance of . The power gain of the amplifier is
a. 100
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1250
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 49. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed
by the truth table
(i) A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 1 1
(ii) A B Y
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(iii) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(iv) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
Q. 50. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the
cell characteristics is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. the cubic system is the most symmetric out of all seven crystal systems. All edges for
the unit cell are same i.e., a = b = c and all angles are right angles i.e.,
Correct choice: (1)

Last edited by Aakashd; June 1st, 2019 at 12:24 PM.
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Other Discussions related to this topic
Thread
B.A.R.C sample papers and previous year question papers
Previous year question papers of B.Com 1st year
B.Com previous year question papers of 1st year of University of Kerala
GRE Previous year question papers
Madras University MBA 1st Year Previous year question papers
TNOU MBA-Second Year Total Quality Management previous year’s question papers
AIPMT Previous Year Questions
BDS 1st year previous year question papers
Previous year question papers of AIPMT free download
B.Com 3rd year Mumbai University previous year question papers of Business Economics
CSE previous year question papers
JAIIB question papers on Accounting and Finance previous year question papers
AIPMT exam previous year question papers
Previous year question papers of B.Com 1st year of University of Kerala
B.Com 3rd year previous year question papers of Mumbai University
UGC NET previous year Question Papers
KU BE ECE 3rd Year previous year’s question papers of Computer Hardware Design
AIPMT Previous Year Solved Papers
need previous year question papers of m.com 1st year, of vinayaka mission university
CDS previous year question papers






  #2  
Old April 24th, 2014, 11:46 AM
Sashwat's Avatar
Sashwat
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 35,716
Default Re: AIPMT previous year question papers

As you want to get the previous year question papers of exam of All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:






For more detailed information I am uploading a PDF files which are free to download:
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Last edited by Aakashd; July 29th, 2018 at 08:15 PM.
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Sponsored Links






















  #3  
Old April 28th, 2014, 01:45 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default AIPMT previous year question papers

Can you please give me the previous year question papers of All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test as it is very urgent for me?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #4  
Old April 29th, 2014, 06:15 PM
Sashwat's Avatar
Sashwat
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 35,716
Default Re: AIPMT previous year question papers

As you want to get the previous year question papers of All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions?
(a) energy density
(b) refractive index
(c) dielectric constant
(d) Young's modulus
(e) magnetic field

(1) (a) and (e)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (e)
(4) (a) and (d)

2. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the
determination of volume of the sphere will be
(1) 2%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 8%

3. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration
in the third second is
(1)
(2) 6 m
(3) 4 m
(4)

4. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity
from 10 ms-1 to 20 ms-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of
t is
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 1.8
(4) 12

5. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum
instantaneous velocity of the particle is around the point


(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D


6. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o
with the
horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its
momentum will be
(1) zero
(2) 2 mv
(3)
(4)


7. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to
keep the belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s will be
(1) Zero
(2) Mv newton
(3) 2 Mv newton
(4)


8. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only
along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is

(1)
(2) 0.5 N
(3) 1.5 N

(4)


9. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The
losses due to frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the
turbine? (g = 10 m/s2
)
(1) 7.0 kW
(2) 8.1 kW
(3) 10.2 kW
(4) 12.3 kW

10. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that
generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is
(1) 120 ms-1

(2) 100 ms-1

(3) 80 ms-1

(4) 40 ms-1


11. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of
same mass and radius, around their respective axes is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the
angle between them is 90o
. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing
through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the
rod is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go
round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top
of the hill is between
(1) 13 m/s and 14 m/s
(2) 14 m/s and 15 m/s

(3) 15 ms/ and 16 m/s
(4) 16 m/s and 17 m/s

14. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the
work done in a closed cycle process, then
(1) Q = 0
(2) W = 0
(3) Q = W = 0
(4) E = 0

15. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing
and boiling points of water are 39o
W and 239o
W respectively. What will be the
temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of 39o C on the Celsius
scale?
(1) 139o
W
(2) 78o
W
(3) 117o
W
(4) 200o
W

