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Old March 28th, 2014, 02:47 PM
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Default NTSE Exam Sample Papers

I am looking for the previous year sample papers of the NTSE Exam?
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Old March 28th, 2014, 03:54 PM
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The National Talent Search Examination (NTSE) is a national level scholarship program in India to Identify and Nurture talented students. NTSE is one of the oldest and most prestigious scholarship exams in India. Around 1000 NTSE Scholars are finally awarded scholarships based on Stage – II. It honours and helps talented students by providing financial assistance in the form of a monthly scholarship.

Exam Pattern:

The NTSE is divided into two broad categories:

Mental Ability Test (MAT)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) (with questions on history, civics, geography, rarely economics, maths, physics, chemistry and biology.)

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Old March 29th, 2014, 01:33 PM
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Default NTSE Exam Sample Papers

I am looking to appear in the NTSE Exam. So will you give me some Sample Papers of NTSE Exam?
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Old March 30th, 2014, 12:13 PM
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As you want to get some Sample Papers of NTSE Exam, so here I am providing the following Sample Papers:

NTSE Exam Sample Paper Chemistry
Q1. If ethanol reacts with oxygen it produces
(a) Acetic Acid
(b) Hydrocloric Acid
(c) Sulphuric Acid
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans. (a) O H COOH CH O OH H C O Cr K
2 3
2 5 2
2 2 →
Acetic Acid
Q2. Fill the question mark in following reaction
CH3COONa + NaOH/CaO →∆? + Na2Co3
(a) 2 C2H6 (b) CH4
(c) C2H4 (d) None of these
Ans. When Sodium acetate react with sodalime, methane is produced
Q3. A burner consumes one gram of LPG in 11 sec. What is the power of consumption of burner in
KW if Cv of LPG is 55 kJ/g.
(a) 5 kW
(b) 10 kW
(c) 5.5 kW
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Power = E / T = 55 / 11 = 5 kW, Time (T) = 1 sec.
Q4. The ideal gas equation is
(a) P1T1 / V1 = P2V2 / T2
(b) P1V1 / T1 = P2V2 / T2
(c) P1V1T1 = P2V2T2
(d) P1V1 / T2 = P2V2 / T1
Ans. (b)
Q5. Dalton’s Law of partial pressure is obeyed in which one of the following pair of gases
(a) Oxygen & Nitrogen
(b) Nitrogen & Hydrogen
(c) Hydrogen & Argon
(d) Hydrogen & oxygen
Ans. (c)
Q6. The molecular formula of a compound in (CO)x and its vapour density is 70. Then the possible
value of x is
(a) 2 (b) 10
(c) 5 (d) 9
Ans. (c)
Q7. Number of groups present in the long form of the periodic table are
(a) 16 (b) 8
(c) 2 (d) 18
Ans. (a)
Q8. Which of the following is a neutral oxide
(a) NO (b) NO2
(c) N2O5 (d) CO2
Ans. (a)
Q9. Molecular weight of a substance is equivalent to
(a) Sum of atomic wt. of each element present in the given substance
(b) Sum of At.wt of each element with their respective number present in each compound
(c) Sum of equivalent wt. of each element present in the given substance
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q10. Covalent linkages is formed by
(a) Transfer of electrons
(b) Mutual sharing of electrons
(c) Transfer as well as mutual sharing of electrons
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q11. If an acid having construction as 0.01 N is diluted to 1000 times then the PH of that acid is ?
(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 10
Ans. (a)
Q12. Oxygen has two isotopes O16 & O18. If the percentage of O16 is 90 then the atomic weight of
oxygen will be
(a) 16 (b) 16.2
(c) 16.4 (d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q13. Atom that can neither gain nor lose electrons is said to be
(a) an Inert
(b) Atomsperic
(c) Metalic
(d) Non – metalic
Ans. (a)
Q14. When a burning splinter is brought near the gas jar containing hydrogen gas a poping sound is
observed. It is due to
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) exothermic & endothermic
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q15. In which of the following preparation Hydrogen is not used?
(a) preparation of Ammonia (NH3)
(b) Hydrogenetion of oil
(c) Synthesis of water gas
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q16. Deacon’s process is used for the manufacturing of
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) chlorine
(d) Hydrochloric acid (HCL)
Ans. (c)
Q17. Which one of the following method is considered to be a best method for the removal of
temporary hardness of water
(a) Caylon’s process
(b) Clark’s process
(c) Vesence process
(d) Permutti’s process
Ans. (b)
Q18. When chlorine gas is passed through NaoH, it forms
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Sodium chlorate
(c) Sodium hypochlorite
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
Q19. Skin becomes yellow in Conc. H2SO4 as
(a) HNO3 acts as an oxidizing agent
(b) HNO3 acts as a dehydrating agent
(c) Nitro – cellulose is formed
(d) The proteins are converted into xantho proteins
Ans. (d)
Q20. Which of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
(a) Water (b) Heavy water
(c) Active Hydrogen (d) Heavy Hydrogen
Ans. (b)
Q21. Which one of the following is known as “King of Chemicals”
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Phosphoric acid
Ans. (b)
Q22. The common gas used in our refrigerator
(a) maresh gas (b) producer gas
(c) freon (d) water gas
Ans. (c)
Q23. Alum is added with muddy water to
(a) Kill bactaria
(b) Make filtration of milk
(c) Make the sedimsitation process quick
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q24. Alloy is a homogenous mixture of
(a) two or more metals
(b) a metal & a non metal
(c) metals as well as non metals
(d) all of these
Ans. (c)
Q25. To protect the metal from corrosion it is some times coated with a thin layer of Al2O3
(Aluminium oxide) and the process is called
(a) Electroplating
(b) Electroforming
(c) Aluminizing
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q26. The I.U.P.A.C. name of the compound CH2 CH2 CH (CH3)2 is
(a) N – Propene
(b) 3 methyl butane
(c) 2 methyl butene
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q27. Fuel in Automobiles is a mixture of
(a) saturated hydrocarbons
(b) unsaturated hydrocarbons
(c) crude oil
(d) saturated & unsaturated hydrocarbons
Ans. (c)
Q28. In the soda fire extinguishes due to
(a) formation of CO2
(b) presence of sodium bicarbonate
(c) formation of water as a product
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q29. The glasses which is used for making lenses and prisms for optical instrument
(a) Hard glass
(b) Pyrex glass
(c) Croked glass
(d) Tint glass
Ans. (c)
Q30. Which of the following is of a thermoplastic?
(a) Teflon
(b) Orlon
(c) Bakelite
(d) Polythene

