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All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance examination Is a well known entrance examination for admission in Medical courses offered by many reputed colleges situated in India..

Here I am giving you question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance exam

1. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions?

(a) energy density

(b) refractive index

(c) dielectric constant

(d) Young's modulus

(e) magnetic field

(1) (a) and (e)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (c) and (e)

(4) (a) and (d)

Sol. Answer (4)

Energy density and Young's modulus have same dimensional formula.

2. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the

determination of volume of the sphere will be

(1) 2%

(2) 4%

(3) 6%

(4) 8%

Sol. Answer (3)

3. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration

in the third second is

(1)

(2) 6 m

(3) 4 m

(4)

Sol. Answer (4)

4. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity

from 10 ms-1 to 20 ms-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of

t is

(1) 9

(2) 10

(3) 1.8

(4) 12

Sol. Answer (1)

5. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum

instantaneous velocity of the particle is around the point

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Sol. Answer (3)

6. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o with the

horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its

momentum will be

(1) zero

(2) 2 mv

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (4)

7. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to

keep the belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s will be

(1) Zero

(2) Mv newton

(3) 2 Mv newton

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

8. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force

only along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is

(1)

(2) 0.5 N

(3) 1.5 N

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

9. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The

losses due to frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the

turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 7.0 kW

(2) 8.1 kW

(3) 10.2 kW

(4) 12.3 kW

Sol. Answer (2)

10. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that

generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is

(1) 120 ms-1

(2) 100 ms-1

(3) 80 ms-1

(4) 40 ms-1

Sol. Answer (2)

11. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of

same mass and radius, around their respective axes is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (3)

12. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the

angle between them is 90o. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing

through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the

rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (3)

13. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go

round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top

of the hill is between

(1) 13 m/s and 14 m/s

(2) 14 m/s and 15 m/s

(3) 15 ms/ and 16 m/s

(4) 16 m/s and 17 m/s

Sol. Answer (2)

14. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the

work done in a closed cycle process, then

(1) Q = 0

(2) W = 0

(3) Q = W = 0

(4) E = 0

Sol. Answer (4)

15. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing

and boiling points of water are 39o W and 239o W respectively. What will be the

temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of 39o C on the Celsius

scale?

(1) 139o W

(2) 78o W

(3) 117o W

(4) 200o W

Sol. Answer (3)

16. At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its

pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio is

(1)

(2) x

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (1)

17. Two Simple Harmonic Motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s-1 have the

same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is

(1) 1 : 104

(2) 1 : 10

(3) 1 : 102

(4) 1 : 103

Sol. Answer (3)

18. The wave described by where x and y are in meters and t in

seconds, is a wave travelling along the

(1) -ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength = 0.2 m

(2) -ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz

(3) +ve x direction with frequency Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m

(4) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m

Sol. Answer (4)

19. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of

motion is given by x = a sin(wt + /6). After the elapse of what fraction of the time

period the velocity of the point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (1)

20. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.

The period of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/sec. What is

the phase difference between the oscillations of two points?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (3)

21. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity 0 and

permeability 0 is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (4)

22. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in

the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

(1) 2(I1 + I2)

(2) I1 + I2

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (1)

23. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of

the combinations is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (1)

24. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing Sunlight on a piece of paper using an

equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109 m and its

mean distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m. What is the diameter of the Sun's image on

the paper?

(1) 12.4 × 10-4 m

(2) 9.2 × 10-4 m

(3) 6.5 × 10-4 m

(4) 6.5 × 10-5 m

Sol. Answer (2)

25. The energy required to charge a parallel plate condenser of plate separation d and

plate area of cross-section A such that the uniform electric field between the plates is E,

is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (1)

26. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the

centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field

at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is

(1) 3 E along OK

(2) 3 E along KO

(3) E along OK

(4) E along KO

Sol. Answer (3)

27. The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011

volts. The electric field at that point is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

28. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire,

respectively with and without being short circuited through a resistance of 10 . Its

internal resistance is

(1) Zero

(2) 1.0 ohm

(3) 0.5 ohm

(4) 2.0 ohm

Sol. Answer (2)

29. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten per cent. It new resistance and

specific resistance become respectively

(1) 1.1 times, 1.1 times

(2) 1.2 times, 1.1 times

(3) 1.21 times, same

(4) Both remain the same

Sol. Answer (3)

30. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 resistor is 1 amp when the points P

and M are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between the points

M and N is

(1) 3.2 volt

(2) 1.5 volt

(3) 1.0 volt

(4) 0.5 volt

Sol. Answer (1)

31. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg

of water from temperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling water is 100°C.

