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Old March 28th, 2014, 09:41 AM
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As you want to get the Question Paper of Bharathiyar University SET Exam of Chemical Sciences Paper-II, so here I am providing the following question paper:

Bharathiyar University SET Exam of Chemical Sciences Paper-II

1. The number of nodes in a 3s orbital
is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
2. The energy of an orbital in the
hydrogen atom depends on the
quantum number :
(A) n
(B) l
(C) m
(D) s

Note : This paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
3. The three unpaired electrons on the
nitrogen atom is ascribed to :
(A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(B) Aufbau principle
(C) Hund’s rule
(D) Uncertainty principle
4. In PCl5, the hybridization of the
orbitals of the P atom is :
(A) d2sp2
(B) dsp3
(C) d3sp
(D) d3p3

5. Haber’s process for preparation of
ammonia is exothermic. It is carried
out at a high temperature so as to
ensure :
(A) Faster rate of production of
(B) Vaporization of reactants/
(C) Declogging of the surface of the
(D) Greater yield
6. Increase in entropy of the system
marks the spontaneity of a process
for :
(A) All systems
(B) Isolated systems
(C) Isothermal processes
(D) Isobaric processes
7. If T0 is the boiling point of a pure
solvent, then the increase in boiling
point of a solution in this solvent
varies as :
(A) 2
0 T
(B) 2
0 1/T
(C) T0
(D) 1/T0
8. Upon increasing the temperature :
(A) The pH of water remains
(B) The pH of water increases
(C) Water becomes acidic
(D) The pH of water decreases

9. In 1.0 M NaCl solution, activity of
water will approximately be :
(A) 1
(B) > 1
(C) < 1
(D) The data is insufficient
10. The pre-exponential factor in
Arrhenius function does not depend
on :
(A) Frequency of collisions
(B) Temperature
(C) Viscosity of the medium
(D) Activation energy
11. A catalyst increases the rate of a
reaction by :
(A) Decreasing the activation
(B) Increasing the activation
(C) Making the reaction
(D) Making the reaction exothermic
12. The symmetry point group for allene
is :
(A) D2h
(B) C2h
(C) C2d
(D) D2d
13. Number of bending vibrational
modes for a polyatomic linear
molecule having N atoms is :
(A) 3N – 5
(B) 2N – 4
(C) 2N – 5
(D) 3N – 6

14. The following figure is of packing of
ions into the unit cell. If the cube
is divided into 8 small cubes, then
the centre of each such small sub-
cube is called :
(A) Body centre void
(B) Tetrahedral void
(C) Octahedral void
(D) Face centered void
15. One Faraday of electricity is passed
through molten Al2O3, aqueous
solution of CuSO4 and molten NaCl
taken in three different electrolytic
cells connected in series. The mole
ratio of Al, Cu and Na deposited at
the respective cathodes is :
(A) 2 : 3 : 6
(B) 6 : 2 : 3
(C) 6 : 3 : 2
(D) 1 : 2 : 3
16. The coefficient of variation (CV) in
the Pb (100 µg ± 10 µg, x = 50 µg
per kg) found in the industrial
effluent is :
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 20%
(D) 50%
17. The IUPAC name of the following
compound is :
(A) 6-(1, 2-dimethylbutyl)-
(B) 5-(1, 2-dimethylbutyl)-
(C) 6-butyl-7, 8-dimethyl-
(D) 6-butyl-5-ethyl-7,

18. The stereochemical notations of
double bonds is :
(A) 2E, 5E, 7E
(B) 2Z, 5Z, 7E
(C) 2E, 5Z, 7E
(D) 2E, 5Z, 7Z
19. The correct molecule having the
absolute configuration as (2S, 3R)-
3-chloro-2-pentanol is :
20. The following compound is :
(A) D-Erythrose
(B) L-threose
(C) L-Erythrose
(D) D-threose
21. The most stable isomer between all
1, 2-dimethylcyclohexane is :
(A) Di-equatorial
(B) Equatorial, axial
(C) Di-axial 1,2-dimethylcyclo-
(D) All equally stable isomers

22. The above reaction is an example
of :
(A) Fries rearrangement
(B) Lossen rearrangement
(C) Schmidt rearrangement
(D) Curtius rearrangement
23. H5C2OOC-(CH2)4-COOC2H5 on
reaction with sodium in toluene
followed by acidification gave a cyclic
five membered beta-keto ester. The
reaction is :
(A) Aldol reaction
(B) Dieckmann condensation
(C) Claisen condensation
(D) Perkin reaction
24. In the following conversion, the
suitable reagents used are :
(A) Br-CH2-COOEt, Zn followed by
acidic hydrolysis
(B) Br-CH2-COOEt, Mg followed by
acidic hydrolysis
(C) Br-CH2-COOEt, Cu followed by
acidic hydrolysis
(D) Br-CH2-COOEt, Mg + CdCl2
followed by acidic hydrolysis

25. The product of the following reaction
is :
(A) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3
(B) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
(D) CH3–C–CH3
26. The Diels-Alder reaction of 1, 3-
butadiene with cis-cinnamic acid
gives :
27. The following reaction gives :
3 3
( ) Ph P= C—OCH
( ) H O Heat

