BHU Entrance Question Papers

I am looking for the previous year question papers of the BHU Entrance Exam? Please provide the links?

Banaras Hindu University is a public University founded in 1916. The University is located in Uttar Pradesh. (BHU) Banaras Hindu University conducts Undergraduate and Postgraduate Entrance Tests usually during May-June for admission to various courses.

Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following number system incorporates english Alphabets also?
(1) Binary (2) Hexadecimal (3) Octal (4) Decimal
2. RAM and ROM are:
(1) Part of primary memory
(3) Part of cache memory
3. Logic gates are :
(1) route finder in a circuit
(3) route destructor in a circuit
(2) Part of secondary memory
(4) Part of registers
(2) route blockers in a circuit
(4) route stoper in a circuit
4. The exchange of information occurs in a computer system through:
(1) Decimal codes (2) Binary codes
(3) Hexadecimal codes (4) Octal codes
5. Flip - Flop assumes which of the following codes?
(1) 0 & 1 (2) 100 & 110 (3) 1000 & 1110 (4) 1010 & 1100
6. If (111h• in binary then (?ho in decimal:
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
7. If (6)10 in decimal then what is in binary (?)z ?
(1) 110 (2) 111 (3) 101 (4) 1111
8. Basic role of Encoder is :
(1) To create codes for information
(3) To shortlist information
(2) To provide path to information
(4) To block the route of information
9. An electronic switch as elementary component of a digital circuit is best called
as:
(1) Gate (2) Logic gate (3) Circuit (4) Board
10. The Hexadecimal digits are 1 to 0 and A to :
(1) E (2) F (3) G (4) D
11. In binary system decimal 0.875 is represented by :
(1). 0.001 (2) 0.0101 (3) 0.011 (4) 0.111
12. The commonly used character codes for transmission is/are:
(2) ASCII (1) EBCDIC
(3) Both (4) None of the above
13. The maximum count which a 6-bit binary word can is :
(1) 36 (2) 64 (3) 63 (4) 65
14. What is binary equivalent of decimal 269 ?
(1) 100001100 (2) 10001010 (3) 101001011 (4) 10001101
15. The Hexadecimal number A23F is represented in binary by :
(1) 1010001000111110 (2) 1010010000111111
(3) 1010001000111111 (4) lll1001100101010
16. A gate is a logic circuit with one or more input signals but:
(1) two output signals (2) double output signals
(3) one output signals (4) three output signals
( 2 )
17. In Boolean Algebra, the overbar stands for the NOT Operation and Plus sign
stand for:
(1) AND operatjon
(3) NAND operation
(2) OR operation
(4) NOR operation
18. An AND gate has 7 inputs. How many input words are in truth table?
(1) 64 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 128
19. The 2-input XOR gate has high output only when the input bits are:
(1) even (2) different (3) low (4) high
20. Which of the following has most widely used bipolar family?
(1) DTL (2) TIL (3) EeL (4) MOS
21. A device can sink up to 16 rnA and can source up to 400 rnA. The device is :
(1) low power TIL (2) high power TIL
(3) standard TIL (4) schottky TIL
22. Digital design often starts by constructing a :
(1) standard table (2) two stage table
(3) truth table (4) two dimension table
23. A combinatorial logic circuit which is used to send data coming from a single
source to two or more separate destinations is called:
(1) Decoder (2) Encoder (3) Multiplexer (4) De-multiplexer
24. A positive AND gate is also a negative:
(1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate (3) AND gate (4) OR gate
25. A shift register can be used for :
(1) Parallel to serial conversion
(3) Digital delay line
( 3 )
(2) Serial to parallel conversion
(4) All of the above
26. Which of the following is first integrated logic family?
(1) RTL (2) DTL (3) TTL (4) MOS
27. Which of the following is not functionally a complete set?
(1) AND, OR (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) AND;OR,NOl
28. Which of the following Boolean Algebra rule is wrong?
(1) 0 + A = A (2) 1 + A = 1 (3) A + A'= A (4) 1. x = 1
29. A + B + C + D represents a :
(1) NAND gate (2) OR gate (3) EX-OR gate (4) AND gate
30. Reduced form of Boolean expression (A + B) ( A + C) is :
(1) AB + AC (2) A + B + C (3) AC + B (4) A + BC
31. The most frequently used function in C language is :
(1) printf () (2). scanf ()
(3) main ()
32. The function scanf () reads:
(1) single character
(3) all types variables
33. The single character input/ output are:
(1) scanf ( ) and printf ( )
(3) getchar ( ) and putchar ( )
(4) # include
(2) single string
(4) only flat type variables
(2) getchar ( ) and printf ( )
(4) scanf ( ) and putchar ( )
34. The math library is set up for the user by file :
(1) float.h (2) math include (3) math.h (4) iomath.h
35. ~e two operators 44 and 11 are:
(1) Arithmetic operator
(3) Logical operator
( 4 )
(2) Equality operator
(4) Bit-wise operators
36. The comma operator is primarily used in conjunction with:
(1) 'for'statement (2) 'if-else'statement
(3) 'do-while' statement (4) All of the above
37. The most common usc of one-dimension array in C is the:
(1) String (2) Character (3) Data (4) Functions
38. In the library of standard 110 function definition, data structure of a file is :
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
(1) file (2) File (3) FILE (4) file * a
Function in a multiple program are:
(1) Automatic or register (2) External or static
(3) Static or register (4) Void
The purpose of declaring a structure is :
(1) To specify a list of structure element
(2) To define a new data type
(3) To set appropriate amount of memory
(4) All of the above
The Command used to list a program is :
(1) DIR (2) LIST (3) ENLIST (4) ROWLIST
In IF statement values may be :
(1) Actual numbers (2) Expressions
(3) Variables (4) All of the above
The Oval is used in flow chart is :
(1) represent the logical beginning and end point of a program
(2) to show inputloutput operations
(3) to show connection
(4) to show execution
44. The circle is used to
(1) represent a logical beginning of program
(2) Input/output operations
(3) Decision rule display
(4) One portion of program connection to other
45. The stepwise refinement is:
(1) Successive filteration
(3) Fast growth
(2) Successive increment
(4) Use of goto statement
46. The modular approach of program design is related to :
(1) Breaking of program into sub-programs
(2) Defining variables separately
(3) . Use only one scan statement
(4) Splitting of program into functions
47. If memory has a unit which is collection of similar data-type then it called:
(1) File (2) Pointer (3) Register (4) Array
48. If a variable assumes address of stored value then it is called:
(1) float (2) static
49. Polymorphism in OOP is :
(1) Having more than one meaning
(3) Having more than one libraries
50. Parameter passing is used in :
(1) class
(3) input statement
(3) pointer (4) array
(2) Having more than one variables
(4) Having more than one class
(2) function
(4) arrays
51. Which is the first step developing any software program ?
(1) System design (2) System study (3) Coding (4) Thinking
52. What is the maximum number of nodes in a tree that has N levels (when root is
zero level) ?
53. How many different binary trees can be made from the three nodes that contain
the key value 1, 2 and 3 ?
(1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 5
54. A list is ordered from smallest to largest while sorting. Which of the following
would take the shortest time to execute?
(1) Heap sort (2) Bubble sort (3) Quick sort (4) Selection sort
55. The average number of comparisons in sequential search is :
(1) n2 (2) n(n - 1)/2 (3) n(n + 1)/2 (4) (n + 1)/2
56. Which data structure is needed to convert infix notations into postfix relations?
(1) Stack (2) Queue (3) Tree (4) Graph
57. How many ancestors does a node in the Nth level (root level = 0) of a binary
search tree have?
