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Old April 27th, 2012, 05:15 PM
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Default Re: LSAT CR questions

Hello ansilali, I have got one file regarding your query, please have a look on the file, if it is of your file.

TEST A
Time 30 minutes 20 Questions
1. Mr. Janeck: I don’t believe Stevenson will win the election for governor. Few voters are willing to elect a businessman with no political experience to such a responsible public office.
Ms. Siuzdak: You’re wrong. The experience of running a major corporation is a valuable preparation for the task of running a state government.
M. Siuzdak’s response shows that she has interpreted Mr. Janeck’s remark to imply which of the following?
(A) Mr. Janeck considers Stevenson unqualified for the office of governor.
(B) No candidate without political experience has ever been elected governor of a state.
(C) Mr. Janeck believes that political leadership and business leadership are closely analogous.
(D) A career spent in the pursuit of profit can be an impediment to one’s ability to run a state government fairly.
(E) Voters generally overestimate the value of political experience when selecting a candidate.
2. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
One tax-reform proposal that has gained increasing support in recent years is the flat tax, which would impose a uniform tax rate on incomes at every level. Opponents of the flat tax say that a progressive tax system, which levies a higher rate of taxes on higher-income taxpayers, is fairer, placing the greater burden on those better able to bear it. However, the present crazy quilt of tax deductions, exemptions, credits, and loopholes benefits primarily the high-income taxpayer, who is consequently able to reduce his or her effective tax rate, often to a level below that paid by the lower-income taxpayer. Therefore, ______
(A) higher-income taxpayers are likely to lend their support to the flat-tax proposal now being considered by Congress
(B) a flat-tax system that allowed no deductions or exemptions would substantially increase actual government revenues
(C) the lower-income taxpayer might well be penalized by the institution of a flat-tax system in this country
(D) the progressive nature of our present tax system is more illusory than real
(E) the flat tax would actually be fairer to the lower-income taxpayer than any progressive tax system could be
3. As part of our program to halt the influx of illegal immigrants, the administration is proposing the creation of a national identity card. The card would be available only to U.S. citizens and to registered aliens, and all persons would be required to produce the card before they could be given a job. Of course, such a system holds the potential, however slight, for the abuse of civil liberties. Therefore, all personal information gathered through this system would be held strictly confidential, to be released only by authorized personnel under appropriate circumstances. Those who are in compliance with U.S. laws would have nothing to fear from the identity card system.
In evaluating the above proposal, a person concerned about the misuse of confidential information would be most interested in having the author clarify the meaning of which of the following phrases?
(A) “all persons” (line 5)
(B) “however slight” (line 7)
(C) “civil liberties” (line 8)
(D) “appropriate circumstances” (line 11)
(E) “U.S. laws” (line 2)
4. At one time, European and Japanese companies tried to imitate their American rivals. Today, American appliance manufacturers import European scientists to lead their research staffs; American automakers design cars that mimic the styling of German, Italian, and French imports; and American electronics firms boast in their advertising of “Japanese-style” devotion to quality and reliability. In the world of high technology, America has lost the battle for international prestige.
Each of the following statements, if true, would help to support the claim above EXCEPT:
(A) An American camera company claims in its promotional literature to produce cameras “as fine as the best Swiss imports.”
(B) An American maker of stereo components designs its products to resemble those of a popular Japanese firm.
(C) An American manufacturer of video games uses a brand name chosen because it sounds like a Japanese word.
(D) An American maker of televisions studies German-made televisions in order to adopt German manufacturing techniques.
(E) An American maker of frozen foods advertises its dinners as “Real European-style entrees prepared by fine French and Italian chefs.”
5. Johnson is on firm ground when he asserts that the early editors of Dickinson’s poetry often distorted her intentions. Yet Johnson’s own, more faithful, text is still guilty of its own forms of distortion. To standardize Dickinson’s often indecipherable handwritten punctuation by the use of the dash is to render permanent a casual mode of poetic phrasing that Dickinson surely never expected to see in print. It implies that Dickinson chose the dash as her typical mark of punctuation when, in fact, she apparently never made any definitive choice at all.
Which of the following best summarizes the author’s main point?
(A) Although Johnson is right in criticizing Dickinson’s early editors for their distortion of her work, his own text is guilty of equally serious distortions.
(B) Johnson’s use of the dash in his text of Dickinson’s poetry misleads readers about the poet’s intentions.
(C) Because Dickinson never expected her poetry to be published, virtually any attempt at editing it must run counter to her intentions.
(D) Although Johnson’s attempt to produce a more faithful text of Dickinson’s poetry is well-meaning, his study of the material lacks sufficient thoroughness.
(E) Dickinson’s editors, including Johnson, have failed to deal adequately with the problem of deciphering Dickinson’s handwritten manuscripts.
6. A law requiring companies to offer employees unpaid time off to care for their children will harm the economic competitiveness of our nation’s businesses. Companies must be free to set their own employment policies without mandated parental-leave regulations.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion of the argument above?
(A) A parental-leave law will serve to strengthen the family as a social institution in this country.
(B) Many businesses in this country already offer employees some form of parental leave.
(C) Some of the countries with the most economically competitive businesses have strong parental-leave regulations.
(D) Only companies with one hundred or more employees would be subject to the proposed parental-leave law.
(E) In most polls, a majority of citizens say they favor passage of a parental-leave law.
7. If A, then B.
If B, then C.
If C, then D.
If all of the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
(A) If D, then A.
(B) If not B, then not C.
(C) If not D, then not A.
(D) If D, then E.
(E) If not A, then not D.
8. Dear Applicant:
Thank you for your application. Unfortunately, we are unable to offer you a position in our local government office for the summer. As you know, funding for summer jobs is limited, and it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them. Consequently, we are forced to reject many highly qualified applicants.
Which of the following can be inferred from the letter?
(A) The number of applicants for summer jobs in the government office exceeded the number of summer jobs available.
(B) The applicant who received the letter was considered highly qualified.
(C) Very little funding was available for summer jobs in the government office.
(D) The application of the person who received the letter was considered carefully before being rejected.
(E) Most of those who applied for summer jobs were considered qualified for the available positions.
9. Studies of fatal automobile accidents reveal that, in the majority of cases in which one occupant of an automobile is killed while another survives, it is the passenger, not the driver, who is killed. It is ironic that the innocent passenger should suffer for the driver’s carelessness, while the driver often suffers only minor injuries or none at all.
Which of the following is an assumption underlying the reasoning in the passage above?
(A) In most fatal automobile accidents, the driver of a car in which an occupant is killed is at fault.
(B) Drivers of automobiles are rarely killed in auto accidents.
(C) Most deaths in fatal automobile accidents are suffered by occupants of cars rather than by pedestrians.
(D) Auto safety experts should increase their efforts to provide protection for those in the passenger seats of automobiles.
(E) Automobile passengers sometimes play a contributing role in causing auto accidents.