(A) CH3–(CH2)5CH=C–OCH3
(B) CH3–(CH2)5–CH2-CO–CH3
(C) CH3–(CH2)5–CH2C=CH2
(D) CH3–(CH2)5CH2–CH–CH3
28. Which of the following statements
is correct ?
(A) cis-1, 2,-dicholorobutene has
dipole moment and has higher
B.P. than the trans isomer
(B) trans-1, 2-dichlorobutene has
dipole moment and has higher
B.P. than the cis isomer
(C) cis-1, 2-dichlorobutene has
dipole moment and has lower
B.P. than the trans isomer
(D) trans-1, 2-dichlorobutene has
dipole moment and has lower
B.P. than the cis isomer

29. Bromination of ethyl benzene under
light gives :
(A) Ph–CH2–CH2–Br
(B) Ph–CH–CH3
30. The major product formed in the
nitration reaction of m-nitro benzoic
acid is :
(A) 3,6-dinitrobenzoic acid
(B) 2,3-dinitrobenzoic acid
(C) 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid
(D) 3,5-dinitrobenzoic acid
31. In case of alkenes the McLafferty
rearrangement produces ions of
general formula :
(A) CnHn
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n–2
(D) CnH2n
32. The 1H NMR signal of CHBr3
appears at 2064 Hz in 300 MHz
NMR spectrometer. The
corresponding chemical shift in 
is :
(A) 6.58
(B) 5.88
(C) 7.27
(D) 6.88

33. Heme is a prosthetic group in a large
number of metalloproteins and
metalloenzymes, whose absorption
spectra is characterized by an
intense band at 400 nm and weaker
bands at 520-550 nm. The origin of
these bands are :
(A) LMCT transitions
(B) MLCT transitions
(C) –* transitions
(D) d-d transitions
34. The metal ion present in the active
site of the enzyme carbonic
anhydrase is :
(A) Zn2+
(B) Cu2+
(C) Mn2+
(D) Mg2+
35. Aqueous ammonia is added to an
aqueous solution containing
chlorides of Al3+, Cu2+, Fe3+, Ni2+
and Mn2+ to attain pH ~ 10 and the
solution filtered. Which one of the
following pairs of ions will pass into
the filtrate in some or the other
form :
(A) Fe3+, Mn2+
(B) Cu2+, Ni2+
(C) Al3+, Cu2+
(D) Mn2+, Ni2+
36. A blood red colour is obtained when
aqueous ferric ion solution reacts
with :
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4–

37. A 50 mL solution of KMnO4 having
absorbance value of 1.0 (at 525 nm)
is diluted to 100 mL. The absorbance
of the diluted solution will be :
(A) 2.0
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.25
38. The window material used in X-ray
diffractometer tube is made up of :
(A) Cu
(B) Be
(C) W
(D) Mo
39. The catalyst used in Zeiglar-Natta
process is :
(A) [HCo(CO)4]
(B) [PdCl4]2–
(C) V2O5
(D) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3
40. The crystal structure of high
temperature superconductor
YBa2Cu3O7 is based on :
(A) Perovskite
(B) Rutile
(C) Fluorite
(D) Wurtzite

41. What is the oxidation state of
vanadium in the complex
[(H2O)4V(µ-OH)2V(OH2)4]4+ ?
(A) +1
(B) +4
(C) +3
(D) +2
42. The type(s) of isomerism
possible in a molecule with the
formula, [Os(acac)2(SCN)2] ?
(A) geometrical, optical
(B) linkage, geometrical
(C) geometrical, optical,
(D) linkage, geometrical, optical
43. Which of the following metal ions
will form a low spin octahedral
complex with the highest magnetic
moment value ?
(A) Fe3+
(B) Co3+
(C) Co2+
(D) Cr3+
44. For ML = 3 and MS = 1 system, the
ground term symbol is :
(A) 4D3
(B) 3F2
(C) 4F2
(D) 3F3
45. Which of the following possesses
non-equivalent F atoms ?
(A) SF6
(B) [PF6]–
(C) SbF5
(D) XeF4

46. Which one of the following
compounds readily forms dimers ?
(A) AsCl3
(B) AlCl3
(C) PCl3
(D) BCl3
47. Mercury, though metal, is liquid at
normal temperatures because
of its :
(A) low cohesive energy
(B) low atomic number
(C) low heat of dissociation
(D) weak van der Waals forces
48. What should be the approximate
pH of a solution when 10 mL of
1 × 10–6 M HCl solution is diluted
to 1 litre of water ?
(A) 6.96
(B) 7.16
(C) 6.04
(D) 8.04
49. Which of the following metal ions
does not form a bent metallocene ?
(A) Zr2+
(B) Ti2+
(C) Mo3+
(D) Fe2+
50. Which of the following will form
clathrates ?
(A) Fe
(B) He
(C) CH4
(D) C6H6
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Old December 29th, 2014, 03:31 PM
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Join Date: Nov 2011
Default Re: Bharathiyar University SET Exam Question Papers

Bharathiar University, Coimbatore invites application for State Eligibility Test ( SET ) for Lectureship in Universities and colleges in Tamil Nadu & Union Territory of Puducherry.

The Test is conducted in Arts, Social Sciences, Science, Education and Commerce subjects.

As you want the Bharathiyar University SET Exam Question Paper so here I am providing you the same

Tentative dates
Last date for the submission of online application form: End of August
Last date for receiving filled in application: First week of September,
SET exam date : First week of October

Bharathiyar University SET Exam Question Paper

Bharathiyar University
Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu ‎

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