(1) N (2) N + 1 (4) 2N + 1
58. Pop and Push operations are used in :
(1) Tree (2) Stack (3) List (4) Linked List
59. 'Rear' and 'front' operations are used in :
(1) Queue (2) Tree (3) Stack (4) Arrays
60. Example(s) of O(N) algorithm is/ are:
(1) Initializing all of the elements in a one-dimensional array to zero
(2) Incrementing all the elements in a one-dimensional array
(3) Multiplying two numbers by performing, successive addition operations
(4) All of the above
61. An example of a hierarchial data structure is :
(1) Array (2) Link List (3) Tree (4) Queue
62. A file containing multiple indices to the data is called:
(1) Indexed file (2) Sequential file
(3) Indexed-sequential file (4) Inverted file
63. An indexed file offers the facility of a random file and the access method of a :
(1) Sequential file (2) Indexed file
(3) Direct access file (4) Random access file
64. Data structuring is redefined through a process called :
(1) Structuring process (2) Hierarchical structure
(3) Normalization (4) Relation structure
65. A file is:
(1) An abstract data type (2) Logical storage unit
(3) It is usually non-volatile (4) All of the above
66. How many are there methods for allocatin'g disk?
(1) Contiguous (2) Linked (3) Indexed (4) All of these
67. System supports two types of files, which are those:
(1) text files (2) executable binary files
(3) both (1) and (2)
68. File access methods are:
, (1) Sequential access
(3) Power access
69. File access time is highest in case of :
(1) Floppy disk
(3) Swapping devices
( 8 )
(4) None of these
(2) Direct access,
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Cache
(4) Magnetic disks
70. File record length :
(1) Should always be fixed
(2) Should always be variable
(3) Depends upon the size of file
(4) Should be chosen to match the data characteristic
71. Gauss - Siedel method is used for:
(1) to find root of two equations
(2) to find square root of one equation
(3) to calculate maximum value of a function
(4) to generate coefficients of equations
72. The matrix invasion method is used in :
(1) Obtaining missing values
(2) Obtaining eigen values
(3) Solution of single equation
(4) Solution of simultaneous equations
73. Total number of starting values required in bisection method are:
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
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74. Which of the following method i.s based on concept of tangent to a curve?
(1) Jacobi method
(3) Secant method
75. A tree with n vertices has:
(1) n -1 edges (2) n edges
( 9 )
(2) Bisection method
(4) Newton method
(3) n + 1 edges (4) n + 2 edges•
76. Spanning tree is :
(1) subset of a binary tree
(2) subset of any tree
(3) sub-graph of a tree joining all vertices
(4) sub-graph of binary tree only joining all vertices
77. A circuit is a :
(1) Loop (2) Path (3) Edge
78. If a finite set S has n elements, then the power of set S has:
(4) Directed graph
(1) 2n+l (2) 2n (3) 2n- 1 (4) 2n-2
79. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8}, C = {3, 4, 5, 6}, then (A n B) n C is :
(1) {2,4} (2) {cp} (3) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8} (4) {4}
80. Let A = {- 2, - 1, 0, 1, 2}. If the function J: A ~ R be defined by the formula
J(x)= (x2 + 1), then range ofJis ':
(1) {-2,2} (2) {I, 2, 4} (3) {O, 1, 4} (4) {1, 2, 5}
81. If A and B are two sets then A u (A n B) equals:
(1) A (2) B (3) Au B (4) An B
82. The truth table of -(p /\ q) is :
(1) 1110 (2) 0101 (3) 0001 (4) 1001
83. The truth table of p/\ (-q) is :
(1) 1110 (2) 0010 (3) 0001 (4) None of above
84. The function fix) = - 2x on R, the set of real number is :
(1) Injective (2) Subjective (3) Bijective (4) Negative
85. How many maximum edges excluding self loop, does a simple undirected
graph of eight vertices have?
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 28 (4) 14
( 10 )
86. The recurrence relation and initial condition is:
S(k) - 10 S(k) + 9S(k - 2) = 0
S(O) = 3, S(l) = 11.
The solution of this:
(1) 1 + 2k + 9k- i
87. Form the conjuction of p and q for following:
p: I am rich
Which one is correct answer?
(1) I am rich or I am happy (2) I am rich and I am happy
q: I am happy p:Iamrich
(3) I am neither rich nor happy (4) None of above
q: I am happy
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88. Which of the following statements is in terms of p, q, r and logical connectives? '
I am awake implies that I work hard
(1) - r --+ p (2) q --+ P (3) r --+ p (4) p--+q
89. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, R = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2,3), (2,4), (3, 4)}. Find which type of
relation it is :
(1) Reflexive (2) Symmetric
(3) Asymmetric (4) None of the above
90. Write recurrence formula for the sequence:
2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17, ......
(1) an =(n+1)
(3) an = 2 + 3(n -1)
91. An operating system manages:
(1) Memory
(3) Disk and 1/ 0 devices
( 11 )
(2) an = (n + 1)/ 2
(4) an = 2+3(n -1)
(2) Processor
(4) All of the above
92. Round Robin Scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of:
(1) FIFO (2) FCFS
(3) FILO (4) Longest time first
93. A translator is best described as a :
(1) Application software (2) System software
(3) Component of hardware (4) None of the above
94. Swapping:
(1) works best with many small partitions
(2) allows many programs to use memory simultaneously
(3) allows each program in turn to use the memory
(4) does not work with overlaying
95. The initial value of the semaphore that allow.s only one of the many processors
to enter their critical section, is:
(1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 16 (4) 0
96. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) time sharing is an example of multiprogramming
(2) JCL is used only to communicate between system programmers
(3) a batch file contains a series of OS commands
(4) primary function of operating system is to make the computer hardware
easily usable
97. Real time systems are:
(1) primarily used on mainframe computers
(2) used for monitoring events as they occur
(3) used for program analysis
(4) used for real time interactive users
98. Virtual memory is :
(1) simple to implement
(2) used in all major commercial operating systems
(3) less efficient in utilization of memory
(4) useful when fast I/O devices are not available
99. The LRU algorithm:
(1) Pages out pages that have been used recently
(2) Pages.out pages that have not been used recently
(3) Pages out pages that have been least used recently
(4) Pages out the first page in a given area
100. Which of the following is characteristic of an operating Syi
(1) Resource management (2) Error Recove
(3) Memory management (4) All of the abo
101. Scheduling is :
(1) allowing jobs to use the processor
(2) unrelated to performance consideration
(3) not require in uniprocessor system
(4) strictly the FIFO
102. Poor response times are caused:
(1) Processor Busy
(3) High Paging rate
( 13 )
(2) High I/O rate
(4) All of the above
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103. The memory allocation scheme subject to "external" fragmentation is :
(1) Segmentation
(2) Swapping
(3) Pure demand paging
(4) Multiple contiguous fixed partitions
104. The meaning of throughout of an operating system is :
(1) Number of jobs entered in queue per unit .time
(2) Number of jobs processed per unit time
(3) 'Number of jobs blocked per unit time
(4) Number of jobs waiting in system
105. Paging is :
(1) process which transfers pages and data between primary storage and direct
access storage devices
(2) process which manages program pages
(3) process which manages data memory allocation
(4) process related to management of jobs
106. Which SQL command is used for permanent removal of all the rows of data
from table and reduce storage space?
(1) DROP (2) ALTER (3) DELETE (4) TRUNCATE
107.' Which OEM tool is used to alter initialization parameters?
(1) Data Manager (2) Schema Manager
(3) Storage Manager (4) Instance Manager
108. Which of the following SQL Commands would you use to query the data ?
(1) DROP (2) SELECT (3) ALTER (4) INSERT
109. Which of the following SQL Commands is used to add up new records?
(1) SELECT (2) INSERT (3) UPDATE (4) DELETE
110. 'Ihe Managemeryt Information System (MIS) structure with one main Computer
System is called a :
(1) I lierarchicaI MIS structure
(3) Centralized MIS structure
111. 1\ form can be used to :
(1) modify records
(3) formatted print out
112. 1\ list in alphabetical order:
(1) is in decending order
(3) is result of sort operation
(2) Distributed MIS structure
(4) Decentralized MIS structure
(2) delete records
(4) All of the above
(2) is in ascending order
(4) both (2) and (3)
113. Which of the following is a type of ~BMS software?
(1) database manipulation language (2) query language
(3) utilities (4) report writer
114. I Iighest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called:
(1) data bank (2) database (3) data file (4) data record
115. The data dictionary fells the DBMS:
(1) What files are in the database?
(2) What attributes are procees by data?
(3) What these files contains?