1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. ILO - London
2. ICJ - Hague
3. UNESCO - Washington
4. WHO - Paris
2. Arrange the following Indo-Pak events in correct chronological order.
A. Creation of Bangladesh
B. Tashkant Declaration
C. Simla Agreement
D. Lahore Declaration
Which order is correct?
1. A C D B
2. B A C D
3. D B A C
4. A B C D
3-4 Direction: Read the following statement and answer the questions that follow.
"India with over 2 percent of the world's geographical area is inhibited by
16 percent of the world population".
3. From the above statement, it is inferred that in the world population almost every
1. 5th person is Indian
2. 6th person is Indian
3. 7th person is Indian
4. 8th person is Indian
4. Which of the following countries fits in a completely reverse position explained in
the above statement?
1. China
2. Bangladesh
3. United Kingdom
4. Australia
5. Which pairs are correctly matched? Select the correct alternative.
a. Brahmo Samaj - Dayanand Saraswati
b. Arya Samaj- Vivekananda
c. Ramakrishna Mission - Raja Ram Mohan Roy
d. Aligarh Movement - Syed Ahmed Khan
e. Veda Samaj - Cembeti Sridharlu Naidu
1. a and d
2. b and e
3. d and e
4. c and d
6. Some persons and events are stated below:
A. Warren Hastings I Theosophical Society of India
B. Col. Olcott II Duel Government in Bengal
C. Lord Ripon III The French Revolution
D. Tipu Sultan IV The Local Self Government
Which of the following indicates the correct matching of the above 7
1. A I B. II C. Ill D. IV
2. A II B. III C. II D. I
3. A II B. I C. IV D. III
4. A IV B. II C. I D. III
7. Stated below are some statements.
a. The Modern Age suddenly came into existence
b. The Renaissance emphasized the value of reason and scientific temper in life.
c. The Industrial Revolution in England led to the decline of Cottage Industries in
Which statements are true?
1. a and b
2. b and c
3. a and c
4. a, b and c
8-9. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The later part of the eighteenth century saw two revolutions, which played an
important role in the making of the modem world.
The first one involved English Government against its thirteen colonies. Most of
the people settled in these colonies had come from England.
8. The passage is referring to two revolutions. Which of the following are these?
1. Russian Revolution and French Revolution
2. American Revolution and French Revolution
3. American Revolution and Chinese Revolution
4. French Revolution and Chinese Revolution
9. Which of the following Revolutions is related to the thirteen English Colonies?
1. Russian Revolution
2. American Revolution
3. Industrial Revolution
4. French Revolution
10. A volcano erupts on the ocean floor and a ship is located on the oceanic surface
very close to the epicentre. Which one of the following conditions will the ship
1. get toppled
2. drift away
3. wreck
4. not much of a change
11. Read the following statements
A. The towns in Canadian prairies developed after the construction of
Canadian Pacific Railway.
B. Most of the Cities of India were connected by railways after these had
already developed.
Which one of the following is correct?
1. A is true, B is false
2. A is false, B is true
3. Both A and B are true
4. Both A and B are false
12. Which one of the following sequences of the atmospheric layers will a space shuttle
encounter while returning to the earth?
1. Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere
2. Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere
3. Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere
4. Ionosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere
13. Given below are some characteristics of a region.
a. Rainfall is scanty
b. Difference between day and night temperature is high
c. Very little vegetation is found
Which of the following regions has all these features?
1. coasts
2. deserts
3. plateaus
4. plains
14. Given below is the scale, which shows in sequence the limits of crust, outer mantle, inner
mantle, outer core and inner core represented by 1,2,3,4 and 5 respectively. Which of
the following scales represents the correct pattern of measurement?
15. Read the following:
a. 80% of forests have been cleared.
b. A quarter of world's mammals are at risk of extinction.
c. Global warming will trigger a devastating rise in sea levels.
Which of the following best explains all of the above?
1. Increasing industrialization
2. Large scale urbanization
3. Increased human activity
4. Large scale mechanization

