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Old January 24th, 2014, 03:00 PM
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Default GATE sample papers for Biotechnology

Here I am looking for the GATE sample papers for Biotechnology, can you provide me the same???

As you want question papers of Biotechnology Subject for GATE Exam, so here I am providing following papers:

GATE Biotechnology Question Paper 2015
Q.1 Which one of the following complement proteins is the initiator of the membrane attack complex?
(A) C3a (B) C3b (C) C5a (D) C5b
Q.2 Levinthal’s paradox is related to
(A) protein secretion (B) protein degradation
(C) protein folding (D) protein trafficking
Q.3 Which one of the following is a second generation genetically engineered crop?
(A) Bt brinjal (B) Roundup soyabean
(C) Golden rice (D) Bt rice
Q.4 Based on the heavy chain, which one of the following antibodies has multiple subtypes?
(A) IgM (B) IgD (C) IgE (D) IgG
Q.5 The cytokinetic organelle in plant cells is
(A) centriole (B) phragmoplast (C) proplastid (D) chromoplastid
Q.6 Anergy refers to
(A) mitochondrial dysfunction (B) allergy to environmental antigens
(C) unresponsiveness to antigens (D) a state of no energy
Q.7 ABO blood group antigens in humans are differentiated from each other on the basis of
(A) sialic acid (B) lipids (C) spectrin (D) glycoproteins
Q.8 Which one of the following organisms is used for the determination of phenol coefficient of a
disinfectant?
(A) Salmonella typhi (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Candida albicans (D) Bacillus psychrophilus
Q.9 A single subunit enzyme converts 420 µmoles of substrate to product in one minute. The activity
of the enzyme is × 10 Katal.
Q.10 Which one of the following amino acids has the highest probability to be found on the surface of a
typical globular protein in aqueous environment?
(A) Ala (B) Val (C) Arg (D) Ile
Q.11 Which one of the following is NOT a product of denitrification in Pseudomonas?
(A) N2 (B) N2O (C) NO2
− (D) NH4
+
Q.12
The determinant of the matrix 3 0 0 2 5 0 6 −8 −4 is .
Q.13 Which one of the following features is NOT required in a prokaryotic expression vector?
(A) oriC (B) Selection marker (C) CMV promoter (D) Ribosome binding site
Q.14 Production of monoclonal antibodies by hybridoma technology requires
(A) splenocytes (B) osteocytes (C) hepatocytes (D) thymocytes
Q.15 Which one of the following is INCORRECT about a typical apoptotic cell?
(A) Phosphatidylserine is presented on the outer cell surface
(B) Cytochrome c is released from mitochondria
(C) Mitochondrial membrane potential does not change
(D) Annexin-V binds to the cell surface
Q.16 Identify the file format given below:
>P1; JMFD
Protein X – Homo sapiens
MKALTARQQEVFDLIRDHISRTLRQQGDWL
(A) GDE (B) FASTA (C) NBRF (D) GCG
Q.17 Which one of the following relations holds true for the specific growth rate (µ) of a microorganism
in the death phase?
(A) µ=0 (B) µ<0
(C) µ=µmax (D) 0< µ<µmax
Q.18 How many 3-tuples are possible for the following amino acid sequence?
MADCMWDISEASE
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 11 (D) 12
Q.19 How many different protein sequences of 100 residues can be generated using 20 standard amino
acids?
(A) 100 (B) 100×20 (C) 20 (D) 100!×20!
Q.20 In DNA sequencing reactions using the chain termination method, the ratio of ddNTPs to dNTPs
should be
(A) 0 (B) < 1
(C) 1 (D) > 1
Q.21 Which one of the following graphs represents uncompetitive inhibition?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.22 Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify the following DNA fragment by the polymerase
chain reaction (PCR).
5’-GACCTGTGG-----------------------------ATACGGGAT-3’
3’-CTGGACACC-----------------------------TATGCCCTA-5’
Primers
P. 5’-GACCTGTGG-3’
Q. 5’-CCACAGGTC-3’
R. 5’-TAGGGCATA-3’
S. 5’-ATCCCGTAT-3’
(A) P and R (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) Q and S
Q.23 Consider the following infinite series:
1+r+r2+r3+ ………...∞
If r=0.3, then the sum of this infinite series is _____________.
Q.24 2x1+x2=3 5x1+bx2=7.5
The system of linear equations in two variables shown above will have infinite solutions, if and
only if, is equal to ______________.
1
[ ] S
0
0
1
[ ] v
0
0
1
[ ] v
1
[ ] S
0
0
1
[ ] v
1
[ ] S
0
0
1
[ ] v
1
[ ] S
Q.25 The interaction between an antigen (Ag) and a single-chain antibody (Ab) was studied using
Scatchard analysis. The result is shown below.
The affinity of interaction and the total concentration of antibody, respectively, can be determined
from
(A) slope and Y-intercept (B) Y-intercept and slope
(C) X-intercept and slope (D) slope and X-intercept
Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 An isolated population on an island has the following genotypic frequencies:
Assuming that there are only two alleles ( and ) for the gene, the genotypic frequency of in
the next generation will be ______________.
Q.27 How many rooted and unrooted phylogenetic trees, respectively, are possible with four different
sequences?
(A) 3 and 15 (B) 15 and 3 (C) 15 and 12 (D) 12 and 3