(4) All of the above
116. Data integrity control:
(1) is used to set upper and lower limit of numeric data
(2) requires the use of passwords to prohibit unauthorized access to the file
(3) has data dictionary keep the date and time of last access, last backup and
most recent modifications for files
(4) All of the above
117. Which of the following is a database administrator's function?
(1) database design (2) backing up the database
(3) performance monitoring (4) user coordination
118. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology, A type is equivalent
to:
(1) Record (2) Field (3) File (-t) Database
119. The logical data structure with one-to-many relationship is a :
(1) Network (2) Tree (3) Chain (-t) Relationship
120. If a relation scheme is in BeNF, then it is also in :
(1) 1 NF (2) 2 NF (3) 3 NF (-t) None of these
121. Coaxial cable has conductors with:
(1) a common axis (2) equal resistance
(3) same diameter (4) None of these
122. Which data communication method is used to send data over a serial
communication link?
(1) simplex (2) half duplex (3) full duplex (4) All of these
123. ;\ protocol is a set of rules governing sequence of events that must take place:
(1) between peers (2) accross an interface
(3) between non-peers (4) None of these
124. Ilow many OSllayers are covered in the X.2S standard?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Seven
125. C()mmunication protocols always have a :
(1 ) set of symbols (2) start of header
(3) special flag symbqls (4) BCC
126. ;\ router operates at :
(1) Data link layer (2) Application layer
(3) Network layer (4) Physical layer
127. In u Synchronous modem, the received equlizer is called:
(1) adapti ve equalizer
(3) statistical equalizer
(2) impairment equalizer
(4) compromise equalizer
128. Whi,ch of the following features is possible in token passing bus network?
(1) unlimited numbers of stations
(3) multiple time division
(2) unlimited distances
(4) in-service expansion
129. A modem is connected in between a telephone line and a :
(1) Network
(3) Communication adapter
(2) Computer
(4) Serial port
130. Which of the following TCP lIP protocol is used for transfering electronic mail
messages from one machine to another?
(1) FTP (2) SNMP (3) SMTP (4) RPC
131. Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Network (LAN) ?
(1) Computer (2) •Modem (3) Printer (4) Cable
132. Identify the odd term amongst the following group: .
(1) Coaxial cable (2) Optical fibre
(3) Twisted pair wire (4) Microwave
133. Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:
(1) Simplex lines (2) Wideband channels
(3) Narrowband channels (4) Dialed service
134. Which of the following is (are) required to communicate between two
Computers?
(1) Communications software (2) Protocol
(3) Communication hardware (4) All of the above
135. Which of the following network access standard is used for connecting stations
to a packet switched network?
(1) X.3 (2) X.21 (3) X.25 (-t) X.75
136. The transistorized computer circuits were introduced in the:
(1) First generation (2) Second generation
(3) Third generation (4) Fourth generation
137. Which is used for manufacturing chips?
(1)' Bus (2) Control Unit
(3) Semiconductors (4) Cables
138. Which is the alternative name for a diskette?
(1) Floppy disk
(3) Flexible disk
(2) Hard disk
(4) Winchester disk
139. Supercomputers are primarily useful for:
(1) Input Output intensive processing
(2) Data retrieval operations
(3) Mathematical intensive scientific applications
(4) All ofthe above
140. Which of the following is used for input and output both?
(1) Graph plotter (2) Teletype terminal
(3) Line printer (4) All of the above
141. Which of the following require logic computer memory ?
(1 ) Imaging (2) Graphics
(3) Voice (4) All of the above
142. 1\ beam of light used to record and retrieve data on optical disk is known as :
(1) Polarized light
(3) Laser
(2) unpolarized concentric light
(4) Coloured light
143. I'he CPU chip used in a computer partially made out of :
(1) Silica (2) Carbon (3) Copper (4) Silver
144. The amount of a cheque is recorded in magnetic ink, using an :
(1) Encoder (2) Embosser (3) Inscriber
145. Which was the most popular first generation computer?
(1) IBM 1650 (2) IBM 360 (3) IBM 1130
( 19 )
(4) Imprinter
(4) IBM 2700
146. Network topology consisting of nodes attached In a ring without a host
computer, is known as:
(1) Star (2) Ring (3) Bus (4) Tree
147. The larger the RAM of a Computer, the faster is its speed, since its eliminates:
(1) Need for external memory (2) Need of ROM
(3) Frequent disk I/O (4) Need for wider data path
148. Which of the following is a serial printer?
(1 ) Diasywheel printer (2) Chain Printer
(3) Drum Printer (4) Line Printer
149. Which'computer company introduced the printer laserjet in 198.J ?
(1) Mitsubishi Electronics
(3) I lew lett - Packard Inc.
(2) Ashton - Tate Corporation
(4) Nippon Electronic Corporation
150. First Computer in India was manufactured by :
(1) CMC (2) ECIL (3) BEL (-!) BeL

BHU M.SC Physics paper

1. Let ti W denote the work done during an infInitesimal quasi static reversible
thermodynamic process . .1 W is
(1) not a perfect differential for any process
(2) a perfect differential only for an adiabatic process
(3) a perfect differential for all processes
(4) a perfect for an isothermal process
(353) 1 (P.T:O.)
12P/218/29
2. A canonical ensemble provides a model for
(1) an equilibrium system with f!Xed volume and number of molecules and which
exchanges energy with the outside world
(2) an equilibrium isolated system with fIxed volume, number of molecules and energy
(3) an equilibrium system with fIxed volume and which can exchange energy and
matter with the surroundings
(4) a system at constant pressure
3. nk denotes the number of Fermions in quantum state k ofenergyek' Lets =(nk) be the
average of number of Fermions in state k at temperature T and chemical potential Jl.
Let 0" 2 :::; (n~) -(n/c)2 be the variance of nil;' The relative fluctuation of the number" of
Fermions in state k, given by ~ is
I;
(I) H+1 (2) ~i -1 (3) 1
I;
1
(4) ~
4. Assume that the heat capacity at constant volume of a metal varies as aT + bT 3 at low
temperatures. The temperature dependence of entropy is given by
(1) aT+bT 3 (4) aT2 +bT 4
5. When temperature decreases the chemical potential of a system of Bosons
(1) increases and eventually goes to zero
(2) decreases and eventually goes to zero
(3) increases and becomes negative
(4) decreases and becomes negative
(353) 2
12P/218/29
6. A card is drawn from a pack containing 52 cards with 4 aces and another card is
drawn from a pack of 48 cards with 8 aces. What is the probability that both are aces?
(I) ;, (2) !s (3) Sl}48 (4) i8
7. In a coded telegram, the letters are arranged in groups of 5 letters called 'words', How
many different such words are there which contain each letter at most once?
(I) 261
{ 26-5)1 (2) 261
51
261
(3) 51126-5)1 (4) (26 -'5)1
8. In a Maxwell-Boltzmann system with two states of energies sand 28, respectively. and a
degeneracy of 2 for each state, the partition function is
(I) 2e- 2,/kT
(4) 2(e-,/kT +e-2,/kT I
9. An ensemble of systems is in thenna! equilibrium with a reservoir for Which
kT =:O•02SeV. State A has an energy that is 0•1 eV above that of state B. If it is
assumed the systems obey Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics and that the degeneracies of
the two states are' the same, then the ratio of the number of systems in state A to the
number in state B is
(2) 1 (3) e- 0.2S (4) e- 4
10. For a system in which the number of particles is fixed, the reciprocal of the Kelvin
temperature T is given by which of the following derivatives? (Let P = pressure,
V = volume, S = entropy and U = internal energy)-
(I) (ap) as v
(2) (as) ap u
(3) (av) ap u
(4) (as) au v
11. The length of a spaceship is measured to be exactly half of its proper length by an
obsezver. The relative velocity of the observer is
(1) !e
2
(2) -./2 e
3
(3) .J3 e
2
1
(4) -./2 e
12. If the total energy of a particle of mass m is equal to twice its rest energy. then the
magnitude of the particle's relativistic mechanism is
(1) ";' (2) me
-./2
(3) me (4) .J3 me
13. If a charged pion that decays in 10-8 second in its own rest frame is to travel
30 metres in the laboratory before decaying, the pion's speed must be most nearly
(1) 0•43x10 8 m/s
(3) 2•90x 10 8 m/s
(2) 2•84x10 8 m/s
(4) 2•98x108 m/s
14. A particle leaving a cyclotron has a total relativistic energy of 10 GeV and a relativistic
momentum of 9 GeV Ie. What is the rest mass of this particle?