16. At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its pressure
is x. At 110oC this ratio is
(1)
(2) x
(3)
(4)

17. Two Simple Harmonic Motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s-1 have the
same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is
(1) 1 : 104

(2) 1 : 10
(3) 1 : 102

(4) 1 : 103


18. The wave described by where x and y are in meters and t in
seconds, is a wave travelling along the
(1) -ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength = 0.2 m
(2) -ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz
(3) +ve x direction with frequency Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m
(4) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m


19. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of
motion is given by x = a sin(wt + /6). After the elapse of what fraction of the time

period the velocity of the point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.
The period of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/sec. What is
the phase difference between the oscillations of two points?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)


21. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity 0 and
permeability 0 is given by 22. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in
the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is
(1) 2(I1 + I2)
(2) I1 + I2
(3)
(4)

23. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of
the combinations is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)


24. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing Sunlight on a piece of paper using an
equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109
m and its
mean distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m. What is the diameter of the Sun's image on
the paper?
(1) 12.4 × 10-4 m
(2) 9.2 × 10-4 m
(3) 6.5 × 10-4 m
(4) 6.5 × 10-5
m


25. The energy required to charge a parallel plate condenser of plate separation d and
plate area of cross-section A such that the uniform electric field between the plates is E,
is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)


26. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the
centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field
at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is

(1) 3 E along OK
(2) 3 E along KO
(3) E along OK

(4) E along KO


27. The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011

volts. The electric field at that point is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire,
respectively with and without being short circuited through a resistance of 10 . Its
internal resistance is
(1) Zero
(2) 1.0 ohm
(3) 0.5 ohm
(4) 2.0 ohm


29. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten per cent. It new resistance and
specific resistance become respectively
(1) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
(2) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(3) 1.21 times, same
(4) Both remain the same

30. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 resistor is 1 amp when the points P
and M are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between the points
M and N is

(1) 3.2 volt
(2) 1.5 volt
(3) 1.0 volt
(4) 0.5 volt



31. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg
of water from temperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling water is 100°C.
(1) 4.2 min
(2) 6.3 min
(3) 8.4 min
(4) 12.6 min


32. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 resistor shown in the circuit. The power
dissipated in the 5 resistor is

(1) 5 watt
(2) 4 watt
(3) 2 watt
(4) 1 watt


33. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform
magnetic field of induction After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be
(1) 4 T
(2) 3 T
(3) 2 T
(4) T


34. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the
magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the
plane of the paper and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is
(1) F3 - F1 + F2
(2) F3 - F1 - F2
(3)
(4)

35. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction
in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60° with The magnetic flux
linked with the disc is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)


36. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a
resistance of 2950 in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the
galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series
should be
(1) 4450
(2) 5050
(3) 5550
(4) 6050


For more detailed information I am uploading A PDF files which are free to download:
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #5  
Old May 8th, 2014, 08:22 PM
ms013833@gmail.com
Junior Member
 
Join Date: May 2014
Posts: 1
Default aipmt xam

i want aipmt question paper of year2014-2015..plz provide it to me
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #6  
Old May 13th, 2014, 12:51 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default AIPMT Question Papers

I am looking for previous year question papers of AIPMT Exam?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #7  
Old May 16th, 2014, 03:44 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Question Paper for AIPMT Exam Previous Year

I am going to participate in AIPMT Exam, so need previous year question paper, will you please provide here?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #8  
Old May 18th, 2014, 11:26 AM
Sashwat's Avatar
Sashwat
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 35,716
Default Re: Question Paper for AIPMT Exam Previous Year

All India Pre Medical/Pre Dental Examination 2014 is conducted by Central Board of Secondary Education for admission to MBBS and BDS courses.

AIPMT exam pattern is as follows:

AIPMT 2014Exam will be of 3 hours duration.