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File Type: pdf NTSE Exam Sample Paper Chemistry.pdf (116.3 KB, 16 views)
File Type: pdf NTSE Exam Sample Paper Mathematics.pdf (130.4 KB, 13 views)
File Type: pdf NTSE Exam Sample Paper Social Sciences.pdf (23.6 KB, 12 views)
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Old September 16th, 2015, 06:01 PM
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Default Re: NTSE Exam Sample Papers

I want to give the National Talent Search Examination and for that I want to get the National Talent Search Examination exam sample papers so can you provide me that?
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Old September 16th, 2015, 06:04 PM
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Posts: 19,443
Default Re: NTSE Exam Sample Papers

As you want to get the National Talent Search Examination exam sample papers so here is the information of the same for you:

(a) asibu (b) oarse
(c) oinak (d) zamol
(e) yaixe
Ans. (d) as each contains 2 consonants and 3 vowel but d does not.
(a) MNM (b) HJR
(c) VWD (d) BCX
(e) KLO
Ans. (b) as in others first two letters are serially pronounced but (b) is not in order.
(a) ira (b) aam
(c) kas (d) utr
(e) btd
Ans. (e) as all other four gives a sense of words by arranging the letters as air, man ask and True but (e)
does not as such.
(a) yxz (b) cbd
(c) nmr (d) wvx
(e) pqo
Ans. (e) as in other four we find the middle letter in the initial letter in order like xyz, bcd, etc
(a) AiiR (b) MooX
(c) VxxZ (d) DecY
(e) DffH
Ans. (d) as other four there are some letters repeated twice in the middle which is a deviation in (d).
(a) cot (b) pot
(c) but (d) hut
(e) mat
Ans. (e) pronounciation changed.
(a) AabD (b) eEcf
(c) pPrs (d) nNxz
(e) dDrs
Ans. (a) as the first letter is capital.
(a) ability (b) capability
(c) probability (d) surety
(e) flexibility
Ans. (d) as in others ‘li’ is absent to give a right sense but (d) has already a sense.
(a) doe (b) man
(c) xaz (d) poq
(e) oep
Ans. (c) as in all others two consecutive alphabets occur at the ends as de,mn, pq, and op.
(a) ACE (b) PKR
(c) NPR (d) GIK
(e) PRT
Ans. (b) as in all others in each alphabet there is a difference of one space.
Directions: In each of following questions, there are four or five alternatives given. Find the correct one for
each question.
Q11. Two numbers are in the ratio 5:6 and if 4 is subtracted from each, they are reduced to 2:3, then
the highest number is
(a) 4 (b) 12
(c) 8 (d) 10
Ans. (c) the highest number be 6x and the least number be 5x.

DIRECTIONS: The six faces of a cube are painted in a manner that no two adjacent faces have the same
colour. The three colour used in the painting are red, blue and green. The cube is then cut into 64 equal
cubical parts. Answer the following questions.
Q36. How many cubes in all have three sides painted?
(a) 24 (b) 16
(c) 10 (d) 8
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
Q37. How many cubes have only two sides painted?
(a) 16 (b) 24
(c) 8 (d) 6
(e) None of these.
Ans. (b)
Q38. How many cubes have one and two sides painted but the third side is not painted.
(a) 28 (b) 24
(c) 48 (d) 64
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q39. How many cubes are there whose only one side is painted?
(a) 24 (b) 4
(c) 48 (d) 64
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q40. How many cubes are there which has no sides painted?
(a) 8 (b) 64
(c) 36 (d) 48
(e) 16
Ans. (a)
DIRECTIONS: The following questions are based on letter series from which some of the letters are
missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as are of the alternative among the five given
under each question. Find the correct alternative for each case.
Q41. aab – aaa – bba –
(a) bab (b) abb
(c) baa (d) bba
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q42. abba – baaabba – bbaaa
(a) aaa (b) aba
(c) bba (d) abab
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q43. – abaaaba – a – a
(a) aab (b) abb
(c) aba (d) bba
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q44. b – a – aab – ab – –
(a) abaaa (b) ababa
(c) aabba (d) bbaba
(e) babab
Ans. (a)
Q45. p – x – pt – – – txppt
(a) ptxptx (b) pxtptx
(c) ptptxt (d) xptxpt
(e) tpxppx
Ans. (e)
DIRECTIONS: In each of the following question apply the interchanging of the codes to choose correct
Then SMLE = ?
(a) SMLE (b) SMILE
(c) SLME (d) SLMIE
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
Ans. (e)
Q48. If ROTUND = RONDTU, then PATATO = ?
Ans. (a)

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