(1) 0•25 GeV/e2 (2) 1•20 GeV/e2 (3) 2•00 GeV /e 2 (4) 6•00 GeV/e2
15. A tube of water is travelling at ~ relative to the lab frame when a beam of light
2e .
(353)
travelling in the same direction as the tube enters it. What is the speed of light in the
water relative to the lab frame? (The index of refraction of water is 1.)
(1) ~
2e
(2) ~
3e
4
(3) ~
6e
(4) lQ.
16. A photon strikes an electron of mass m that is initially at rest, creating an
electron-positron pair. The photon is destroyed and the positron and two electrons
move off at equal speed_s along the initial direction of the photon. The energy of the
photon was
(I) me 2 (2) 2 me2 (3) 3 me2 (4) 4 me2
17. A positive kaon (K+ ) has a rest mass of 494 MeV /c 2
, whereas a proton has a 'rest mass
of 938 MeV jc 2
. If a kaon has a total energy that is equal to the proton rest energy, the
speed of the kaon is most nearly
(I) OAOe (2) 0•55e (3) 0•70e (4) 0•S5e
18. If a newly discovered particle X moves with a speed equal to the speed of light in
vacuum, then which of the following must be true?
(1) The rest mass of X is zero
(2) The spin of X equals the spin of a photon
(3) The charge of X is carried on its surface
(4) X does not spin
19. In the limit x--+ 00, In(x)-x
(1) equals zero (2) equals 2 (3) equals - '" (4) equals I
20. A matrix C =(~ ~1) has
(1) no independent eigenvectors (2) 1 independent eigenvector
(3) 2 independent eigenvectors (4) 3 independent eigenvectors
(353) 5 (P. T. D.)
12P/218/29

BHU M.SC Bio Chemistry paper


1. Acetyl CoA directly gives rise to all except:
(1) Glucose
(3) Cholesterol
2. Ovarian reserve is best indicated by :
(1) LH
(3) LH/FSH ratio
3. Hyperaldosteronism causes all except:
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hypertension
4. The chief mineral of bone is :
(1) Calcium oxalate
(3) Hydroxyapetite
5. Splicing is done by :
•
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA
(2) Ketone bodies
(4) Fatty acids
(2) FSH
(4) Estrogen
(2) Hypematremia
(4) Metabolic acidosis
(2) Calcium carbonate
(4) Calcite
(3) rRNA (4) SnRNA
.
1. Acetyl CoA directly gives rise to all except:
(1) Glucose
(3) Cholesterol
2. Ovarian reserve is best indicated by :
(1) LH
(3) LH/FSH ratio
3. Hyperaldosteronism causes all except:
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hypertension
4. The chief mineral of bone is :
(1) Calcium oxalate
(3) Hydroxyapetite
5. Splicing is done by :
•
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA
(2) Ketone bodies
(4) Fatty acids
(2) FSH
(4) Estrogen
(2) Hypematremia
(4) Metabolic acidosis
(2) Calcium carbonate
(4) Calcite
(3) rRNA (4) SnRNA
6. Which of the following serves as a coenzyme for transketolase ?
(1) Thiamine (2) Biotin
(3) Pyridoxine (4) Cobalamine
7. Malabsorption is caused by all except:
(1) Ascaris lumbricodes
(3) Strongyloides
(2) Capillaria phillipinensis
(4) Giardia lamblia
8. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) AUG (4) UGA
9. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is
known as:
(1) Intron
(3) Plasmid
(2) Exon
(4) TATA box
10. Eukaryotic cell membrane is formed by all except:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Lecithin
(3) Triglycerides (4) Carbohydrates
11. Insulin is responsible for all except:
(1) Glycolysis
(3) Lipogenesis
(2) Glycogenesis
(4) Ketogenesis
12. Free radicals in lens are held by all except:
(1) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin C
13. Hyaluronic acid is present in:
(1) Vitreous humor
(3) Dermis
14. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
(1) lnhibin
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(2 )
(2) Vitamin E
(4) Glutathione peroxidase
(2) Cornea
(4) Mast cells
(2) Melatonin
6. Which of the following serves as a coenzyme for transketolase ?
(1) Thiamine (2) Biotin
(3) Pyridoxine (4) Cobalamine
7. Malabsorption is caused by all except:
(1) Ascaris lumbricodes
(3) Strongyloides
(2) Capillaria phillipinensis
(4) Giardia lamblia
8. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) AUG (4) UGA
9. A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is
known as:
(1) Intron
(3) Plasmid
(2) Exon
(4) TATA box
10. Eukaryotic cell membrane is formed by all except:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Lecithin
(3) Triglycerides (4) Carbohydrates
11. Insulin is responsible for all except:
(1) Glycolysis
(3) Lipogenesis
(2) Glycogenesis
(4) Ketogenesis
12. Free radicals in lens are held by all except:
(1) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin C
13. Hyaluronic acid is present in:
(1) Vitreous humor
(3) Dermis
14. Sertoli cells have receptors for:
(1) lnhibin
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(2 )
(2) Vitamin E
(4) Glutathione peroxidase
(2) Cornea
(4) Mast cells
(2) Melatonin
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone
12P/21 0/30
15. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in eNS is :
(1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate
(3) Glycine (4) Acetylcholine
16. Which of the following element is known to influence body's ability to handle
oxidative stress?
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium (3) Selenium (4) Iron
17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the
growing ovarian follicle is :
(1) Desmolase
(3) Isomerase
(2) Hydroxylase
(4) Aromatase
18. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA from a single stranded RNA
template is known as :
(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) DNA topoisomerase (4) Reverse transcriptase
19. Proteins targeted for destruction ir. eukaryotes are covalently linked to :
(1) Pepsin (2) Clathrin
(3) Ubiquitin (4) Laminin
20. Which of the following assist in protein folding?
(1) Proteases (2) Templates
(3) Proteosomes (4) Chaperones
214 Restriction endonuclease cut the D~'IA into fragments by:
(1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase III
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase
22. The chief organelle involved in afFlptosis is :
(1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria
23. Functions of CD4 are all except:
(1) Antibody production
(3) Opsonization
(3)
(2) Immunogenic memory
(4) Activate cytotoxic cells
P.T.O.
12P/21 0/30
15. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in eNS is :
(1) Aspartate (2) Glutamate
(3) Glycine (4) Acetylcholine
16. Which of the following element is known to influence body's ability to handle
oxidative stress?
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium (3) Selenium (4) Iron
17. The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to estrogen in the
growing ovarian follicle is :
(1) Desmolase
(3) Isomerase
(2) Hydroxylase
(4) Aromatase
18. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA from a single stranded RNA
template is known as :
(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) DNA topoisomerase (4) Reverse transcriptase
19. Proteins targeted for destruction ir. eukaryotes are covalently linked to :
(1) Pepsin (2) Clathrin
(3) Ubiquitin (4) Laminin
20. Which of the following assist in protein folding?
(1) Proteases (2) Templates
(3) Proteosomes (4) Chaperones
214 Restriction endonuclease cut the D~'IA into fragments by:
(1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase III
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA topoisomerase
22. The chief organelle involved in afFlptosis is :
(1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria
23. Functions of CD4 are all except:
(1) Antibody production
(3) Opsonization
(3)
(2) Immunogenic memory
(4) Activate cytotoxic cells
24. Antigen-antibody precipitation is maximum in :
(1) Antigen excess
(2) Antibody excess
(3) Equivalence of antigen antibody
(4) Interaction of antibody with haptens
25. Which of the following is seen in a patient with severe hyperglycemia receiving
insulin?
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hyponatremia
(2) Hyperkalemia
(4) Hypematremia
26. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is :
(1) Serum iron levels
(2) Serum ferritin levels
(3) Transferrin saturation
(4) Serum transfecing receptor population
27. Glutathione present in the membrane of RBCs is:
(1) A lipid (2) A dipeptide
(3) A tripeptide (4) An oligosaccharide
28. Urine on exposure to air and light turns black in :
(1) Alcaptonuria (2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Homocystinuria (4) Maple syrup urine disease
29. Heme synthesis requires all except:
(1) Iron
(3) Vitamin B6
(2) Glycine
(4) Selenium
30. All of the following are branched chain amino acids except:
(1) Leucine (2) Isoleucine
(3) Lysine
31. Respiratory acidosis may be due to :
(1) Pneumonia
(3) Hyperventilation
( 4 )
(4) Valine
(2) VOmiting
(4) Starvation
12P1210J30
24. Antigen-antibody precipitation is maximum in :
(1) Antigen excess
(2) Antibody excess
(3) Equivalence of antigen antibody
(4) Interaction of antibody with haptens
25. Which of the following is seen in a patient with severe hyperglycemia receiving
insulin?
