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#1
January 31st, 2014, 12:59 PM
 Unregistered Guest Posts: n/a
AIPMT Last Year Solved Papers

Can you give me question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance exam??
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#2
February 5th, 2014, 12:55 PM
 Sashwat Super Moderator Join Date: Jun 2011 Posts: 35,716
Re: AIPMT Last Year Solved Papers

All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance examination Is a well known entrance examination for admission in Medical courses offered by many reputed colleges situated in India..

Here I am giving you question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance exam

1. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions?
(a) energy density
(b) refractive index
(c) dielectric constant
(d) Young's modulus
(e) magnetic field
(1) (a) and (e)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (e)
(4) (a) and (d)

Energy density and Young's modulus have same dimensional formula.
2. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the
determination of volume of the sphere will be
(1) 2%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 8%

3. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration
in the third second is
(1)
(2) 6 m
(3) 4 m
(4)

4. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity
from 10 ms-1 to 20 ms-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of
t is
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 1.8
(4) 12

5. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum
instantaneous velocity of the particle is around the point
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

6. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o with the
horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its
momentum will be
(1) zero
(2) 2 mv
(3)
(4)

7. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to
keep the belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s will be
(1) Zero
(2) Mv newton
(3) 2 Mv newton
(4)

8. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force
only along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is
(1)
(2) 0.5 N
(3) 1.5 N
(4)

9. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The
losses due to frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the
turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 7.0 kW
(2) 8.1 kW
(3) 10.2 kW
(4) 12.3 kW

10. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that
generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is
(1) 120 ms-1
(2) 100 ms-1
(3) 80 ms-1
(4) 40 ms-1

11. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of
same mass and radius, around their respective axes is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the
angle between them is 90o. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing
through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the
rod is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go
round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top
of the hill is between
(1) 13 m/s and 14 m/s
(2) 14 m/s and 15 m/s
(3) 15 ms/ and 16 m/s
(4) 16 m/s and 17 m/s

14. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the
work done in a closed cycle process, then
(1) Q = 0
(2) W = 0
(3) Q = W = 0
(4) E = 0

15. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing
and boiling points of water are 39o W and 239o W respectively. What will be the
temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of 39o C on the Celsius
scale?
(1) 139o W
(2) 78o W
(3) 117o W
(4) 200o W

16. At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its
pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio is
(1)
(2) x
(3)
(4)

17. Two Simple Harmonic Motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s-1 have the
same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is
(1) 1 : 104
(2) 1 : 10
(3) 1 : 102
(4) 1 : 103

18. The wave described by where x and y are in meters and t in
seconds, is a wave travelling along the
(1) -ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength = 0.2 m
(2) -ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz
(3) +ve x direction with frequency Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m
(4) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m

19. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of
motion is given by x = a sin(wt + /6). After the elapse of what fraction of the time
period the velocity of the point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.
The period of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/sec. What is
the phase difference between the oscillations of two points?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity 0 and
permeability 0 is given by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in
the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is
(1) 2(I1 + I2)
(2) I1 + I2
(3)
(4)

23. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of
the combinations is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing Sunlight on a piece of paper using an
equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109 m and its
mean distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m. What is the diameter of the Sun's image on
the paper?
(1) 12.4 × 10-4 m
(2) 9.2 × 10-4 m
(3) 6.5 × 10-4 m
(4) 6.5 × 10-5 m

25. The energy required to charge a parallel plate condenser of plate separation d and
plate area of cross-section A such that the uniform electric field between the plates is E,
is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the
centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field
at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is
(1) 3 E along OK
(2) 3 E along KO
(3) E along OK
(4) E along KO

27. The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011
volts. The electric field at that point is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire,
respectively with and without being short circuited through a resistance of 10 . Its
internal resistance is
(1) Zero
(2) 1.0 ohm
(3) 0.5 ohm
(4) 2.0 ohm

29. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten per cent. It new resistance and
specific resistance become respectively
(1) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
(2) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(3) 1.21 times, same
(4) Both remain the same

30. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 resistor is 1 amp when the points P
and M are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between the points
M and N is
(1) 3.2 volt
(2) 1.5 volt
(3) 1.0 volt
(4) 0.5 volt

31. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg
of water from temperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling water is 100°C.
(1) 4.2 min
(2) 6.3 min
(3) 8.4 min
(4) 12.6 min

32. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 resistor shown in the circuit. The power
dissipated in the 5 resistor is
(1) 5 watt
(2) 4 watt
(3) 2 watt
(4) 1 watt

33. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform
magnetic field of induction After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be
(1) 4 T
(2) 3 T
(3) 2 T
(4) T

34.
A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the
magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the
plane of the paper and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is
(1) F3 - F1 + F2
(2) F3 - F1 - F2
(3)
(4)

35. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction
in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60° with The magnetic flux
linked with the disc is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a
resistance of 2950 in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the
galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series
should be
(1) 4450
(2) 5050
(3) 5550
(4) 6050

37. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(1) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(2) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
(3) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(4) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material

38. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the
resulting magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10-3 b. The selfinductance
of the solenoid is
(1) 4.0 henry
(2) 2.5 henry
(3) 2.0 henry
(4) 1.0 henry

39. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. (e) and the current (i ) at any instant are given
respectively by
The average power in the circuit over one cycle of a.c. is
(1) E0I0
(2)
(3)
(4)

40. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured
glow in the tube appears as a result of
(1) Collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas
(2) Excitation of electrons in the atoms
(3) Collision between the atoms of the gas
(4) Collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
the gas

41. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The
wavelength of the incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the
(1) X-ray region
(2) Ultraviolet region
(3) Visible region
(4) Infrared region

42. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a
velocity of 3 × 106 ms-1. The velocity of the particle is (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)
(1) 2.7 × 10-21 ms-1
(2) 2.7 × 10-18 ms-1
(3) 9 × 10-2 ms-1
(4) 3 × 10-31 ms-1

43. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. When its electron is in the
first excited state, its excitation energy is
(1) 0
(2) 3.4 eV
(3) 6.8 eV
(4) 10.2 eV

44. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 5 and respectively. If
initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1
to that of X2 will be after a time
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1:3. The ratio of their nuclear
densities would be
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) (3)1/3 : 1

46. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus proton and neutron
respectively in units of u (1u = 931.5 MeV / C2) and BE represents its bonding energy in
MeV, then
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

47. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain
without feedback will be
(1) 100
(2) 90
(3) 10
(4) 1.25

48. If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is 3.6 , then the atomic radius in
fcc crystal is
(1) 1.27
(2) 1.81
(3) 2.10
(4) 2.92

49. The circuit
is equivalent to
(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate

50. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum
frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly
(1) 20 × 1014 Hz
(2) 10 × 1014 Hz
(3) 5 × 1014 Hz
(4) 1 × 1014 Hz

51. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

52. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that
(1) Number of the molecules of gas increases
(2) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(3) Pressure of the gas increases
(4) Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same

53. The value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
The equilibrium constant of the reaction
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 16

54. If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred
cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be
respectively
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

55. Kohlrausch's law states that at
(1) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(2) Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(3) Infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(4) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte
whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte

56. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in
momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10-18 g cm s-1. The uncertainty in electron velocity is,
(mass of an electron is 9 × 10-28 g)
(1) 1 × 1011 cm s-1
(2) 1 × 109 cm s-1
(3) 1 × 106 cm s-1
(4) 1 × 105 cm s-1

57. Which of the following are not state functions?
(I) q + w
(II) q
(III) w
(IV) H-TS
(1) (II) and (III)
(2) (I) and (IV)
(3) (II), (III) and (IV)
(4) (I), (II) and (III)

58. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this
equation
These kinetic data were obtained for given reaction concentrations
Based on these data, the rate equation is
(1) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]
(2) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]
(3) Rate = k[CH = COCH3][Br2]
(4) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]2

59. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn
completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions?
(1) 10 L
(2) 7 L
(3) 6 L
(4) 5 L

99. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Natural rubber is a 1, 4 - polymer of isoprene
(2) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make
rubber harder and stronger
(3) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond
(4) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene

100. Which one of the following is an amine hormone?
(1) Progesterone
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Oxypurin
(4) Insulin

101. Select one of the following of important features distinguishing Gnetum from
Cycas and Pinus and showing
affinities with angiosperms
(1) Embryo development and apical meristem
(2) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(3) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
(4) Perianth and two integuments

102. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify
(1) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
(2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(3) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryoties but
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(4) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a
cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

103. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(1) Equisetum
(2) Dryopteris
(3) Salvinia

104. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free
living independent existence?
(1) Cedrus
(2) Pteris
(3) Funaria
(4) Polytrichum

105. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with
their one characteristic morphological feature?
Animals Morphological feature
(1) Cockroach, Locust, Taenia - Metameric segmentation
(2) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber - Bilateral symmetry
(3) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin - Jointed appendages
(4) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach - Ventral solid central nervous system

106. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general
characteristics?
(1) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or
veligerlarva
(2) Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
(3) Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the
outside
(4) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization

107. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?
(1) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(2) Scales on their hind limbs
(3) Four-chambered heart
(4) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract

108. Ascaris is characterized by
(1) Presence of true coclom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(2) Absence of true coclom but presence of metamerism
(3) Presence of neither true coclom nor metamerism
(4) Presence of true coclom but absence of metamerism

109. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
(1) Ventral nerve cord
(2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Segmentation
(4) Pseudocoelom

110. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of
(1) Saccharomyces
(2) Pythium
(3) Xanthomonas
(4) Pseudomonas

111. Vacuole in a plant cell
(1) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(2) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
(4) Lacks membrane and contains air

It is having tonoplast as membrane and stores water and excretory substances.
112. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is
(1) Malate
(2) Malonate
(3) Oxaloacetate
(4) - ketoglutarate

113. Polysome is formed by
(1) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(2) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(3) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
(4) A ribosome with several subunits

114. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the
following five properties of starch (a - e) make it useful as a storage material?
a. Easily translocated
b. Chemical non-reactive
c. Easily digested by animals
d. Osmotically inactive
e. Synthesized during photosynthesis
The useful properties are
(1) Both a & e
(2) Both b & c
(3) Both b & d
(4) a, c & e

115. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life
(bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about
archaea?
(1) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
(2) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(3) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(4) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

116. Keeping in view the 'fluid mosaic model' for the structure of cell membrane, which
one of the following statements is correct w.r.t. the movement of lipids and proteins from
one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?
(1) Neither lipids nor proteins can flip-flop
(2) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(3) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot
(4) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot

117. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Proplastids
(3) Glyoxysomes
(4) Peroxisomes

118. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of
(1) Calcium
(2) Copper
(3) Manganese
(4) Magnesium

119. Thron of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are example of
(1) Retrogressive evolution
(2) Analogous organs
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Vestigial organs

120. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because
(1) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
(2) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(3) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
(4) Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids

121. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly
matched with the category mentioned against it?
(1) Adenine, Thymine - Purines
(2) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
(3) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines
(4) Guanine, Adenine - Purines

122. Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its
(1) Down syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(2) Klinefelter syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY
(3) Colour blindness - Y-linked
(4) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked

123. In the DNA molecules
(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel-one in 5' 3' direction and other in 3'
5'
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5' 3' direction
(4) The proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism

124. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?
(1) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
(2) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe
(3) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population
(4) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to
their progeny

125. Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory
put forth by him?
(1) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
(2) Weismann - Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(3) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters
(4) de Vries - Natural selection

126. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts
(coacervates and micropheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
(1) They could maintain an internal environment
(2) They were able to reproduce
(3) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
(4) They were partially isolated from the surroundings

127. Darwin's Finches are an excellent example of
(3) Seasonal migration
(4) Brood parasitism

128. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of
organs mentioned against it?
(1) Wings of honey-bee and wings of crow - Homologous organs
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita - Analogous organs
(3) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs
(4) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of cockroach - Excretory organs

129. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent
testa in
(1) Cucumber
(2) Pomegranate
(3) Orange
(4) Guava

130. The C4 plants are phoptosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because
(1) They have more chloroplasts
(2) The CO2 compensation point is more
(3) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP
carboxylase
(4) The CO2 efflux is not prevented

131. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because
(1) There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondiral membrane toward
(2) High energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(3) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space
(4) A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

132. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary
is
(1) Cremocarp
(2) Caryopsis
(3) Cypsela
(4) Berry

133. The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in the water column in
vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap because of
(1) Transpiration pull
(2) Lignified thick walls
(3) Cohesion and adhesion
(4) Weak gravitational pull

134. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and
functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in
(1) Floral parts
(2) Vessels and tracheid differentiation
(3) Leaf abscission
(4) Annual plants

135. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from
(1) Dermatogen
(2) Phellogen
(3) Plerome
(4) Periblem

136. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in
(1) Guard cells
(2) Epidermal cells
(3) Mesophyll cells
(4) Bundle sheath

137. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in
(1) Petunia
(2) Lemna
(3) Tobacco
(4) Cotton

138. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of
(1) Maize
(2) Coconut
(3) Castor
(4) Pea

139. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by
(1) Azorhizobium
(3) Clostridium
(4) Frankia

140. The energy releasing process in which the substrate is oxidised without an external
electron acceptor is called
(1) Glycolysis
(2) Fermentation
(3) Photorespiration
(4) Aerobic respiration

141. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of
(1) Pea
(2) Lemon
(3) Mustard
(4) Sunflower

142. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of
(1) Mericarps
(2) Achenes
(3) Samaras
(4) Berries

143. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first
by
(1) Ferredoxin
(2) Cytochrome - b
(3) Cytochrome - f
(4) Quinone

144. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and
the natural anticoagulant heparin?
(1) Monocytes
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Basophils
(4) Eosinophils

145. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
(1) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
(2) Earthworm - The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus,
stomach, gizzard and intestine
(3) Frog - Body divisible into three regions - head, neck and trunk
(4) Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one

146. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the
given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

147. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(1) Total lungs capacity minus residual volume
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(3) Total lungs capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume

148. Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone
Cells of our retina?
Rod Cells Cone Cells
(1) Distribution
More concentrated in centre
of retina
Evenly distributed all over retina
(2) Visual acuity High Low
(3)
Visual pigment
contained
Iodopsin Rhodopsin
(4) Overall function Vision in poor light
Colour vision and detailed vision
in bright light

149. Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?
(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8
(2) Floating ribs in humans - 4
(3) Amino acids found in proteins - 16
(4) Types of diabetes - 3

150. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea
Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of three different
parts?
(1) A : Perilymph, B : Tectorial membrane, C : Endolymph
(2) B : Tectorial membrane, C : Perilymph, D : Secretory cells
(3) C : Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells, A : Serum
(4) D : Sensory hair cells, A : Endolymph, B : Tectorial membrane
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