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  #1  
Old June 22nd, 2012, 05:04 PM
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I wish to fight Indian Institute of science Education & Research Aptitude Test and I ma fresher here so don’t know about exam paper pattern so so you give me link where I can download last years and sample question papers of IISER?

Below I am providing you some questions of from question paper of IISER Aptitude Test and attaching a PDF attachment which has detail information regarding this that you can down load for free:

1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes mitosis. Which of’ the following explains this observation?
A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis
B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity
C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase
D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide

2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when
A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction
B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction
C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction
D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction

3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because
A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals
B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on a decline
C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time
D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time

4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. Mating is random in the population
B. There are no mutations
C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce
D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population

5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized fonn of a protein that also functions in digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that
A. Vision and digestion co-evolved
B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function
C. Evolution in opportunistic
D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time

Chemistry
6. What is the potential of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, in which the anode is in contact with 10-5M HCl and the cathode is in contact with 1000 times the concentration of HCl as that of the anode?
A. 0.36 V.
B. 0.18 V.
C. -0.36 V.
D. -0.18 V.

7. Phosphorus pentoxide, P4O10, has each phosphorus linked to:
A. 5 oxygen atoms with P – P bonds.
B. 5 oxygen atoms.
C. 4 oxygen atoms with P – P bonds.
D. 4 oxygen atoms.

8. The radius of an atom of He is 0.05 nm. Assuming that one mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at STP, the fraction of the volume occupied by the atoms in a mole of He gas at STP is:
A. 1.4 x 10-4 .
B. 1.4 x 10-5
C. 7.1 x 10-4
D. 7.1 X 10-5

9. The number of degenerate orbitals present in an energy level of a H-atom characterized by E = -R/16 where R is the Rydberg constant is:
A. 16.
B. 9.
C. 4.
D. I.

10. Formation of ammonia in Haber’s process, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 (ΔH = -ve) can be increased by:
A. increase in temperature and pressure.
B. increase in temperature.
C. increase in the concentration of ammonia.
D. increase in pressure.

Mathematics

11. The number of integer values of k for which the equation 7cosΘ + 5sinΘ = 2k + 1 has real solutions is:
A. 6.
B. 8.
C. 10.
D. 12.

12. How many 2 x 2 matrices A satisfy both A3 = I2 and A2 = At, where h denotes the 2 x 2 identity matrix and At denotes the transpose of A?
A. O.
B. I
C. 2
D. 3

13. Let C be the circle that touches the X-axis and whose centre coincides with the circumcentre of the triangle defined by 4|x|+ 3y = 12; y≥ 0. How many points with both co-ordinates integers are there in the interior of C?

A. O
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

14. Let f : R → R be a function such that f(x + y)+ f(x – y)= f(xy) for all x,y ∈ R. Then f is:
A. Strictly increasing.
B. Strictly decreasing.
C. Identically zero.
D. Constant but not necessarily zero.

Physics

15. A body cools from 67°C to 37°C. If this takes time t when the surrounding temperature is 27°C, what will be the time taken if the surrounding temperature is 7°C?
A. 2t
B. t/3
C. t/2
D. t/4

16. Three rods (lengths 2l, l, l) made of the same material and having the same area of cross-section are joined as shown in figure. The end points A, B and C are maintained at constant temperatures 100°C, 50°C and 0°C, respectively. Assuming that there is no loss of heat from the surface of the rods, find the temperature that the junction P ultimately reaches.
A. 50°C
B. 40°C
C. 30°C
D. 20°C

17. A bar magnet of mass m is suspended from the ceiling with a massless string and is set into oscillations. A gold metal plate is brought close to the oscillating pendulum. The oscillations will damp due to induction of eddy currents in the metal. Which one of the following statements is true if the gold plate is replaced by a steel plate having the same physical dimensions. (Of the two, note that gold is a better conductor of electricity.)

A. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease faster
B. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease slower
C. the amplitude of oscillations will increase
D. the amplitude of oscillations will not be affected

18. A charged particle is moving away from a uniformly charged infinite wire along a direction perpendicular to it. Initially, the particle is at a distance L from the wire moving with a velocity U. When it is at a distance 2L, its velocity is found to be 2u. What will be the velocity of the particle when it is at a distance 4L from the wire ?
A. √6 u
B. √7 u
C. √8 u
D. √9 u

19. A steel wire of length 1 meter is under a tension of 10 newtons. The speed of the transverse wave excited in this wire is v. The wire is replaced by another steel wire of the same length but half the diameter. What should be the tension in the replaced wire, so that, the speed of the wave stays the same?
A. 40 N
B. 20N
C. 5 N
D. 2.5N

20. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. In which resistor the amount of power dissipated is the largest?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4

21. A biconvex lens with focal length f in air and refractive index of 1.5 is floating on the surface of a deep pond of water (refractive index 1.33). If an object is placed at a height of 2f vertically above the lens, then the distance between the lens and the image is

A. f
B. 2f
C. less than 2f
D. greater than 2f

Last edited by Aakashd; May 23rd, 2019 at 11:07 AM.
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  #2  
Old June 22nd, 2012, 05:51 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Default Re: IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper

Here I am attaching a file from where you can download the IISER science aptitude question paper.
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf IISER science question paper.pdf (183.0 KB, 773 views)
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  #3  
Old March 26th, 2020, 09:44 PM
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Default Re: IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper

I want to take admission in IISER and for this preparing for entrance exam. Will you provide IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper also provide all important dates for IISER Aptitude Test?
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  #4  
Old March 26th, 2020, 09:46 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2013
Default Re: IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper

IISER organizes a national level test known as IISER SCB Aptitude test to offer admission in 5 year dual degree programme of BS-MS.

Admission will be done through three channels – SCB, KVPY and on the basis of JEE Advanced exam

Please find the below attached file for the IISER Aptitude Test Previous Year Question Papers:

IISER Aptitude Test Previous Year Question Paper







Important dates:

For KVPY Channel:

Events Dates 2020 (Announced)
Application form starts 24th April
Last date to submit 12th marks & category certificate 22nd May
Seat allocation process 1st June

For JEE Advanced Channel:

Events Dates 2020 (Announced)
Application form release 1st June
Last date to submit 12th marks & category certificate 15th June
First seat allocation announcement 17th June

For SCB (Aptitude Test) Channel:
Events Dates 2020 (Announced)
Application form release 23rd March
Submission of application form 30th April
Admit card availability 18th May
Last date to submit 12th marks & category certificate 22nd May
IISER Aptitude exam 2020 31st May
Release of answer key 1st June
Response Sheet and Representation starts 2nd June
Response Sheet and Representation Ends 4th June
Revised Answer key release 8th June
Counselling 22nd June
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf IISER Aptitude Test Previous Year Question Paper1.pdf (178.7 KB, 2 views)
File Type: pdf IISER Aptitude Test Previous Year Question Paper2.pdf (127.3 KB, 2 views)
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