(1) Hypokalemia
(3) Hyponatremia
(2) Hyperkalemia
(4) Hypematremia
26. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is :
(1) Serum iron levels
(2) Serum ferritin levels
(3) Transferrin saturation
(4) Serum transfecing receptor population
27. Glutathione present in the membrane of RBCs is:
(1) A lipid (2) A dipeptide
(3) A tripeptide (4) An oligosaccharide
28. Urine on exposure to air and light turns black in :
(1) Alcaptonuria (2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Homocystinuria (4) Maple syrup urine disease
29. Heme synthesis requires all except:
(1) Iron
(3) Vitamin B6
(2) Glycine
(4) Selenium
30. All of the following are branched chain amino acids except:
(1) Leucine (2) Isoleucine
(3) Lysine
31. Respiratory acidosis may be due to :
(1) Pneumonia
(3) Hyperventilation
( 4 )
(4) Valine
(2) VOmiting
(4) Starvation
12P1210J30
32. Which of the following amino add does not have a codon?
(1) Alanine (2) Valine (3) Taurine (4) Methionine
33. All of the following biochemical pathways occUr in mitochondria except:
(1) Krebs Cycle (2) Ketogenesis
(3) Fatty add oxidation (4) Fatty add synthesis
34. Malonate competitively inhibits:
(1) Fumarate dehydrogenase
(3) Sued nate dehydrogenase
35. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is :
(1) An oxidoreductase
(3) A ligase
(2) Sucdnate thiokinase
(4) Aconitase
(2) A transferase
(4) A hydrolase
36. Beta-oxidation of odd chain fatty adds produces:
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Propionyl CoA
(3) Malonyl CoA (4) Sucdnyl CoA
37. Decreased glycolytic activity impaires oxygen transport by Hemoglobin due to
(1) Decreased production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate
(2) Low levels of oxygen
(3) Reduced energy production
(4) Reduced production of hemoglobin
38. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is :
(1) Glutathione- S- transferase
(3) Cytochrome P450 reductase
(2) Cytochrome P450
(4) Glucuronyl transferase
39. Which of the following statement is correct about Vitamin B 12 ?
(1) The coenzyme form is Vitamin B 12 itself
(2) It requires an intrinsic factor for its absorption
(3) It is involved in the transfer of amino groups
(4) It is present in plant sources
( 5 ) P.T.O.
12P1210J30
32. Which of the following amino add does not have a codon?
(1) Alanine (2) Valine (3) Taurine (4) Methionine
33. All of the following biochemical pathways occUr in mitochondria except:
(1) Krebs Cycle (2) Ketogenesis
(3) Fatty add oxidation (4) Fatty add synthesis
34. Malonate competitively inhibits:
(1) Fumarate dehydrogenase
(3) Sued nate dehydrogenase
35. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is :
(1) An oxidoreductase
(3) A ligase
(2) Sucdnate thiokinase
(4) Aconitase
(2) A transferase
(4) A hydrolase
36. Beta-oxidation of odd chain fatty adds produces:
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Propionyl CoA
(3) Malonyl CoA (4) Sucdnyl CoA
37. Decreased glycolytic activity impaires oxygen transport by Hemoglobin due to
(1) Decreased production of 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate
(2) Low levels of oxygen
(3) Reduced energy production
(4) Reduced production of hemoglobin



Here I am attaching the question papers of the BHU:

Attached Files Available for Download

BHU M.SC Physics paper-2.pdf (758.7 KB, 59 views)

38. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is :
(1) Glutathione- S- transferase
(3) Cytochrome P450 reductase
(2) Cytochrome P450
(4) Glucuronyl transferase
39. Which of the following statement is correct about Vitamin B 12 ?
(1) The coenzyme form is Vitamin B 12 itself
(2) It requires an intrinsic factor for its absorption
(3) It is involved in the transfer of amino groups
(4) It is present in plant sources
40. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of :
(1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (2) Phenylpyruvate hydroxylase
(3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase
41. In a solution, the concentration of H+ ion is 1 x ] 0 moles/I. The pH of the
solution is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) . 12
42. Bacteria capable of growing in 3M NaCI are called:
(1) Haplophiles (2) Osmotolerant
(3) Aerotolerant (4) Thermophiles
43. Glycogen storage disease includes all of the following except:
(1) Forbe's disease (2) Fabry's disease
(3) Hers'Disease (4) Anderson's disease
44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to complete deficiency of :
(1) HGPR Tase (2) Xanthine oxidase
(3) Purine phosphorylase (4) Adenosine deaminase
45. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in maple syrup urine disease?
(1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine
46. The minimum number of polypeptide chain in immunoglobulin is :
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
47. The osmotic pressure of a solution relating to solute molecules depend on the:
(1) Size (2) Shape (3) Volume (4) Number
48. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of :
(1) Amylase (2) lipase
(3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin
49. The epimer of glucose is :
(1) Fructose (2) Ribose (3) Galactose (4) Deoxyribose
( 6 )
12P/21 0130
40. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of :
(1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (2) Phenylpyruvate hydroxylase
(3) Homogentisic acid oxidase (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase
41. In a solution, the concentration of H+ ion is 1 x ] 0 moles/I. The pH of the
solution is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) . 12
42. Bacteria capable of growing in 3M NaCI are called:
(1) Haplophiles (2) Osmotolerant
(3) Aerotolerant (4) Thermophiles
43. Glycogen storage disease includes all of the following except:
(1) Forbe's disease (2) Fabry's disease
(3) Hers'Disease (4) Anderson's disease
44. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is due to complete deficiency of :
(1) HGPR Tase (2) Xanthine oxidase
(3) Purine phosphorylase (4) Adenosine deaminase
45. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in maple syrup urine disease?
(1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine
(3) Leucine (4) Arginine
46. The minimum number of polypeptide chain in immunoglobulin is :
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
47. The osmotic pressure of a solution relating to solute molecules depend on the:
(1) Size (2) Shape (3) Volume (4) Number
48. Bile salts make emulsification with fat for the action of :
(1) Amylase (2) lipase
(3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin
49. The epimer of glucose is :
(1) Fructose (2) Ribose (3) Galactose (4) Deoxyribose
( 6 )
12P/21 0130
50. Human heart muscle contains:
(1) D-ribose (2) D-arabinose (3) D-xylose (4) D-lyxose
51. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of :
(1) Lactose (2) Maltose (3) Starch (4) Insulin
52. Osmosis is opposite to :
(1) Affusion (2) Effusion (3) Diffusion (4) Confusion
53. The surface tension of a solution is increased by :
(1) Bile salts (2) Bile acids
(3) Conc. Sulphuric acid (4) Acetic acid
54. Large amount of teicoic acid polymer is found in :
(1) Gram +ve bacteria
.. (3) Green algae
(2) Gram -ve bacteria
(4) Blue green algae
55. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through:
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport
(3) Facilitated transfer (4) Nonfacilitated transfer
56. Iodine solution produces no colour with:
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Dextrin
57. Barfode's solution is not reduced by ;
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Mannose
58. N~acetylneuraminic acid is known as : .
(1) Sialic acid
(3) Mucic acid
59. Blood group substances consist of :
(1) Lactose (2) Fucose
(2) Hippuric acid
(4) Glucuronic acid
(3) Maltose (4) Mucose
60. The component of cartilage and cornea is :
(1) Keratan sulphate (2) Chondroitin sulphate
(3) Antimony sulphate (4) Cadmium sulphate
(7) P.T.O.