Questions 10-11 are based on the following
As one who has always believed that truth is our nation’s surest weapon in the propaganda war against our foes, I am distressed by reports of “disinformation” campaigns by American intelligence agents in Western Europe. In a disinformation campaign, untruths are disseminated through gullible local journalists in order to damage the interests of our enemies and protect our own. Those who defend this practice say that lying is necessary to counter Soviet disinformation campaigns aimed at damaging America’s political interests. These apologists contend that one must fight fire with fire. I would point out to the apologists that the fire department finds water more effective.
10. The author of the passage above bases his conclusion on which of the following?
(A) A circular definition of “disinformation”
(B) An example of the ineffectiveness of lying as a weapon in the propaganda war
(C) An analogy between truth and water
(D) An appeal to the authority of the fire department
(E) An attack on the character of American intelligence agents in Western Europe
11. The author’s main point is that
(A) although disinformation campaigns may be effective, they are unacceptable on ethical grounds
(B) America’s moral standing in the world depends on its adherence to the truth
(C) the temporary political gains produced by disinformation campaigns generally give way to long-term losses
(D) Soviet disinformation campaigns have done little to damage America’s standing in Europe
(E) disinformation campaigns do not effectively serve the political interests of the United States
12. Are you still reading the other newspaper in town? Did you know that the Daily Bugle is owned by an out-of-town business syndicate that couldn’t care less about the people of Gotham City? Read the Daily Clarion, the only real voice of the people of Gotham City!
Which of the following most directly refutes the argument raised in the advertisement above?
(A) Over half of the advertising revenues of the Daily Clarion come from firms whose headquarters are located outside of Gotham City.
(B) The Daily Clarion usually devotes more of its pages to out-of-town news than does the Daily Bugle.
(C) Nearly 40 percent of the readers of the Daily Clarion reside outside the limits of Gotham City.
(D) The editor-in-chief and all the other members of the editorial staff of the Daily Bugle have lived and worked in Gotham City for ten years or more.
(E) The Daily Bugle has been published in Gotham City for a longer time than has the Daily Clarion.
Questions 13-14 are based on the following.
The earth’s resources are being depleted much too fast. To correct this, the United States must keep its resource consumption at present levels for many years to come.
13. The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Per capita resource consumption in the United States is at an all-time high.
(B) The United States wastes resources.
(C) The United States uses more resources than any other country.
(D) The United States imports most of the resources it uses.
(E) Curbing U.S. resource consumption will significantly retard world resource depletion.
14. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above?
(A) New resource deposits are constantly being discovered.
(B) The United States consumes one-third of all resources used in the world.
(C) Other countries need economic development more than the United States does.
(D) Other countries have agreed to hold their resource consumption at present levels.
(E) The United States has been conserving resources for several years.
15. Alba: I don’t intend to vote for Senator Frank in the next election. She is not a strong supporter of the war against crime.
Tam: But Senator Frank sponsored the latest anticrime law passed by the Senate.
Alba: If Senator Frank sponsored it, it can’t be a very strong anticrime law.
Which of the following identifies the most serious logical flaw in Alba’s reasoning?
(A) The facts she presents do not support her conclusion that Senator Frank is soft on crime.
(B) She assumes without proof that crime is the most important issue in the upcoming election.
(C) She argues in a circle, using an unsupported assertion to dismiss conflicting evidence.
(D) She attacks Senator Frank on personal grounds rather than on he merit as a political leader.
(E) In deciding not to vote for Senator Frank, she fails to consider issues other than crime.
16. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
the most serious flaw in television’s coverage of election campaigns is its tendency to focus on the horse-race side of politics—that is, to concentrate on the question “Who’s winning?” at the expense of substantive coverage of the issues and the candidates’ positions on them. The endless interviews with campaign managers, discussions of campaign strategies, and, especially, the obsession with opinion polls have surrounded elections with the atmosphere of a football game or a prizefight. To reform this situation, a first step might well be______
(A) a shortening of the length of election campaigns to a period of six weeks
(B) a stringent limit on campaign spending
(C) a reduction in the television coverage of opinion polls during election campaigns
(D) the publication and distribution of voter-education literature to inform the public about each candidate’s position on the major issues
(E) a limit on the length and number of political advertisements broadcast on television
17. With Proposition 13, if you bought your house 11 years ago for $75,000, your property tax would be approximately $914 a year (1 percent of $75,000 increased by 2 percent each year for 11 years); and if your neighbor bought an identical house next door to you for $200,000 this year, his tax would be $2,000 (1 percent of $200,000). Without Proposition 13, both you and your neighbor would pay $6,000 a year in property taxes (3 percent of $200,000).
Which of the following is the conclusion for which the author most likely is arguing in the passage above?
(A) Proposition 13 is unconstitutional because it imposes an unequal tax on properties of equal value.
(B) If Proposition 13 is repealed, every homeowner is likely to experience a substantial increase in property taxes.
(C) By preventing inflation from driving up property values, Proposition 13 has saved homeowners thousands of dollars in property taxes.
(D) If Proposition 13 is not repealed, identical properties will continue to be taxed at different rates.
(E) Proposition 13 has benefited some homeowners more than others.
Questions 18-19 are based on the following.
At an enormous research cost, a leading chemical company has developed a manufacturing process for converting wood fibers into a plastic. According to the company, this new plastic can be used for, among other things, the hulls of small sailboats. But what does the company think sailboat hulls used to be made of? Surely the mania for high technology can scarcely go further than this.
18. The author’s opinion of the manufacturing process described in the passage is based primarily on the fact that
(A) plastic is unlikely to be durable enough for high-quality sailboat hulls
(B) the research costs of developing the process outweigh any savings possible from the use of the plastic
(C) a small sailboat is not normally regarded as a high-tech product
(D) hulls for small sailboats can be made from wood without converting it into plastic
(E) many other spheres of human activity are in far greater need of technological research
19. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the author’s conclusion?
(A) The plastic produced by the process is considerably lighter, stronger, and more watertight than wood.
(B) The wood used in producing the plastic is itself in increasingly short supply.
(C) The cost of the manufacturing process of the plastic increases the cost of producing a sailboat hull by 10 to 15 percent.
(D) Much of the cost of the research that developed the new process will be written off for tax purposes by the chemical company.
(E) The development of the new plastic is expected to help make the chemical company an important supplier of boat-building materials.
20. A young man eager to become a master swordsman journeyed to the home of the greatest teacher of swordsmanship in the kingdom. He asked the teacher, “How quickly can you teach me to be a master swordsman?” The old teacher replied, “It will take ten years.” Unsatisfied, the young man asked, “What if I am willing to work night and day, every day of the year?” the teacher replied, “In that case, it will take twenty years.”
The teacher’s main point is that an important quality of a master swordsman is
(A) humility
(B) willingness to work hard
(C) respect for one’s elders
(D) patience
(E) determination