Q.28 Match the compounds in Group I with the correct entries in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Cyanide 1) K+ ionophore
Q) Antimycin A 2) Electron transfer from cytochrome b to cytochrome c1
R) Valinomycin 3) F1 subunit of ATP synthase
S) Aurovertin 4) Cytochrome oxidase
5) Adenine nucleotide translocase
(A) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1
Q.29 What are the eigenvalues of the following matrix? 1 1 −2 4
(A) 2 and 3 (B) −2 and 3 (C) 2 and −3 (D) −2 and −3
[Ab-Ag]
[Ag]
[Ab-Ag]
X
Y
0
AA Aa aa
0.3 0.4 0.3
Genotype
Frequency
Q.30 For a discrete random variable , ( )={0,1,2,3} and the cumulative probability ( ) is
shown below:
0 1 2 3 ( ) 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
The mean value of is ______________.
Q.31 Match the drugs in Group I with their mechanism of action in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Paclitaxel 1) Inhibits protein translation
Q) Colchicine 2) Inhibits microtubule depolymerization
R) Etoposide 3) Inhibits DNA replication
S) Methotrexate 4) Alkylates DNA
5) Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
6) Inhibits microtubule polymerization
(A) P-1, Q-6, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-6, R-3, S-5
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-6, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-6, S-4
Q.32 The limit of the function (1+ ) as n →∞ is
(A) lnx (B) ln1x
(C) e x (D) ex
Q.33 Match the cells in Group I with their corresponding entries in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Mast cells 1) Activation of the complement pathway
Q) Natural killer cells 2) Expression of CD56
R) Neutrophils 3) Contains azurophilic granules
S) Dendritic cells 4) Defense against helminthic infection
5) Production of antibodies specific to bacteria
6) Contains long membranous projections
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-6
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-6
Q.34 Oxygen transfer was measured in a stirred tank bioreactor using dynamic method. The dissolved
oxygen tension was found to be 80% air saturation under steady state conditions. The measured
oxygen tensions at 7 s and 17 s were 55% and 68% air saturation, respectively. The volumetric
mass transfer coefficient is ____________s .
Q.35 Match the microorganisms in Group I with their fermentation products in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Leuconostoc mesenteroides 1) Cobalamin
Q) Rhizopus oryzae 2) Sorbose
R) Gluconobacter suboxydans 3) Dextran
S) Streptomyces olivaceus 4) Lactic acid
5) Butanol
(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Q.36 Plasmid DNA (0.5 µg) containing an ampicillin resistance marker was added to 200 µl of
competent cells. The transformed competent cells were diluted 10,000 times, out of which, 50 µl
was plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total of 35 colonies were obtained. The
transformation efficiency is ______________× 106 cfu∙µg .
Q.37 Match the reagents in Group I with their preferred cleavage sites in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Cyanogen bromide 1) Carboxyl side of methionine
Q) o-Iodosobenzoate 2) Amino side of methionine
R) Hydroxylamine 3) Carboxyl side of tryptophan
S) 2-Nitro-5-thiocyanobenzoate 4) Amino side of cysteine
5) Asparagine-glycine bonds
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3
Q.38 Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces ethanol by fermentation. The theoretical yield of ethanol from
2.5 g of glucose is ______________ g.
Q.39 Choose the CORRECT sequence of steps involved in cytoplast production.
(A) Digestion of cell wall → protoplast viability → cybrid formation → osmotic stabilizer
(B) Osmotic stabilizer → digestion of cell wall → protoplast viability → cybrid formation
(C) Protoplast viability → osmotic stabilizer → digestion of cell wall → cybrid formation
(D) Osmotic stabilizer → digestion of cell wall → cybrid formation → protoplast viability
Q.40 Match the antibiotics in Group I with their modes of action in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Chloramphenicol 1) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 30S ribosomal subunit
Q) Rifampicin 2) Interferes with DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase
R) Tetracycline 3) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 50S ribosomal subunit
S) Quinolone 4) Interferes with RNA polymerase activity
5) Inhibits β-lactamase activity
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
Q.41 The diameters of a large and a small vessel are 1.62 m and 16.2 cm, respectively. The vessels are
geometrically similar and operated under similar volumetric agitated power input. The mixing time
in the small vessel was found to be 15 s. Determine the mixing time (in seconds) in the large vessel.
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 61 (D) 122
Q.42 If A = 4 2 1 3 , then A2 + 3A will be
(A) 30 20 10 20 (B) 28 10 4 18
(C) 31 13 7 21 (D) 20 10 5 15
Q.43 Consider the following multiple sequence alignment of four DNA sequences.