12P/21 0130
50. Human heart muscle contains:
(1) D-ribose (2) D-arabinose (3) D-xylose (4) D-lyxose
51. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of :
(1) Lactose (2) Maltose (3) Starch (4) Insulin
52. Osmosis is opposite to :
(1) Affusion (2) Effusion (3) Diffusion (4) Confusion
53. The surface tension of a solution is increased by :
(1) Bile salts (2) Bile acids
(3) Conc. Sulphuric acid (4) Acetic acid
54. Large amount of teicoic acid polymer is found in :
(1) Gram +ve bacteria
.. (3) Green algae
(2) Gram -ve bacteria
(4) Blue green algae
55. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through:
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport
(3) Facilitated transfer (4) Nonfacilitated transfer
56. Iodine solution produces no colour with:
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Dextrin
57. Barfode's solution is not reduced by ;
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Mannose
58. N~acetylneuraminic acid is known as : .
(1) Sialic acid
(3) Mucic acid
59. Blood group substances consist of :
(1) Lactose (2) Fucose
(2) Hippuric acid
(4) Glucuronic acid
(3) Maltose (4) Mucose
60. The component of cartilage and cornea is :
(1) Keratan sulphate (2) Chondroitin sulphate
(3) Antimony sulphate (4) Cadmium sulphate
(7) P.T.O.
12P/21 0130
61. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are :
(1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Oxidases (4) Ligases
62. Magnesium is required for:
(1) Aldolase
(3) Dismutase
63. Thiamine level is best monitored by :
(1) Transketolase level in blood
(2) Thiamine level in blood
(2) ATPase
(4) Phosphatase
(3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase activity
(4) Reticulocytosis
64. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all except:
(1) Tyrosine (2) ThyroxinE (3) Epinephrine (4) Melatonin
65. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by :
(1) Tubulin (2) Ubiquitin (3) Laminin
66. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of :
(1) Succinyl CoA to succinate
(2) Acetoacetate to alpha ketoglutarate
(3) Succinate to fumarate
(4) Fumarate to malate
67. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is:
(1) Succinate (2) Fumarate
68. "Fructokinase is present in :
(3) Malate
(1) Intestine (2) Adipose tissue (3) Brain
69. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base as :
(1) Ethanolamine (2) Choline
(3) Inositol (4) Lipositol
70. Phosphatidyl inositol is found in :
(1) Cabbage (2). Cauliflower (3) Soyabean
( 8 )
(4) Keratin
(4) Oxaloacetate
(4) Heart
(4) Apple
12P/21 0130
61. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are :
(1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Oxidases (4) Ligases
62. Magnesium is required for:
(1) Aldolase
(3) Dismutase
63. Thiamine level is best monitored by :
(1) Transketolase level in blood
(2) Thiamine level in blood
(2) ATPase
(4) Phosphatase
(3) Glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase activity
(4) Reticulocytosis
64. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all except:
(1) Tyrosine (2) ThyroxinE (3) Epinephrine (4) Melatonin
65. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by :
(1) Tubulin (2) Ubiquitin (3) Laminin
66. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of :
(1) Succinyl CoA to succinate
(2) Acetoacetate to alpha ketoglutarate
(3) Succinate to fumarate
(4) Fumarate to malate
67. The carrier of the citric acid cycle is:
(1) Succinate (2) Fumarate
68. "Fructokinase is present in :
(3) Malate
(1) Intestine (2) Adipose tissue (3) Brain
69. Lecithin contains a nitrogenous base as :
(1) Ethanolamine (2) Choline
(3) Inositol (4) Lipositol
70. Phosphatidyl inositol is found in :
(1) Cabbage (2). Cauliflower (3) Soyabean
( 8 )
(4) Keratin
(4) Oxaloacetate
(4) Heart
(4) Apple
12P/210/30
71. The concentration of sphingomyelins increases in :
(1) Gaucher's disease (2) Niemann-Pick disease
(3) Fabry's disease (4) Tarui's disease
72. RuBP carboxylase can utilize following as the substrate:
(1) Water (2) 02 and CO2 (3) CO2
73. Gangliosides are the glycolipids in :
(1) Brain
(3) ](jdney
(2) Liver
(4) Muscle
74. The protein mOiety of lipoprotein is known us:
(4) 02
(1) Apoprotein (2) Pre-protein (3) Pseudoprotein (4) Post-protein
75. The prostaglandins are synthesized from:
(1) Linoleic acid (2) Linolenic acid
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
76. Chaulimoogric acid was earlier used in the treatment of :
(1) Bronchitis (2) Nephritis
(3) Leprosy (4) Oedema
77. Before the action of lipase, the fat is emulsified by:
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Phospholipids
(3) Digitonin (4) Ergosterol
78. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl eoA in :
(1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondria (3) Lysosomes (4) Microsomes
79. The great majority of absorbed fat appears in the form of :
(1) HDL (2) Chylomicrons (3) DL (4) VLDL
80. Carboxylation of acetylCoA to malonyl eoA requires;
(1) Biotin (2) FAD (3) NAD+ (4) NADP+
81. The prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited by :
(1) Arsenite (2) Aspirin (3) Fluoride (4) Cyanide
( 9 ) PTO,
12P/210/30
71. The concentration of sphingomyelins increases in :
(1) Gaucher's disease (2) Niemann-Pick disease
(3) Fabry's disease (4) Tarui's disease
72. RuBP carboxylase can utilize following as the substrate:
(1) Water (2) 02 and CO2 (3) CO2
73. Gangliosides are the glycolipids in :
(1) Brain
(3) ](jdney
(2) Liver
(4) Muscle
74. The protein mOiety of lipoprotein is known us:
(4) 02
(1) Apoprotein (2) Pre-protein (3) Pseudoprotein (4) Post-protein
75. The prostaglandins are synthesized from:
(1) Linoleic acid (2) Linolenic acid
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
76. Chaulimoogric acid was earlier used in the treatment of :
(1) Bronchitis (2) Nephritis
(3) Leprosy (4) Oedema
77. Before the action of lipase, the fat is emulsified by:
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Phospholipids
(3) Digitonin (4) Ergosterol
78. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl eoA in :
(1) Cytosol (2) Mitochondria (3) Lysosomes (4) Microsomes
79. The great majority of absorbed fat appears in the form of :
(1) HDL (2) Chylomicrons (3) DL (4) VLDL
80. Carboxylation of acetylCoA to malonyl eoA requires;
(1) Biotin (2) FAD (3) NAD+ (4) NADP+
81. The prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited by :
(1) Arsenite (2) Aspirin (3) Fluoride (4) Cyanide
82. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis
of:
(1) Citrate
(3) Oxalosuccinate
83. Most nonpolar amino acid is :
(1) Arginine (2) Glycine
(2) Acetoacetate
(4) Palmitoyl CoA
(3) Leucine
84. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except:
(4) Lysine
(1) Methionine (2) Hydroxyproline
(3) Cystine (4) Cysteine
85. The principal site for acidification of urine is :
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle
86. Prost,aglandin decreases cAMP levels in :
(1) Thyroid (2) Lung (3) Adipose tissue (4) Platelets
87. HDL is synthesized and secreted from:
(1) Liver (2) Kidney
(3) Pancreas (4) Muscle
88. The lowered glucokinase leading to diminished fatty acid synthesis in the liver
is caused by :
(1) Feeding (2) Overfeeding (3) Starvation (4) Diarrhea
89. The edible part of litchi is :
(1) Mesocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Ari! (4) Seed coat
90. Fatty liver results in the deficiency of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Stearic acid (3) Caproic acid (4) Pantothenic acid
91. Ketone bodies are utilized in :
(1) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
( 10 )
(2) Extrahepatic tissues
(4) Chromosomes
82. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis
of:
(1) Citrate
(3) Oxalosuccinate
83. Most nonpolar amino acid is :
(1) Arginine (2) Glycine
(2) Acetoacetate
(4) Palmitoyl CoA
(3) Leucine
84. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except:
(4) Lysine
(1) Methionine (2) Hydroxyproline
(3) Cystine (4) Cysteine
85. The principal site for acidification of urine is :
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Collecting duct (4) Loop of Henle
86. Prost,aglandin decreases cAMP levels in :
(1) Thyroid (2) Lung (3) Adipose tissue (4) Platelets
87. HDL is synthesized and secreted from:
(1) Liver (2) Kidney
(3) Pancreas (4) Muscle
88. The lowered glucokinase leading to diminished fatty acid synthesis in the liver
is caused by :
(1) Feeding (2) Overfeeding (3) Starvation (4) Diarrhea
89. The edible part of litchi is :
(1) Mesocarp (2) Thalamus (3) Ari! (4) Seed coat
90. Fatty liver results in the deficiency of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Stearic acid (3) Caproic acid (4) Pantothenic acid
91. Ketone bodies are utilized in :
(1) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
( 10 )
(2) Extrahepatic tissues
(4) Chromosomes
12P/21 0/30
92. Eicosanoids are synthesized from:
(1) Palmitic acid
(3) Butyric add
93. Cyclo-oxygenase is known as :
(1) Suicidal enzyme
(3) Oxidizing enzyme
94. Leukotrienes are important in :
(1) Oxidation reaction
(3) Allergic reaction
95. The basic amino acid is :
(1) Glycine (2) Proline
(2) Stearic acid
(4) Arachidonic acid
(2) Inhibiting enzyme
(4) Reducing enzyme
(2) Reduction reaction
(4) Inhibitory reaction
(3) Serine (4) Histidine
96. i"roteins react with Biuret reagent suggesting 2 or more:
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond
(3) Disulfide bond (4) Hydrophobic bond
97. The milk protein in infants is digested by :
(1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin (3) Chymotrypsin (4) Chymosin
98. Trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages in the small intestine containing:
(1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Serine (4) Aspartate
99. The half life of an antibody is about:
(1) One week (2) Two weeks (3) Three weeks (4) Four weeks
00. The metabolism of protein is integrated with carbohydrate and fat through:
(1) Oxaloacetate (2) Malate (3) Citrate (4) lsocitrate
01. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of :
(1) Phospholipids (2) Uric add
(3) Glycolipids (4) Chondroitin sulfates
02. Keratin, the protein of hair, is synthesized from:
(1) Glycine (2) Proline (3) Methionine (4) Serine
( 11 ) P.T.O.