TEST B
Time 30 minutes 20 Questions
1. Below is an excerpt from a letter that was sent by the chairman of a corporation to the stockholders.
A number of charges have been raised against me, some serious, some trivial. Individuals seeking to control the corporation for their own purposes have demanded my resignation. Remember that no court of law in any state has found me guilty of any criminal offense whatsoever. In the American tradition, as you know, an individual is considered innocent until proven guilty. Furthermore, as the corporation’s unbroken six-year record of growth will show, my conduct of my official duties as chairman has only helped enhance the success of the corporation, and so benefited every stockholder.
Which of the following can be properly inferred from the excerpt?
(A) The chairman believes that all those who have demanded his resignation are motivated by desire to control the corporation for their own purposes.
(B) Any misdeeds that the chairman may have committed were motivated by his desire to enhance the success of the corporation.
(C) The chairman is innocent of any criminal offense.
(D) The corporation has expanded steadily over the past six years.
(E) Any legal proceedings against the chairman have resulted in his acquittal.
2. In the years since the city of London imposed strict air-pollution regulations on local industry, the number of bird species seen in and around London has increased dramatically. Similar air-pollution rules should be imposed in other major cities.
Each of the following is an assumption made in the argument above EXCEPT:
(A) In most major cities, air-pollution problems are caused almost entirely by local industry.
(B) Air-pollution regulations on industry have a significant impact on the quality of the air.
(C) The air-pollution problems of other major cities are basically similar to those once suffered by London.
(D) An increase in the number of bird species in and around a city is desirable.
(E) The increased sightings of bird species in and around London reflect an actual increase in the number of species in the area.
3. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
In opposing government regulation of business, conservatives often appeal to the Jeffersonian ideal of limited government, expressing the wish that government would “get off the backs of the American people.” Yet, paradoxically, many of these same conservatives address questions of private morality, such as those dealing with sexual behavior, by calling for______
(A) a return to the restrictive sexual morality of the Victorian era
(B) a strengthening of the role of the family in setting moral norms for society
(C) a limitation on the amount of sexually provocative material appearing in books, motives, and television shows
(D) greater freedom for individuals to choose their own way of handling sexual issues
(E) an increased governmental role in the regulation and control of private sexual behavior
Questions 4-5 are based on the following:
In an experiment, two different types of recorded music were played for neonates in adjacent nurseries in a hospital. In nursery A, classical music was played; in nursery B, rock music was played. After two weeks, it was found that the babies in nursery A cried less, suffered fewer minor ailments, and gained more weight than did the babies in nursery B.
4. In evaluating the validity of the conclusion suggested by the experiment above, it would be most important to know which of the following?
(A) The musical preferences of the parents of the two groups of newborns
(B) Whether the newborns in both nurseries were equally healthy and happy at the start of the experiment
(C) Whether loud rock music can damage the hearing of newborns
(D) What the average weight of the neonates was before and after the experiment
(E) Whether the music was played in the nurseries at all times or only at certain times
5. Which of the following additional experimental data would support the hypothesis that classical music is beneficial to the development of newborn?
(A) The neonates in a nursery where no music was played fared better than those in nursery B.
(B) Nursery A contained 15 percent more premature babies than nursery B.
(C) The newborns in nursery A cried less, suffered fewer minor ailments, and gained more weight than did newborns in a nursery with no music.
(D) The music played in nursery A was louder than that played in nursery B.
(E) The ratio of nurses to newborns in nursery B was 1 to 4; in nursery A, it was 1 to 6.
6. The ancient city of Cephesa was not buried by an eruption of Mt. Amnos in A.D. 310, as some believe. The eruption in the year 310 damaged the city, but it did not destroy it. Cephesa survived for another century before it finally met its destruction in another eruption around A.D. 415.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s claim that the city of Cephesa was not buried by the eruption of Mt. Amnos in A.D. 310?
(A) The city of Cephesa is mentioned in a historical work known to have been written in A.D. 400.
(B) Coins bearing the image of an emperor who lived around A.D. 410 have been discovered in the ruins of Cephesa, which were preserved by the cinders and ashes that buried the city.
(C) Geological evidence shows that the eruption of Mt. Amnos in A.D. 415 deposited a 10-foot-thick layer of lava on the city of Cephesa.
(D) Artworks from the city of Cephesa have been found in the ruins of another city known to have been destroyed in A.D. 420.
(E) A historical work written in A.D. 430 refers to the eruption of Mt. Amnos in A.D. 415.
7. June is taller than Kristin.
Letty is taller than Maria.
Maria is shorter than Nancy.
Kristin and Nancy are exactly the same height.
If the information above is true, which of the following must also be true?
(A) Letty is taller than Nancy.
(B) Letty is taller than June.
(C) Kristin is shorter than Letty.
(D) June is taller than Maria.
(E) Kristin is shorter than Maria.