The exam will have 180 Multiple Choice Questions from following sections:

45 questions from each section
Physics,
Chemistry,
Botany and
Zoology

Question paper:
Here is the attachment of the AIPMT Question paper:






Attached Files
File Type: pdf AIPMT question paper.pdf (659.2 KB, 58 views)
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Last edited by Aakashd; July 29th, 2018 at 08:16 PM.
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #9  
Old May 22nd, 2014, 06:36 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default AIPMT Previous Year Question Papers

Give me question paper for All-India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental (AIPMT) Entrance Examination for admission in undergraduate medical courses ?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #10  
Old May 23rd, 2014, 11:57 AM
Sashwat's Avatar
Sashwat
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 35,716
Default Re: AIPMT Previous Year Question Papers

Here I am giving you question paper for All-India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental (AIPMT) Entrance Examination for admission in undergraduate medical courses offered by reputed colleges in India..

BIOLOGY
Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six
elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and
shivering. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while
these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid
space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of
the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs
is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice:
(4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at
different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but
protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct
choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the
following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their
cells. Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following
sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are
multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct
choice: (1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches
the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule
disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided
by elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class
Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of
Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result
of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living
things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in
industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area
or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of
Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c,
Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c.
Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice:
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
- 4-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal
possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous
system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in
embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill
slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella
fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic
acid. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other
plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed
germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for
rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of
photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one
which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in
prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on
inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial
matrix. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement
of growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA - Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid - Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid - Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin - Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene - one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould
(Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell
and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain.
Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor
pressure - 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm,
turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the
cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous
nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules
of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the
plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant
growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following
would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency
disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising
glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell
junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them
will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will
not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a
multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated
this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from
other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on
the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his
body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage
(S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have
been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage
is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 /
yr). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside,
Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control
emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in
India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum - : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being
stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of
oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan
Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule
binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on
DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes
are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in
transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote
chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct
choice: (4)
Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
assumes a saddle - like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of
maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will
show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are
highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few
recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2
generation as compared to recombinants.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded
plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants
would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in
eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the
chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of
others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are
formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for
further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water
bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of
phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is
discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during
rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type
growth curve. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other
in opposite direction.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis
Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to
two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this
person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous
pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes
- Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar
Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca
-silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 - 70 MHz
b. 30 - 45 MHz
c. 15 - 30 MHz
d. 1 - 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. With which of the following configuration an atom has the lowest ionization
enthalpy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. represents the excited state of a Neon atom. The energy needed to
knock off an electron from the excited state of neon must be least. Correct choice is: (4)
Q. 2. An element, X has the following isotopic composition; 200X:90% ; 199X:8.0% ;
202X:2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to :
a. 199 amu
b. 200 amu
c. 201 amu
d. 202 amu
Sol. The weighted average atomic mass of element (X) = 0.9 (200) + 0.08 (199) + 0.02
(202) = 180 + 15.92 + 4.04 = Correct choice is: (2)
Q. 3. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H 2SO 4 by mass and has a density of
1.80 g. mL-1 . Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 is,
a. 5.55 mL
b. 11.10 mL
c. 16.65 mL
d. 22.20 mL
Sol. Density = 1.80 g/ml
Correct choice: (1)
Q.4. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:
n I M s
(a) 3 0 0 + ½
(b) 2 2 1 + ½
(c) 4 3 -2 - ½
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible
a. a and c
b. b, c and d
c. a, b, c and d
d. b, d and e
Sol. Choice (b), (d) and (e) are incorrect. Remember that value of ‘l’ ranges from (0) to (n
– 1) and values of ‘m’ range from (–l) to (+l). Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
sulphite ion in acidic solution is:
a. 1
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice : (4)
Q. 6. In a first-order reaction , if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the
reactant A is 0.5 M then the half-life is :
a.
b.
(d) 1 0 -1 - ½
(e) 3 2 3 +1/2
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 7. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:
This reaction is of first order with respect to , following mechanisms
were proposed :
Mechanism A :
Mechanism B :
Which of the above mechanism (s) can be consistent with the given information about the
reaction
a. A only
b. B only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. The rate law is invariably determined from the slowest step of the mechanism.
Therefore mechanism (B) is consistent with the data given for order of reaction. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 8. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same
reaction would be completed in approximately :
a. 40 minutes
b. 50 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 9. The equilibrium constant of the reaction :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 10. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionized. If Kf for water is
1.86 K kg mol sup-1 , the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
a. – 0.56 K
b. – 1.12 K
c. 0.56 K
d. 1.12 K
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 11.The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Efficiency of a fuel cell Correct choice: (4)
Q. 12. Consider the following reactions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Heat of formation of H2O(l) = -X2 kJ / mol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 13. Given that bond energies of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 14. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption
a. The adsorbed molecules interact with each other
b. The adsorption takes place in multilayers
c. The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
d. The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
Sol. angmuir adsorption has the following postulates
a. The isotherm is devised for adsorption equilibrium i.e., when rate of adsorption =
rate of desorption
b. Adsorption at all sites is equivalent
c. Adsorption at a site is unaffected by adsorption at neighboring sites.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 15. The following equilibrium constants are given
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 16. Caulate the pOH of a solution at 250C that contains
a. 1.000
b. 7.000
c. 4.000
d. 9.000
Sol. Correct choice : (3)
Q. 17. Aweak acid, mol of this acid is dissolved in
one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
a. 0.100%
b. 99.0%
c. 1.00%
d. 99.9%
Sol. We know that, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 18. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Packing fraction for a simple cube Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. Identify the correct order of the size of the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Anions have the largest sizes followed by neutral atoms and then cations for a
respective period. So, the correct order should be
Correct choice: (3)
Q.20. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Both -
Q. 21. The correct order of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order of
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form
stable compound?
a. I- b. HS- c.
d. E- Sol. Strongest base would have the highest proton affinity i.e, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
a. SrSO4
b. BaSO4
c. MgSO4
d. RaSO4
Sol. MgSO4 is the most soluble out of the given alkaline earth metal sulphates. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 24. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting sulphide ore
before reduction is not true?
a. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
b. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
c. The of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 andH2S
d. The is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
Sol. Carbon and hydrogen are not suitable for reduction of sulphides directly. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 25. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Sulphides ores of metals are usually concentrated by Froth Flotation process.
Which one of the following sulphides oresoffers an exception and is concentrated by
chemical leaching?
a. Sphalerite
b. Argentite
c. Galena
d. Copper pyrite
Sol. Argentite ore is leached with NaCN during extraction of silver in the Mc Arthur
Forrest Cyanide process. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. Which one of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Chain silicates have the general formula Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid
strengths of the given acids?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 29. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin
respectively?
a. + 2, + 2
b. + 4, + 2
c. + 2, + 4
d. + 4, + 4
Sol. Among common characteristic states for Pb and Sn, we find +2 and +4 respectively.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 30. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
b. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
c. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
d. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition
elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements
Sol. The atomic radii of 4d and 5d elements down the group become quite similar due to
lanthanidecontraction. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 31. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(Atomic number. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
Sol . is the most stable ion in aqueous medium. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 32. The d electron configurations of Cr . Which one of the
following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. will have two unpaired electrons and
will show least paramagnetic character. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . The complex ion can show optical isomerism in its cis-isomer, and
will form a pair of enantiomorphs. Its trans-form will be optically inactive (meso).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 34. If NaCl is doped with