12P/21 0/30
92. Eicosanoids are synthesized from:
(1) Palmitic acid
(3) Butyric add
93. Cyclo-oxygenase is known as :
(1) Suicidal enzyme
(3) Oxidizing enzyme
94. Leukotrienes are important in :
(1) Oxidation reaction
(3) Allergic reaction
95. The basic amino acid is :
(1) Glycine (2) Proline
(2) Stearic acid
(4) Arachidonic acid
(2) Inhibiting enzyme
(4) Reducing enzyme
(2) Reduction reaction
(4) Inhibitory reaction
(3) Serine (4) Histidine
96. i"roteins react with Biuret reagent suggesting 2 or more:
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond
(3) Disulfide bond (4) Hydrophobic bond
97. The milk protein in infants is digested by :
(1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin (3) Chymotrypsin (4) Chymosin
98. Trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages in the small intestine containing:
(1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Serine (4) Aspartate
99. The half life of an antibody is about:
(1) One week (2) Two weeks (3) Three weeks (4) Four weeks
00. The metabolism of protein is integrated with carbohydrate and fat through:
(1) Oxaloacetate (2) Malate (3) Citrate (4) lsocitrate
01. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of :
(1) Phospholipids (2) Uric add
(3) Glycolipids (4) Chondroitin sulfates
02. Keratin, the protein of hair, is synthesized from:
(1) Glycine (2) Proline (3) Methionine (4) Serine
103. the cnd product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic animals is:
(1) Urea
(3) Bilirubin
(2) Uric add
(4) Biliverdin
104. Most amino acids arc substrate (or transamination except:
(1) Alanine (2) Serine (3) Threonine (4) Valine
105. Oxidative conversion of amino acids to their corresponding keto acids OCell
m:
(I) Livcr & Kidney (2) Adipose tissue (3) Pancreas (4) Intostine
106. "Jh£' symptoms of ammonia intoxication includes:
(1) Ulurring of vision
(3) Constipation
(2) Ml'ntal retardatiun
(4) [)iarrhea
107. Amino acid with dissociation constant clo::;est to physiological pH is
(I) 5.!rine (2) Histidine (3) 'Ihrconine (4) Proline
108. Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle arc:
(1) Aspartate and ammonia
(3) Arginine and ammonia
(2) Glutamate and ammonia
(4) Uric add
109. Force n1,.)t acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
(1) Electrostatic
(3) Hydrogcn
110. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by ;
(1) Cy.nide
(3) Chon,l.te
111. Triple bond:-; are formed betwccn
(I) A•T (2) G-C
(2) Covalent
(4) Van der Waals
(2) Carbon dioxide
(4) Carbonated beverages
(3) A•C (4) CoT
, 12. Whi(:h fatty aCid is found exclusively in brca!'t milk?
(I) l.inuleic acid
(3) DocoSt.'lhexanoic acid
( 12 )
(2) Linolenic acid
(4) Palmitic acid
12P1210130
103. the cnd product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic animals is:
(1) Urea
(3) Bilirubin
(2) Uric add
(4) Biliverdin
104. Most amino acids arc substrate (or transamination except:
(1) Alanine (2) Serine (3) Threonine (4) Valine
105. Oxidative conversion of amino acids to their corresponding keto acids OCell
m:
(I) Livcr & Kidney (2) Adipose tissue (3) Pancreas (4) Intostine
106. "Jh£' symptoms of ammonia intoxication includes:
(1) Ulurring of vision
(3) Constipation
(2) Ml'ntal retardatiun
(4) [)iarrhea
107. Amino acid with dissociation constant clo::;est to physiological pH is
(I) 5.!rine (2) Histidine (3) 'Ihrconine (4) Proline
108. Sources of nitrogen in urea cycle arc:
(1) Aspartate and ammonia
(3) Arginine and ammonia
(2) Glutamate and ammonia
(4) Uric add
109. Force n1,.)t acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
(1) Electrostatic
(3) Hydrogcn
110. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by ;
(1) Cy.nide
(3) Chon,l.te
111. Triple bond:-; are formed betwccn
(I) A•T (2) G-C
(2) Covalent
(4) Van der Waals
(2) Carbon dioxide
(4) Carbonated beverages
(3) A•C (4) CoT
, 12. Whi(:h fatty aCid is found exclusively in brca!'t milk?
(I) l.inuleic acid
(3) DocoSt.'lhexanoic acid
( 12 )
(2) Linolenic acid
(4) Palmitic acid
12P1210/30
113. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is :
(1) Myeloperoxidase (2) Superoxide dismutase
(3) Monoamine oxidase (4) Hydroxylase
114. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from;
(1) Ethylene (2) Propylene (3) Isoprene (4) Butadiene
115. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
myosin?
(1) Troponin (2) Calmodulin (3) Thymosin (4) Tropomyosin
, 16. Uremia occurs in :
(1) Cirrhosis of liver
(3) Diabetes mellitus
117. The sparing action of methionine is :
(2) Nephritis
(4) Coronary thrombosis
(1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Cystine
118. Which of the following inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is used
chemotherapeutic agent?
(1). Methotrexate (2) Fluorouridine
(3) Aminopterin (4) Trimethoprirn
119. Which of the following best describes the role of sigma factor in
synthesis?
(1) It is essential for elongation
as a
RNA
(2) It is responsible for the recognition of the specific initiation sites on a DNA
template
(3) It is responsible for releasing the completed chain
(4) It is responsible for separation of DNA strands
120. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are
linked by:
(1) Chemical methods (2) Physical methods
(3) Chemiosmotic methods (4) Conformational changes
( 13) P.T.O.
12P1210/30
113. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is :
(1) Myeloperoxidase (2) Superoxide dismutase
(3) Monoamine oxidase (4) Hydroxylase
114. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from;
(1) Ethylene (2) Propylene (3) Isoprene (4) Butadiene
115. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
myosin?
(1) Troponin (2) Calmodulin (3) Thymosin (4) Tropomyosin
, 16. Uremia occurs in :
(1) Cirrhosis of liver
(3) Diabetes mellitus
117. The sparing action of methionine is :
(2) Nephritis
(4) Coronary thrombosis
(1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophan (3) Arginine (4) Cystine
118. Which of the following inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is used
chemotherapeutic agent?