8. Current farm policy is institutionalized penalization of consumers. It increases food prices for middle- and low-income families and costs the taxpayer billions of dollars a year.
Which of the following statements, if true, would provide support for the author’s claims above?
I. Farm subsidies amount to roughly $20 billion a year in federal payouts and $12 billion more in higher food prices.
II. According to a study by the Department of Agriculture, each $1 of benefits provided to farmers for ethanol production costs consumers and taxpayers $4.
III. The average full-time farmers have an average net worth of over $300,000.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III
9. Reva: Using extraneous incentives to get teenagers to change their attitude toward school and schoolwork won’t work. Take the program in West Virginia, for instance, where they tried to reduce their dropout rate by revoking the driving licenses of kids who left school. The program failed miserably.
Anne: It’s true that the West Virginia program failed, but many schools have devised incentive programs that have been very successful in improving attendance and reducing discipline problems.
According to Anne, the weak point in Reva’s claim is that it
(A) fails to consider the possibility that the majority of potential dropouts in West Virginia do not have driving licenses
(B) doesn’t provide any exact figures for the dropout rate in West Virginia before and during the program
(C) ignores a substantial body of evidence showing that parents and employers have been using extrinsic incentives with positive results for years
(D) assumes that a positive incentive—a prize or a reward—will be no more effective than a negative incentive, like the revoking of a driving license
(E) is based on a single example, the incentive program in West Virginia, which may not be typical
10. In many surveys, American consumers have expressed a willingness to spend up to 10 percent more for products that are ecologically sound. Encouraged by such surveys, Bleach-O Corporation promoted a new laundry detergent, Bleach-O Green, as safer for the environment. Bleach-O Green cost 5 percent more than typical detergents. After one year, Bleach-O Green had failed to capture a significant share of the detergent market and was withdrawn from sale.
Which of the following questions is LEAST likely to be relevant in determining the reasons for the failure of Bleach-O Green?
(A) How effective as a detergent was Bleach-O Green?
(B) How many other detergents on the market were promoted as safe for the environment?
(C) How much more did Bleach-O Green cost to manufacture than ordinary detergents?
(D) To what extent did consumers accept the validity of Bleach-O Green advertised and promoted to consumers?
(E) How effectively was Bleach-O Green advertised and promoted to consumers?
11. The burden of maintaining the U.S. highway system falls disproportionately on the trucking industry. Trucks represent only about 10 percent of the vehicles on U.S. roads. Yet road use taxes assessed on trucks amount to almost half the taxes paid for highway upkeep and repair.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
(A) The trucking industry has enjoyed record after-tax profits in three of the past four years.
(B) Because of their weight, trucks cause over 50 percent of the damage sustained by highway surfaces each year.
(C) Without an economically viable trucking industry, the cost of goods in the United States would rise significantly.
(D) Road use taxes paid by trucking companies have decreased by 3 percent over the past five years.
(E) Due to years of neglect, U.S. highways today are badly in need of major repairs and rebuilding.
12. The upcoming presidential election in the West African republic of Ganelon is of grave concern to the U.S. State Department. Ganelon presently has strong political and military ties to the United States. However, the Socialist party is widely expected to win the election, leading to fears that Ganelon will soon break away from the pro-American bloc and adopt a nonaligned or openly anti-American stance.
Which of the following is an assumption made in the passage above?
(A) A Socialist party government in Ganelon is more likely to oppose the United States than is a non-Socialist party government.
(B) The people of the United States recognize their nation’s interest in the political stability of West Africa.
(C) A weakening of U.S. political ties with Ganelon could have serious consequences for U.S. relations with other African nations.
(D) The Socialist party leaders in Ganelon believe that their nation’s interests would best be served by an alliance with anti-American forces.
(E) The Socialist party will win the upcoming election in Ganelon.
13. No nation can long survive unless its people are united by a common tongue. For proof, we need only consider Canada, which is being torn asunder by conflicts between French-speaking Quebec and the other provinces, which are dominated by English speakers.
Which of the following, if true, most effectively challenges the author’s conclusion?
(A) Conflicts over language have led to violent clashes between the Basque-speaking minority in Spain and the Spanish-speaking majority.
(B) Proposals to declare English the official language of the United States have met with resistance from members of Hispanic and other minority groups.
(C) Economic and political differences, along with linguistic ones, have contributed to the provincial conflicts in Canada.
(D) The public of India, in existence sine 1948, has a population that speaks hundreds of different, though related, languages.
(E) Switzerland has survived for nearly a thousand years as a home for speakers of three different languages.
14. As an experienced labor organizer and the former head of one of the nation’s most powerful labor unions, Grayson is an excellent choice to chair the new council on business-labor relations.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?
(A) The new council must have the support of the nation’s labor leaders if it is to succeed.