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Number of moles of cationic vacancies
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 35. Which of the following presents the correct order of the acidity in the given
compounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 36. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
a. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
b. a beta-hydroxy acid
c. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
d. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
Sol. Aldol condensation leads to formation of
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 37. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and
conc.HCl is called
a. Wolf-Kishner Reduction
b. Clemmensen Reduction
c. Cope Reduction
d. Dow Reduction
Sol. This is Clemmensen’s reduction. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 38. Consider the following compounds
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
a. (b) > (d) > (a) > (c)
b. (b) > (d) > (c) > (a)
c. (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
d. (d) > (b) > (a) > (c)
Sol. The attack of the nucleophile onto the carbonyl carbon is the rate-determining step.
So, order must be (b) > (d) > (a) > (c) Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Benzaldehyde has no hydrogen atom, so it can undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a
secondary amine?
a. Methyl Cyanide
b. Nitroethane
c. Methylisocyanide
d. Acetamide
Sol. Methyl isocyanide on reduction with LiAlH 4 will give dimethylamine. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 41. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the
following:
a. Benzene
b. Toluene
c. Chlorobenzene
d. Phenol would be
a. d > b > a > c
b. a > b > c > d
c. b > d > a > c
d. d > c > b > a
Sol. The correct order is d > b > a > c. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 42. Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 43. Which of the compounds with molecular formulaC5H10 yields acetone on
ozonolysis?
a. 2 – Methyl – 1 – butene
b. 2 – Methyl – 2 – butane
c. 3 – Methyl – 1 – butane
d. Cyclopentane
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 44. If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent,
thought to be chiral, it may mean that
a. the compound may be a racemic mixture
b. the compound is certainly a chiral
c. the compound is certainly meso
d. there is no compound in the solvent
Sol. The given compound was thought to be chiral because of a chiral carbon/s. If there is
no optical activity, it means the compound must certainly be meso. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. For the following
a. l–
b. Cl –
c. Br- the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The order of nucleophilicities of halides ions in water (default solvent) will be
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 46. has a chiral centre. Which one of the following
represents its R configuration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Q. 47. In the reaction
Which of the following compounds will be formed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 48. Which one of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitam in K
Sol. Vitamin (B) and vitamin (C) are water soluble, while Vitamin (A), (D), (E) and (K)
are fat soluble. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 49. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
a. D – sugar component
b. L – sugar component
c. Chiral bases
d. Chiral phosphate ester units
Sol. Deoxyribose and ribose sugars are D -chiral sugars in DNA and RNA. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 50. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?
a. Styrene ]
b. Nylon – 66
c. Teflon
d. Rubber
Sol. Nylon-66 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid.
\Correct choice: (2)
PHYSICS
Q. 1. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M,
of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 2. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given
are constant. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In
the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0 , the particle’s velocity (vx ) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
If they have asked instantaneous velocity when Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform
speed vd .The average speed for this round trip is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. In question it must be car moves from X to Y and returns to X.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane.
Its co-ordinates at a later time are . The path of the particle makes with the x-axis
an angle of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity
V. If is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come
to rest after a time
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 6. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a
height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the
spring is compressed by a distance d . The net work done in the process is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2 and an initial angular speed of
2.00 rad / sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of
a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
Sol. Correct choice:
(3)
Q. 8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 9. The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x -axis is given by
where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle
when it achieves maximum speed along the +x direction?
a. 24 m
b. 32 m
c. 54 m
d. 81 m
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 10. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the
ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When
pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring
constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the
mass gets detached from the pan?
a. 4.0 cm
b. 8.0 cm
c. 10.0 cm
d. any value less than 12.0 cm
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 11. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity V along the straight
line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is
at A and LB when it is at B, then
a.
b.
c.
d. The relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 12. A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod
is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the
rod about , the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 13. Two satellites of earth, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of is
four times the mass of . Which one of the following statements is true?
a. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal.
b. The time period of is four times that of .
c. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal.
d. are moving with the same speed.
Sol . As orbital velocity it is independent of mass of satellite Correct choice:
(4)
Q. 14. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r , radiating like a
black body at temperature , the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the
incident rays) at a distance R from the center of the sun is (where is the Stefan’s
constant).
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Power radiated
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 15. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by
620C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 16. A black body is at . It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 17. The frequency of a light wave in a material is and wavelength is
5000Å. The refractive index of material will be
a. 1.33
b. 1.40
c. 1.50
d. 3.00
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 18. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
particle executing simple harmonic motion is
a. (1) zero
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy .
The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 20. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a . The period
of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude
from the equilibrium position is
a. T / 2
b. T / 4
c. T / 8
d. T /12
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 21. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
a. in phase and perpendicular to each other
b. in phase and parallel to each other
c. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
d. in opposite phase and parallel to each other
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light
from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see
figure). How fast is the light traveling in the liquid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 23. Charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance
2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q
along the semicircle CRD is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. At C potential
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 24. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If f is the electric flux in units
of volt × meter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
surface A in units of volt × meter will be
a.
b.
c.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 25. Three point charges +q, - 2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x =
0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the
electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other of capacity C/2, are connected to
a V-volt battery, as shown. The work done in charging fully both the condensers is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 27. The total power dissipated in Watts in the circuit shown here is
a. 4
b. 16
c. 40
d. 54
Sol . Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltameter for 10 minute. If
the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30´10 -5 gm coulomb-1 , the mass of copper
deposited on the electrode will be
a. 0.27 gm
b. 0.40 gm
c. 0.50 gm
d. 0.67 gm
Sol . m = Zit; m = 0.27gm Correct choice: (1)
Q. 29. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 00C and the hot junction is kept at
T0C, then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn ) and temperature of inversion (Ti
) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Three resistances P, Q, R each of and an unknown resistance S form the four
arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of is connected in parallel to
S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol .
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. The resistance of an ammeter is and its scale is graduated for a current upto
100 Amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes
possible to measure currents upto 750 Amperes by this meter. The value of shuntresistance
is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charge-particle is moving in a
circle of radius R with constant speed V. The time period of the motion
a. depends on R and not on V
b. depends on V and not on R
c. depends on both R and V
d. is independent of both R and V
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. A charged particle (charge q ) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed
v . The associated magnetic moment is given by
a. qvR
b. qv R / 2
c. qv R2
d. qvR2 / 2
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 34. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 35. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
respectively. If the magnetic flu f linked with the primary coil is given by
is a constant, the output
voltage across the secondary coil is
a. 30 volts
b. 90 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 220 volts
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 36. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is a maximum in a series
LCR circuit with
a. 10 mH
b. 100 mH
c. 1 mH
d. cannot be calculated unless R is known
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the
main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 90%
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 38. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is
increased beyond Curie temperature then it will show
a. diamagnetism
b. paramagnetism
c. anti ferromagnetism
d. no magnetic property
Sol . Fact based Correct choice: (2)
Q. 39. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength . When placed
0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the
source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will
a. be reduced by a factor of 2
b. be reduced by a factor of 4
c. be reduced by a factor of 8
d. be reduced by a factor of 16
Q. 40. Monochromatic light of frequency is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is . The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the
source per second is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 41. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially
accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of
radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio
will be proportional to
a. R
b. 1/R
c. 1/R2
d. R2
Sol . Radius of path
Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 42. If the nucleus 13 has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then Te
would have its radius approximately as
a. 4.8 fm
b. 6.0 fm
c. 9.6 fm
d. 12.0 fm
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted particles are
a. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
b. the electrons present inside the nucleus
c. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
d. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
Sol . When neutron decays as given Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. A nucleus has nucleus A X
Z has mass represented by M (A, Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of proton and neutron
respectively and B.E the binding energy in Me V then
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants respectively.
At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those
of B will be after a time interval
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 46. The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The
kinetic energy of an electron in the firstm excited state is
a. 1.7 eV
b. 3.4 eV
c. 6.8 eV
d. 13.6 eV
Sol. Total energy in 1st excited state
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled
circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is
a. an n-type semiconductor
b. a p-type semiconductor
c. an insulator
d. a metal
Sol. In diagram acceptor level is near valance band which will happen in p-type
semiconductor. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of
and an output impedance of . The power gain of the amplifier is
a. 100
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1250
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 49. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed
by the truth table
(i) A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 1 1
(ii) A B Y
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(iii) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(iv) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
Q. 50. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the
cell characteristics is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. the cubic system is the most symmetric out of all seven crystal systems. All edges for
the unit cell are same i.e., a = b = c and all angles are right angles i.e.,
Correct choice: (1)
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Reply


Reply to this Question / Ask Another Question
Your Username: Click here to log in

Message:
Options

Forum Jump


All times are GMT +6.5. The time now is 07:35 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2019, vBulletin Solutions Inc.
Search Engine Optimisation provided by DragonByte SEO v2.0.42 (Pro) - vBulletin Mods & Addons Copyright © 2019 DragonByte Technologies Ltd.