Shannon’s entropy of the above alignment is ______________.
Q.44 The Ki of a novel competitive inhibitor designed against an enzyme is 2.5 µM. The enzyme was
assayed in the absence or presence of the inhibitor (5 µM) under identical conditions. The Km in the
presence of the inhibitor was found to be 30 µM. The Km in the absence of the inhibitor is
______ µM.
Q.45 A heterozygous tall plant ( ) was crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant ( ). The resultant seeds
were collected. If five seeds are chosen at random, then the probability (in %) that exactly two of
these seeds will yield dwarf plants is ______________.
Q.46 Assuming random distribution of nucleotides, the average number of fragments generated upon
digestion of a circular DNA of size 4.3×10 bp with AluI (5’-AG↓CT-3’) is _________×10 .
Q.47 A synchronous culture containing 1.8 × 10 monkey kidney cells was seeded into three identical
flasks. The doubling time of these cells is 24 h. After 24 h, the cells from all the three flasks were
pooled and dispensed equally into each well of three 6-well plates. The number of cells in each well
will be _____________×10 .
Q.48 An in vitro translation system can synthesize peptides in all three reading frames of the RNA
template. When 5’- UCUCUCUC----(UC)n---UCUCUCUC - 3’ was used as the template in this in
vitro translation system, the synthesized peptides contained 50% each of serine and leucine. When
5’- CCUCCUCCU---(CCU)n--CCUCCU - 3’ was used as the template, the synthesized peptides
contained 33.3% each of serine, leucine, and proline. Deduce the codon for proline.
(A) UCU (B) CUC (C) CCU (D) UCC
Q.49 Three distinct antigens X, Y and Z were used to raise antibodies. Antigen Z was injected in a
mouse on day zero followed by the administration of antigens X and Y on day 28. A second
injection of antigen X was administered on day 70. The antibody titers were monitored in the serum
every day and the results are shown below:
Which one of the following statements regarding the antibody titers in the serum is INCORRECT?
(A) Z-specific IgG will be high on day 14
(B) X-specific antibody titer will be high on day 84
(C) X-specific IgG will be high on day 42
(D) Y-specific IgG will be high on day 84
Q.50 The standard free energy change (∆G′°) for ATP hydrolysis is −30 kJ∙mole . The in vivo
concentrations of ATP, ADP and Pi in E. coli are 7.90, 1.04 and 7.90 mM, respectively. When E.
coli cells are cultured at 37 ºC, the free energy change (∆G) for ATP hydrolysis in vivo is
_________ kJ∙mole .
Q.51 In a fed-batch culture, 200 g∙L glucose solution is added at a flow rate of 50 L∙h . The initial
culture volume (at quasi steady state) and the initial cell concentration are 600 L and 20 g∙L ,
respectively. The yield coefficient (Yx/s) is 0.5 g cell mass∙g substrate . The cell concentration
(g∙L ) at quasi steady state at t=8 h is
(A) 40 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 68
Days
0 14 28 42 56 70 84 98
Antigen Z
Antigen X + Antigen Y
Serum antibody titer
Antigen X
Q.52 Cytoplasmic extract from the wild type strain of a bacterium has the ability to convert a colorless
substrate (S) to a colored product (P) via three colorless intermediates X, Y and Z, in that order.
Each step of the pathway involves a specific enzyme coded by a distinct gene. Four mutant strains (a ,b ,c ,d ) were isolated, whose extracts are incapable of producing the colored product in the
presence of S. In a series of experiments, extracts from the individual mutants were incubated with
X, Y, or Z and scored for color development. The data are summarized in the table below. (Yes:
color developed, No: no color developed)
Based on the data, which one of the following is the correct order of enzymes involved in the
pathway?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.53 Samples of bacterial culture taken at 5 PM and then the next day at 5 AM were found to have 10
and 10 cells∙mL , respectively. Assuming that both the samples were taken during the log phase
of cell growth, the generation time of this bacterium will be ______________h.
Q.54 Biomass is being produced in a continuous stirred tank bioreactor of 750 L capacity. The sterile
feed containing 8 g∙L glucose as substrate was fed at a flow rate of 150 L∙h . The microbial
system follows Monod’s model with µm = 0.4 h , Ks = 1.5 g∙L and Yx/s =0.5 g cell mass∙g substrate . Determine the cell productivity (g∙L ∙h ) at steady state.
(A) 0.85 (B) 0.65 (C) 0.45 (D) 0.25
X Y Z
No No No
No Yes Yes
Yes Yes Yes
No No Yes
Mutants
Compounds
a
b
c
d
S X Y Z P
d c b a
S X Y Z P
a d b c
S X Y Z P
b a c d
S X Y Z P
c b d a
Q.55 A linear double stranded DNA of length 8 kbp has three restriction sites. Each of these can either be
a BamHI or a HaeIII site. The DNA was digested completely with both enzymes. The products
were purified and subjected to an end-filling reaction using the Klenow fragment and [α-32P]-dCTP.
The products of the end-filling reaction were purified, resolved by electrophoresis, stained with
ethidium bromide (EtBr) and then subjected to autoradiography. The corresponding images are
shown below.
The numbers below each band in the sample lane in the autoradiograph represent their mean signal
intensity in arbitrary units. Which one of the following options is the correct restriction map of the
DNA?