(B) During his years as a labor leader, Grayson established a record of good relations with business leaders.
(C) The chair of the new council must be a person who can communicate directly with the leaders of the nation’s largest labor unions.
(D) Most of the other members of the new council will be representatives of business management interests.
(E) An understanding of the needs and problems of labor is the only qualification necessary for the job of chairing the new council.
15. In the effort to fire a Civil Service employee, his or her manager may have to spend up to $100,000 of tax money. Since Civil Service employees know how hard it is to fire them, they tend to loaf. This explains in large part why the government is so inefficient.
It can be properly inferred on the basis of the statements above that the author believes which of the following?
I. Too much job security can have a negative influence on workers.
II. More government workers should be fired.
III. Most government workers are Civil Service employees.
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II only
(D) I, II, and III
(E) III only
16. Some commentators complain that a “litigation explosion” in the past decade has led to unreasonably high costs for U.S. businesses by encouraging more product liability suits against manufacturers. However, these complaints are based mainly on myth. Statistics show that the number of successful product liability suits has remained almost the same, and the average sum awarded in damages has grown no faster than the inflation rate.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
(A) The number of unsuccessful suits has skyrocketed, imposing huge new legal expenses on businesses.
(B) Several of the largest awards ever made in product liability cases occurred within the last two years.
(C) The rise of the consumer movement has encouraged citizens to seek legal redress for product flaws.
(D) Lawyers often undertake product liability cases on a contingency basis, so their payment is based on the size of the damages awarded.
(E) Juries often award damages in product liability suits out of emotional sympathy for an injured consumer.
17. Ronald: According to my analysis of the national economy, housing prices should not increase during the next six months unless interest rates drop significantly.
Mark: I disagree. One year ago, when interest rates last fell significantly, housing prices did not increase at all.
It can be inferred from the conversation above that Mark has interpreted Ronald’s statement to mean that
(A) housing prices will rise only if interest rates fall
(B) if interest rates fall, housing prices must rise
(C) interest rates and housing prices tend to rise and fall together
(D) interest rates are the only significant economic factor affecting housing prices
(E) interest rates are likely to fall significantly in the next six months
18. It’s time we stopped searching for new statistics to suggest that we are not spending enough on education. In fact, education spending increased 30 percent overall during the last decade.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
(A) Despite increased spending on education, enrollment in our elementary and secondary schools declined about 4 percent during the last ten years.
(B) Our spending on gasoline increased more than 100 percent during the last decade.
(C) When adjusted for inflation, our per-pupil expenditure on education this year is less than it was ten years ago.
(D) Eleven other economically developed nations spend more on education than we do.
(E) The achievement levels of our students have been declining steadily since 1960, and the last decade produced no reversal in this trend.
19. The U.S. census is not perfect: thousands of Americans probably go uncounted. However, the basic statistical portrait of the nation painted by the census is accurate. Certainly some of the poor go uncounted, particularly the homeless; but some of the rich go uncounted as well, because they are often abroad or traveling between one residence and another.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above depends?
(A) Both the rich and the poor have personal and economic reasons to avoid being counted by the census.
(B) All Americans may reasonably be classified as either poor or rich.
(C) The percentage of poor Americans uncounted by the census is close to the percentage of rich Americans uncounted.
(D) The number of homeless Americans is approximately equal to the number of rich Americans.
(E) The primary purpose of the census is to analyze the economic status of the American population.
20. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
In today’s pluralistic society, textbook publishers find themselves in an increasingly uncomfortable position. Since the schools are regarded as a repository of society’s moral and cultural values, each group within society wishes to prevent any material that offends its own values from appearing in textbooks. As a result, stance on an issue is certain to run afoul of one group or another. And since textbook publishers must rely on community goodwill to sell their books, it is inevitable that______
(A) fewer and fewer publishers will be willing to enter the financially uncertain textbook industry
(B) the ethical and moral content of textbooks will become increasingly neutral and bland
(C) more and more pressure groups will arise that seek to influence the content of textbooks
(D) the government will be forced to intervene in the increasingly rancorous debate over the content of textbooks
(E) school boards, teachers, and principals will find it nearly impossible to choose among the variety of textbooks being offered
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Last edited by Vinodt; February 12th, 2014 at 11:34 AM.
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Old February 21st, 2014, 11:05 AM
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Default Re: LSAT CR questions