(1). Methotrexate (2) Fluorouridine
(3) Aminopterin (4) Trimethoprirn
119. Which of the following best describes the role of sigma factor in
synthesis?
(1) It is essential for elongation
as a
RNA
(2) It is responsible for the recognition of the specific initiation sites on a DNA
template
(3) It is responsible for releasing the completed chain
(4) It is responsible for separation of DNA strands
120. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are
linked by:
(1) Chemical methods (2) Physical methods
(3) Chemiosmotic methods (4) Conformational changes
121. TRH stimulation testing is useful in the diagnosis of disorders of which of the
following hormones?
(1) Insulin
(3) Growth hormone
(2) AClH
(4) PIH
122. Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of :
(1) Histidine (2) Keratin (3) Lysine (4) Cysteine
123. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because :
(\) It is an open system
(3) It is governed by vitalism
124. HIV virus contains :
(\) Single stranded DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA
(2) It is a closed system
(4) It is related to thermodynamics
(2) Single stranded RNA
(4) Double stranded RNA
125. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:
(\) Phenytoin (2) Diazepam
(3) Morphin (4) Heparin
126. The oxidation and phosphorylation is completely blocked by :
(\) Oligomycin (2) Streptomycin (3) Puromycin (4) Gentamycin
127. Zinc is a constituent of :
(\) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Amylase
(2) Malate dehydrogenase
(4) Aldolase
128. The absorption of calcium is increased by :
(\) Fat (2) Protein (3) Cereal (4) Vitamin A
129. Biological value of proteins depend on the presence of :
(\) Essential amino acids (2) Semi-essential amino acids
(3) Non•essential amino acids (4) Incomplete proteins
130. Carotenes are transported through :
(\) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Minerals (4) Lipoproteins
( 14 )
12P1210130
121. TRH stimulation testing is useful in the diagnosis of disorders of which of the
following hormones?
(1) Insulin
(3) Growth hormone
(2) AClH
(4) PIH
122. Elasticity of the corneal layer of skin is due to the presence of :
(1) Histidine (2) Keratin (3) Lysine (4) Cysteine
123. Entropy in a biological system does not increase because :
(\) It is an open system
(3) It is governed by vitalism
124. HIV virus contains :
(\) Single stranded DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA
(2) It is a closed system
(4) It is related to thermodynamics
(2) Single stranded RNA
(4) Double stranded RNA
125. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:
(\) Phenytoin (2) Diazepam
(3) Morphin (4) Heparin
126. The oxidation and phosphorylation is completely blocked by :
(\) Oligomycin (2) Streptomycin (3) Puromycin (4) Gentamycin
127. Zinc is a constituent of :
(\) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Amylase
(2) Malate dehydrogenase
(4) Aldolase
128. The absorption of calcium is increased by :
(\) Fat (2) Protein (3) Cereal (4) Vitamin A
129. Biological value of proteins depend on the presence of :
(\) Essential amino acids (2) Semi-essential amino acids
(3) Non•essential amino acids (4) Incomplete proteins
130. Carotenes are transported through :
(\) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Minerals (4) Lipoproteins
131. The poor source of Vitamin D is :
(1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Egg (4) ,Liver
132. Sterilized milk is devoid of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin 0
133. Blotting technique used for identification of protein is :
(1) Northern blot (2) Southern blot (3) Eastern blot (4) Western blot
134. The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is :
(1) ALP (2) Amylase (3) AST (4) LDH
135. The key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is :
(1) HMG CoA synthase (2) HMG CoA reductase
(3) Thiolase (4) Mevalonate kinase,
136. All of the following Vitamins playa key role in TCA cycle except:
(1) Niacin (2) Riboflavin (3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid
137. Dry ice is:
(1) Solid ice without any water
(3) Solid C6H6
138. Aminosugar is the component of :
(1) Glycogen
(3) DNA
139. Purely ketogenic amino add is :
(1) Arginine (2) Leucine
(2) Solid CO2
(4) Solid 502
(2) Cellulose
(4) Blood group substances
(3) Tryptophan (4) , Valine
•
140. Number of disulphide bonds in the structure of insulin is :
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
141. Deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the
activity of :
(1) Galactosyl transferase (2) ALA synthetase
(3) Lysyl hydroxylase (4) Lysyloxidase
( 15 ) P.T.O.
12P1210130
131. The poor source of Vitamin D is :
(1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Egg (4) ,Liver
132. Sterilized milk is devoid of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin 0
133. Blotting technique used for identification of protein is :
(1) Northern blot (2) Southern blot (3) Eastern blot (4) Western blot
134. The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is :
(1) ALP (2) Amylase (3) AST (4) LDH
135. The key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is :
(1) HMG CoA synthase (2) HMG CoA reductase
(3) Thiolase (4) Mevalonate kinase,
136. All of the following Vitamins playa key role in TCA cycle except:
(1) Niacin (2) Riboflavin (3) Thiamine (4) Folic acid
137. Dry ice is:
(1) Solid ice without any water
(3) Solid C6H6
138. Aminosugar is the component of :
(1) Glycogen
(3) DNA
139. Purely ketogenic amino add is :
(1) Arginine (2) Leucine
(2) Solid CO2
(4) Solid 502
(2) Cellulose
(4) Blood group substances
(3) Tryptophan (4) , Valine
•
140. Number of disulphide bonds in the structure of insulin is :
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
141. Deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the
activity of :
(1) Galactosyl transferase (2) ALA synthetase
(3) Lysyl hydroxylase (4) Lysyloxidase
( 15 ) P.T.O.
12P/21 0130
142. The sugar residues in amylose are linked by:
(1) Alpha-I, 4 linkage (2) Beta-l,4 linkage
(3) Beta-I, 6 linkage (4) Alpha-I,2Iinkage
143. Which of the following lipid accumulates in Tay-sach's disease?
(1) Sphingomyelin (2) Ganglioside GM2
(3) Glucocerebroside (4) Galactocerebroside
144. The antibody class that can cross the placental barrier to protect the fetus is :
(1) IgA (2) IgE (3) IgG (4) IgM
145. All of the following enzymes are catalyzing the irreversible reactions of
glycolysis except :
(1) Hexokinase (2) Phosphofructokinase
(3) Phosphoglycerate kinase
146. Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle is:
(1) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
(2) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
(3) Omathine transcarbamoylase
(4) Argininosucdnate synthase
(4) Pyruvate kinase
147. Carcinogenicity with radiant energy is to cause damage to:
(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) mRNA
148. The renal glutaminase activity is enhanced by :
(1) Acidosis (2) Alkalosis (3) Oxidases
149. Respiration is directly linked with lhe buffer systems of :
(1) Bicarbonate (2) Phosphate (3) Protein
150. The pathogenic bacteria are killed by :
(1) Chlorine (2) Fluorine (3) Bromine
( 16 )
(4) tRNA
(4) Phosphatases
(4) Hemoglobin
(4) Iodine
12P/21 0130
142. The sugar residues in amylose are linked by:
(1) Alpha-I, 4 linkage (2) Beta-l,4 linkage
(3) Beta-I, 6 linkage (4) Alpha-I,2Iinkage
143. Which of the following lipid accumulates in Tay-sach's disease?
(1) Sphingomyelin (2) Ganglioside GM2
(3) Glucocerebroside (4) Galactocerebroside
144. The antibody class that can cross the placental barrier to protect the fetus is :
(1) IgA (2) IgE (3) IgG (4) IgM
145. All of the following enzymes are catalyzing the irreversible reactions of
glycolysis except :
(1) Hexokinase (2) Phosphofructokinase
(3) Phosphoglycerate kinase
146. Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle is:
(1) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
(2) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
(3) Omathine transcarbamoylase
(4) Argininosucdnate synthase
(4) Pyruvate kinase
147. Carcinogenicity with radiant energy is to cause damage to:
(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) mRNA
148. The renal glutaminase activity is enhanced by :
(1) Acidosis (2) Alkalosis (3) Oxidases
149. Respiration is directly linked with lhe buffer systems of :
(1) Bicarbonate (2) Phosphate (3) Protein
150. The pathogenic bacteria are killed by :
(1) Chlorine (2) Fluorine (3) Bromine
( 16 )
(4) tRNA
(4) Phosphatases
(4) Hemoglobin
(4) Iodine

__________________
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