(1) 4.2 min

(2) 6.3 min

(3) 8.4 min

(4) 12.6 min

Sol. Answer (2)

32. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 resistor shown in the circuit. The power

dissipated in the 5 resistor is

(1) 5 watt

(2) 4 watt

(3) 2 watt

(4) 1 watt

Sol. Answer (1)

33. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform

magnetic field of induction After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be

(1) 4 T

(2) 3 T

(3) 2 T

(4) T

Sol. Answer (4)

34.

A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the

magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the

plane of the paper and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is

(1) F3 - F1 + F2

(2) F3 - F1 - F2

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (3)

35. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction

in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60° with The magnetic flux

linked with the disc is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

36. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a

resistance of 2950 in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the

galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series

should be

(1) 4450

(2) 5050

(3) 5550

(4) 6050

Sol. Answer (1)

37. Curie temperature is the temperature above which

(1) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material

(2) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material

(3) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material

(4) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material

Sol. Answer (2)

38. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the

resulting magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10-3 b. The selfinductance

of the solenoid is

(1) 4.0 henry

(2) 2.5 henry

(3) 2.0 henry

(4) 1.0 henry

Sol. Answer (4)

39. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. (e) and the current (i ) at any instant are given

respectively by

The average power in the circuit over one cycle of a.c. is

(1) E0I0

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (4)

40. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured

glow in the tube appears as a result of

(1) Collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas

(2) Excitation of electrons in the atoms

(3) Collision between the atoms of the gas

(4) Collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the atoms of

the gas

Sol. Answer (2)

41. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The

wavelength of the incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the

(1) X-ray region

(2) Ultraviolet region

(3) Visible region

(4) Infrared region

Sol. Answer (2)

42. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a

velocity of 3 × 106 ms-1. The velocity of the particle is (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)

(1) 2.7 × 10-21 ms-1

(2) 2.7 × 10-18 ms-1

(3) 9 × 10-2 ms-1

(4) 3 × 10-31 ms-1

Sol. Answer (2)

43. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. When its electron is in the

first excited state, its excitation energy is

(1) 0

(2) 3.4 eV

(3) 6.8 eV

(4) 10.2 eV

Sol. Answer (4)

44. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 5 and respectively. If

initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1

to that of X2 will be after a time

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (4)

45. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1:3. The ratio of their nuclear

densities would be

(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 3

(3) 3 : 1

(4) (3)1/3 : 1

Sol. Answer (1)

46. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus proton and neutron

respectively in units of u (1u = 931.5 MeV / C2) and BE represents its bonding energy in

MeV, then

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

47. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain

without feedback will be

(1) 100

(2) 90

(3) 10

(4) 1.25

Sol. Answer (1)

48. If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is 3.6 , then the atomic radius in

fcc crystal is

(1) 1.27

(2) 1.81

(3) 2.10

(4) 2.92

Sol. Answer (1)

49. The circuit

is equivalent to

(1) OR gate

(2) AND gate

(3) NAND gate

(4) NOR gate

Sol. Answer (4)

50. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum

frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly

(1) 20 × 1014 Hz

(2) 10 × 1014 Hz

(3) 5 × 1014 Hz

(4) 1 × 1014 Hz

Sol. Answer (3)

51. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

52. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that

(1) Number of the molecules of gas increases

(2) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases

(3) Pressure of the gas increases

(4) Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same

Sol. Answer (4)

53. The value of equilibrium constant of the reaction

The equilibrium constant of the reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 16

Sol. Answer (3)

54. If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred

cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be

respectively

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (2)

55. Kohlrausch's law states that at

(1) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an

electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte

(2) Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an

electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte

(3) Infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an

electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte

(4) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte

whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte

Sol. Answer (1)

56. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in

momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10-18 g cm s-1. The uncertainty in electron velocity is,

(mass of an electron is 9 × 10-28 g)

(1) 1 × 1011 cm s-1

(2) 1 × 109 cm s-1

(3) 1 × 106 cm s-1

(4) 1 × 105 cm s-1

Sol. Answer (2)

57. Which of the following are not state functions?

(I) q + w

(II) q

(III) w

(IV) H-TS

(1) (II) and (III)

(2) (I) and (IV)

(3) (II), (III) and (IV)

(4) (I), (II) and (III)

Sol. Answer (1)

58. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this

equation

These kinetic data were obtained for given reaction concentrations

Based on these data, the rate equation is

(1) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]

(2) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]

(3) Rate = k[CH = COCH3][Br2]

(4) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]2

Sol. Answer (2)

59. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn

completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions?