GATE Biotechnology Question Paper 2014
Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease short-term memory loss.
(A) experienced (B) has experienced (C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.
(A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? “As a woman, I have no country.”
(A) Women have no country.
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries.
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4 In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years.

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate?
(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years

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Last edited by Aakashd; March 8th, 2020 at 02:01 PM.
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  #2  
Old January 25th, 2014, 10:24 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2013
Default Re: GATE sample papers for Biotechnology

As you are looking for the GATE sample papers for Biotechnology, here I am uploading a pdf file that contains the same. this is the content of attachment:

Q. 1 - Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Embryonic stem cells are derived from
(A) fertilized embryo
(C) sperm
(B) unfertilized embryo
(D) kidney

Members of the antibody protein family that have common structural features are
collectively known as
(A) haptens (B) allergens (C) antigens (D) immunoglobulins
Apoptosis is characterized by
(A) necrosis
(C) membrane leaky syndrome
(B) programmed cell death
(D) cell cycle arrest process

Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC's) are used for cloning
(A) large segments of DNA
(C) bacterial DNA
(B) mRNA
(D) yeast DNA

The product commercially produced by animal cell culture is
(A) insulin
(C) interferon

An alternative to glycolysis pathway is
(A) glyoxylate pathway
(C) citric acid cycle
(B) tissue plasminogen activator
(D) hepatitis B vaccine
(B) pentose phosphate pathway
(D) gluconeogenesis

A cell in G1 of interphase has 12 chromosomes. How many chromatids will be found per
cell during metaphase 11 of meiosis?
Diploid Drosophila has eight chromosomes. Which one of the following terms should
NOT be used to describe Drosophila with sixteen numbers of chromosomes?
(A) Polyploid (B) Aneuploid (C) Euploid (D) Tetraploid

Hydrated synthetic seeds which are produced by ion exchange reaction involve mixing the
somatic embryos in a solution of
(A) sodium alginate and dropping it in a solution of calcium nitrate
(B) calcium alginate and dropping it in a solution of sodium nitrate
(C) calcium alginate and dropping it in a solution of ammonium nitrate
(D) mannitol and dropping it in a solution of sodium nitrate





Remaining questions are in the attachment, please click on it………
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  #3  
Old October 8th, 2015, 02:36 PM
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Default Re: GATE sample papers for Biotechnology

Will you please provide sample or old year question papers of Biotechnology Subject of GATE Exam? Please provide question papers as soon as possible.
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