As you are looking for the Critical Reasoning Questions of Law School Admission Test , here I am providing the list of few questions for your idea.

1.One of the truisms of the advertising industry is that it is rarely necessary to say something
of substance in an advertisement in order to boost sales. Instead, one only needs to attract the
potential customer’s attention; memory does the rest, for it is more important for sales that
people know of a product than that they know something about it.
Which of the following is assumed by the argument?
A. People can remember a product without having much information about it.
B. Advertisements, in their own way, function to improve people’s memories.
C. Attracting a potential customer’s attention is a simple matter.
D. The advertising industry knows little of substance about the products it promotes.
E. Advertisements seldom tell the truth about a product.

Explanation:
The passage discusses how advertising usually need only draw people’s attention to a
product and need not provide any substance for people to remember the product. Thus, the
passage implies that people can remember a product without having much information about
it, and A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. The passage suggests that if advertisements draw people’s attention to a
product, the people are more apt to remember the product. The advertisement is not said to
improve people’s memories, only to draw people’s attention so they will use their existing
memories.
C is also incorrect. The passage says that all one usually needs to do is attract a potential
customer’s attention. It does not say how easy or difficult that is.
The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage says that it is rarely necessary to say
something of substance in an advertisement but does not suggest that the advertising industry
knows little of substance about the product.
The last answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that advertisements make
false claims about products.

2.Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be
little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the
issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances
have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in
advance. Consider the impact of rubber-producing plants on contemporary life and industry:
approximately two-thirds of the world’s rubber supply comes from rubber producing plants and
is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots.
The point of the passage is made chiefly by
A. acknowledging the validity of two opposing points of view
B. appealing to the emotions of the audience rather than to their intellects
C. suggesting a useful perspective for viewing the question raised at the beginning of the
passage
D. trying to discredit the view of an opponent without presenting an alternative hypothesis

E. generalizing from similar to dissimilar cases.
Explanation:
The passage suggests that considering the possibility of extinction with an eye toward the
possible utility of a previously unvalued species will lead to a different answer to the question
than considering the possibility of extinction from a more general perspective. C describes the
author’s procedure of suggesting a new perspective and is thus the correct answer.
The first choice is incorrect. The author argues that it is important to preserve endangered
species without endorsing any opposing point of view. The view attributed to the general
public is not accepted; rather, an argument is given to show what that view misses. B is
incorrect. The author uses an approach that is primarily factual, and does not seek to arouse
the emotions of its audience. D is also incorrect. The author tries to undermine an opposing
position by presenting an alternative to it. The last answer choice is incorrect. The
generalization about the potential value of life forms whose value was not perceived in
advance is supported by an example of a similar case, namely that of rubber plants.