(1) 10 L

(2) 7 L

(3) 6 L

(4) 5 L

Sol. Answer (4)

99. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Natural rubber is a 1, 4 - polymer of isoprene

(2) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make

rubber harder and stronger

(3) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond

(4) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene

Sol. Answer (3)

100. Which one of the following is an amine hormone?

(1) Progesterone

(2) Thyroxine

(3) Oxypurin

(4) Insulin

Sol. Answer (2)

101. Select one of the following of important features distinguishing Gnetum from

Cycas and Pinus and showing

affinities with angiosperms

(1) Embryo development and apical meristem

(2) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation

(3) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia

(4) Perianth and two integuments

Sol. Answer (3)

102. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify

(1) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

(2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

(3) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryoties but

whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

(4) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a

cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

Sol. Answer (3)

103. Which one of the following is heterosporous?

(1) Equisetum

(2) Dryopteris

(3) Salvinia

(4) Adiantum

Sol. Answer (3)

104. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free

living independent existence?

(1) Cedrus

(2) Pteris

(3) Funaria

(4) Polytrichum

Sol. Answer (1)

105. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with

their one characteristic morphological feature?

Animals Morphological feature

(1) Cockroach, Locust, Taenia - Metameric segmentation

(2) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber - Bilateral symmetry

(3) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin - Jointed appendages

(4) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach - Ventral solid central nervous system

Sol. Answer (4)

106. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general

characteristics?

(1) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or

veligerlarva

(2) Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae

(3) Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the

outside

(4) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization

Sol. Answer (1)

107. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?

(1) Eggs with a calcareous shell

(2) Scales on their hind limbs

(3) Four-chambered heart

(4) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract

Sol. Answer (2)

108. Ascaris is characterized by

(1) Presence of true coclom and metamerism (metamerisation)

(2) Absence of true coclom but presence of metamerism

(3) Presence of neither true coclom nor metamerism

(4) Presence of true coclom but absence of metamerism

Sol. Answer (3)

109. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

(1) Ventral nerve cord

(2) Closed circulatory system

(3) Segmentation

(4) Pseudocoelom

Sol. Answer (4)

110. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of

(1) Saccharomyces

(2) Pythium

(3) Xanthomonas

(4) Pseudomonas

Sol. Answer (2)

111. Vacuole in a plant cell

(1) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances

(2) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids

(3) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances

(4) Lacks membrane and contains air

Sol. Answer (3)

It is having tonoplast as membrane and stores water and excretory substances.

112. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

(1) Malate

(2) Malonate

(3) Oxaloacetate

(4) - ketoglutarate

Sol. Answer (2)

113. Polysome is formed by

(1) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement

(2) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA

(3) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

(4) A ribosome with several subunits

Sol. Answer (2)

114. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the

following five properties of starch (a - e) make it useful as a storage material?

a. Easily translocated

b. Chemical non-reactive

c. Easily digested by animals

d. Osmotically inactive

e. Synthesized during photosynthesis

The useful properties are

(1) Both a & e

(2) Both b & c

(3) Both b & d

(4) a, c & e

Sol. Answer (3)

115. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life

(bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about

archaea?

(1) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes

(2) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects

(3) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes

(4) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Sol. Answer (3)

116. Keeping in view the 'fluid mosaic model' for the structure of cell membrane, which

one of the following statements is correct w.r.t. the movement of lipids and proteins from

one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?

(1) Neither lipids nor proteins can flip-flop

(2) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop

(3) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot

(4) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot

Sol. Answer (3)

117. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the

(1) Mitochondria

(2) Proplastids

(3) Glyoxysomes

(4) Peroxisomes

Sol. Answer (3)

118. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of

(1) Calcium

(2) Copper

(3) Manganese

(4) Magnesium

Sol. Answer (4)

119. Thron of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are example of

(1) Retrogressive evolution

(2) Analogous organs

(3) Homologous organs

(4) Vestigial organs

Sol. Answer (3)

120. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because

(1) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids

(2) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids

(3) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids

(4) Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids

Sol. Answer (1)

121. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly

matched with the category mentioned against it?

(1) Adenine, Thymine - Purines

(2) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines

(3) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines

(4) Guanine, Adenine - Purines

Sol. Answer (1)

122. Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its

chromosomal abnormality/ linkage?

(1) Down syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO

(2) Klinefelter syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY

(3) Colour blindness - Y-linked

(4) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked

Sol. Answer (2)

123. In the DNA molecules

(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel-one in 5' 3' direction and other in 3'

5'

(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal

(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5' 3' direction

(4) The proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism

Sol. Answer (1)

124. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?