3.Only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law that
would protect the environment from industrial interests. Ellen cannot be a member of the
Regionalist party because she supports the bill.
Which of the following statements points out why the conclusion is invalidly drawn?
A. Regionalist party members have organized to oppose industrial interests on several other
issues.
B. Industrial interests need not oppose the protection of the environment.
C. Past attempts to protect the environment through recycling laws have failed.
D. It is possible that some Regionalist party members may not oppose the bill for a new
recycling law.
E. Ellen has attended programs and distributed literature prepared by the Regionalist party.

Explanation:
The fact that only a member of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill does not imply that
all members of the Regionalist party would oppose the bill. Based on the initial statement,
Ellen may or may not be a member of the Regionalist party if she supports the bill. For the
conclusion to be valid, the initial statement would have to read, “All members of the
Regionalist party would oppose the bill for a new recycling law…” Thus, the choice of D makes
the relevant logical point.
The first three answer choices are incorrect. Each presents at best a piece of background
information without being specifically related to the question of whether all Regionalist party
members would oppose the bill. The last answer choice is also incorrect. Ellen’s attending
programs and distributing literature prepared by the Regionalist party might appear to make it
likely that the conclusion is false. But suggesting that the conclusion might be false does not
help show why the conclusion is invalidly drawn.

4.Roberta was born in 1967, and so in 1976 she was nine years old. It is clear from this
example that the last two digits of a person’s birth year will be the same as the last two digits

of the year of that person’s ninth birthday, except that the position of the digits will be
reversed.
Which of the following is the best criticism of the assertions made?
A. The generalization is valid only for those birth years that do not end in two zeroes.
B. The example does not exhibit the same principle as is expressed in the generalization
based on it.
C. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is one greater
than the second-to-last digit.
D. The example cannot be shown to be correct unless the truth of the generalization is already
presupposed.
E. The generalization is valid only for those birth years in which the last digit is greater than
five.

Explanation:
The generalization is only true for some birth years. A good criticism of the generalization
would show when the generalization is not true. C does just that and thus is the correct
answer.
A is incorrect. It is false that the generalization holds for all years that do not end in two zeros.
For example, 1970 is a birth year that does not end in two zeros. However, 1970 plus nine
equals 1979, and hence this is a case for which the generalization is not valid. Since this
answer choice is false, it cannot be a good criticism of the assertions.
The second answer choice is also incorrect. In the example, the last two digits of the person’s
birth year-67-are the same as the last two digits of the year of the person’s ninth
birthday-76-except reversed. Thus, the example does in fact exhibit the same principle as the
generalization.
The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The difference between 1976 and 1967 is nine. The
correctness of the first statement depends only on this fact and the fact that Roberta was born
in 1967 and was still alive in 1976. Thus, the truth of the generalization is not presupposed.
The last answer choice is also incorrect. Consider birth year 1923. a person born in 1923
would have been nine in 1932 and the generalization holds. So E is false.

5.The greatest chance for the existence of extraterrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar
system. The Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other suns, many of which could be
accompanied by planets similar enough to Earth to make them suitable abodes of life.
The statement presupposes which of the following?
A. Living creatures on another planet would probably have the same appearance as those on
Earth.
B. Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system.
C. If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an inevitable consequence.
D. More than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied by an Earth-like planet.
E. It is likely that life on another planet would require conditions similar to those on Earth.
Explanation:

In stating that planets may exist that are similar enough to Earth to make them suitable for
supporting life, the author implicitly rules out planets dissimilar to Earth as likely to support life.
The assumption underlying the statement is that life on another planet is likely to require
conditions similar to those on Earth. Therefore, E is the correct answer.
A is not correct. The statement presupposes nothing about the appearance of extraterrestrial
life. B is incorrect. The statement implies that it is relatively unlikely that life exists on other
planets in our solar system, but it makes no presupposition absolutely ruling out the possibility
that such life exists. The answer choice of C is incorrect. Although the statement suggests that
there is the greatest chance for life when physical conditions are appropriate, it leaves open
the possibility that no life will exist even with appropriate conditions. D is also incorrect. The
statement says that it is possible that more than one of the suns in the galaxy is accompanied
by an Earth-like planet, but it does not presuppose that there are actually any such suns.

6.The state with the greatest fraction of its population in urban areas, if the urban areas are
considered to include the suburbs, is California. The West is highly urbanized, but California is
exceptional even in that region: 91 percent of its population lives in urban areas.
Geographically, however, California is rural: 96 percent of its land is outside urban areas.
If all of the statements are true, which of the following is best supported on the basis of them?
A. No state has a smaller fraction of its population in rural areas than California has.
B. The current rate of population growth in California’s urban areas exceeds that current rate
of population growth in California’s rural areas.
C. In California 96 percent of the population lives on 9 percent of the land.
D. No state has a smaller area devoted to urban settlement than California has.
E. California’s population density is among the highest of all states in the United States.