(1) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool

(2) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe

(3) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population

(4) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to

their progeny

Sol. Answer (2)

125. Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory

put forth by him?

(1) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis

(2) Weismann - Theory of continuity of Germplasm

(3) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters

(4) de Vries - Natural selection

Sol. Answer (2)

126. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts

(coacervates and micropheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?

(1) They could maintain an internal environment

(2) They were able to reproduce

(3) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings

(4) They were partially isolated from the surroundings

Sol. Answer (2)

127. Darwin's Finches are an excellent example of

(1) Connecting links

(2) Adaptive radiation

(3) Seasonal migration

(4) Brood parasitism

Sol. Answer (2)

128. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of

organs mentioned against it?

(1) Wings of honey-bee and wings of crow - Homologous organs

(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita - Analogous organs

(3) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs

(4) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of cockroach - Excretory organs

Sol. Answer (4)

129. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent

testa in

(1) Cucumber

(2) Pomegranate

(3) Orange

(4) Guava

Sol. Answer (2)

130. The C4 plants are phoptosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because

(1) They have more chloroplasts

(2) The CO2 compensation point is more

(3) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP

carboxylase

(4) The CO2 efflux is not prevented

Sol. Answer (1)

131. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

(1) There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondiral membrane toward

adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

(2) High energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins

(3) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space

(4) A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

Sol. Answer (4)

132. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary

is

(1) Cremocarp

(2) Caryopsis

(3) Cypsela

(4) Berry

Sol. Answer (3)

133. The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in the water column in

vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap because of

(1) Transpiration pull

(2) Lignified thick walls

(3) Cohesion and adhesion

(4) Weak gravitational pull

Sol. Answer (3)

134. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and

functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in

(1) Floral parts

(2) Vessels and tracheid differentiation

(3) Leaf abscission

(4) Annual plants

Sol. Answer (3)

135. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from

(1) Dermatogen

(2) Phellogen

(3) Plerome

(4) Periblem

Sol. Answer (3)

136. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in

(1) Guard cells

(2) Epidermal cells

(3) Mesophyll cells

(4) Bundle sheath

Sol. Answer (3)

137. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in

(1) Petunia

(2) Lemna

(3) Tobacco

(4) Cotton

Sol. Answer (3)

138. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of

(1) Maize

(2) Coconut

(3) Castor

(4) Pea

Sol. Answer (4)

139. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by

(1) Azorhizobium

(2) Bradyhizobium

(3) Clostridium

(4) Frankia

Sol. Answer (4)

140. The energy releasing process in which the substrate is oxidised without an external

electron acceptor is called

(1) Glycolysis

(2) Fermentation

(3) Photorespiration

(4) Aerobic respiration

Sol. Answer (2)

141. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of

(1) Pea

(2) Lemon

(3) Mustard

(4) Sunflower

Sol. Answer (3)

142. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of

(1) Mericarps

(2) Achenes

(3) Samaras

(4) Berries

Sol. Answer (2)

143. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first

by

(1) Ferredoxin

(2) Cytochrome - b

(3) Cytochrome - f

(4) Quinone

Sol. Answer (4)

144. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and

the natural anticoagulant heparin?

(1) Monocytes

(2) Neutrophils

(3) Basophils

(4) Eosinophils

Sol. Answer (3)

145. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?

(1) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)

(2) Earthworm - The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus,

stomach, gizzard and intestine

(3) Frog - Body divisible into three regions - head, neck and trunk

(4) Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one

Sol. Answer (1)

146. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the

given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol. Answer (3)

147. What is vital capacity of our lungs?

(1) Total lungs capacity minus residual volume

(2) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume

(3) Total lungs capacity minus expiratory reserve volume

(4) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume

Sol. Answer (1)

148. Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone

Cells of our retina?

Rod Cells Cone Cells

(1) Distribution

More concentrated in centre

of retina

Evenly distributed all over retina

(2) Visual acuity High Low

(3)

Visual pigment

contained

Iodopsin Rhodopsin

(4) Overall function Vision in poor light

Colour vision and detailed vision

in bright light

Sol. Answer (4)

149. Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?

(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8

(2) Floating ribs in humans - 4

(3) Amino acids found in proteins - 16

(4) Types of diabetes - 3

Sol. Answer (2)

150. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea

Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of three different

parts?

(1) A : Perilymph, B : Tectorial membrane, C : Endolymph

(2) B : Tectorial membrane, C : Perilymph, D : Secretory cells

(3) C : Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells, A : Serum

(4) D : Sensory hair cells, A : Endolymph, B : Tectorial membrane

Sol. Answer (1)