Explanation:
The passage states that of all the states, California has the greatest fraction of its population
(91 out of 100) living in urban areas. That means only 9 out of every 100 California residents
live in rural areas. The greatest fraction of any other states’ population living in urban areas, to
be smaller than California’s fraction, must be 90 or fewer out of every 100. That means that, in
every other state, 10 or more out of every 100 residents live in rural areas. Since 9 out of
every 100 is smaller than 10 or more out of every 100, so A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. In order to decide whether this statement is true, it is necessary to know about
rates of population growth. No such information is provided in the passage. The third answer
choice is also incorrect. Since 96 percent of the land is outside urban areas, 4 percent is
inside urban areas. Thus, 91 percent of the population lives on 4 percent of the land. The
fourth answer choice is incorrect. The passage does not provide enough information to
determine whether this statement is true or false. No comparison is made between the amount
of land area in California devoted to urban settlement and the amount of land area in other
states devoted to urban settlement. E is incorrect. The passage does not provide sufficient
information to determine whether this statement is true or false. Information on the actual size
of the population as compared to total land area of California and other states would be
necessary to make a judgment about population density in these states.

7.A ten-year comparison between the countries of Arudia and Cazonia in terms of crop yields
per acre revealed that when only planted acreae is compared, Cazonian yields are equal to 68
percent of Arudian yields. When total agricultural acreage (planted acreage plus fallow
acreage) is compared, however, Cazonia’s yield is 114 percent of Arudia’s yield.
From the information above, which of the following can be most reliably inferred about Arudian
and Cazonian agriculture during the ten-year period?
A. A higher percentage of total agricultural acreage was fallow in Arudia than in Cazonia.
B. Arudia had more fallow acreage than planted acreage.
C. Fewer total acres of available agricultural land were fallow in Cazonia than in Arudia.
D. Cazonia had more planted acreage than fallow acreage.
E. Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced.

Explanation:
If crop yield per planted acre was less in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, yet crop yield per total
(planted plus fallow) agricultural acreage was greater in Cazonia than it was in Arudia, there
must have been a lower percentage of the total acreage that was left fallow in Cazonia than
there was in Arudia. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
B is incorrect. From the information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Arudia had
more or less fallow acreage than planted acreage. C is not correct. Since the comparisons
made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether there
was more or less fallow acreage in Cazonia than in Arudia. D is also incorrect. From the
information in the passage, it is impossible to tell whether Cazonia had more or less planted
acreage than fallow acreage. The last answer choice is incorrect. Since the comparisons
made in the passage are based on crop yields per acre, it is impossible to tell whether
Cazonia produced a greater volume of crops than Arudia produced.

8.In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of farmers continued to increase,
but at a rate lower than that of the general population.
Which of the following statements directly contradicts the information presented above?
A. The number of farmers in the general population increased slightly in the thirty years
between 1850 and 1880.
B. The rate of growth of the United States labor force and the rate of growth of the general
population rose simultaneously in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
C. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force remained constant in the thirty
years between 1850 and 1880.
D. The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force decreased from 64 percent in
1850 to 49 percent in 1880.
E. The proportion of farmers in the general population increased from 68 percent in 1850 to 72
percent in 1880.

Explanation:
The passage indicates that the proportion of farmers in the general population decreased from
1850 to 1880. the fifth answer choice says exactly the opposite-that this proportion increased;
therefore, it contradicts the passage and is the correct response.

A is incorrect. The passage also indicates that the number of farmers increased between 1850
and 1880, and thus agrees with this choice. B is also incorrect. The passage does not tell us
about the rate of growth of the labor force. It can be inferred from the passage that the general
population grew, but this choice agrees with, rather than contradicts, this conclusion. The
choice of C is not the correct answer. We cannot draw any conclusions about the proportion of
farmers in the labor force from the passage alone. The fourth is also incorrect. We cannot
draw any conclusions about the proportion of farmers in the labor force from the passage
alone.

9.The 38 corporations that filed United States income tax returns showing a net income of
more than $ 100 million accounted for 53 percent of the total taxable income from foreign
sources reported on all tax returns. Sixty percent of the total taxable income from foreign
sources came from the 200 returns reporting income from 10 or more countries.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
A. Most of the total taxable income earned by corporations with net income above $ 100
million was earned from foreign sources.
B. Wealthy individuals with large personal incomes reported 47 percent of the total taxable
income from foreign sources.
C. Income from foreign sources amounted to between 53 and 60 percent of all reported
taxable income.
D. Some of the corporations with net income above $ 100 million reported income from 10 or
more countries.
E. Most of the tax returns showing income from 10 or more countries reported net income of
more than $ 100 million.

Explanation:
If 38 tax returns in one category account for 53 percent of the total taxable income from
foreign sources, and if 200 tax returns in another category account for 60 percent of the same
amount, then the two categories must overlap to some extent. Only if the two percentages,
added together, amounted to 100 percent or less is there not necessarily any overlap. Here,
the two percentages add up to 113 percent. The answer choice that expresses an overlap
between the category of corporations with a net income of above $ 100 million and that of
corporations with income from 10 or more countries is D, which is thus the correct answer.
A is not correct. Whereas corporations with net incomes of above $ 100 million account for
more than half of the total taxable income from foreign sources, we cannot tell from the
information given what proportion of their own total incomes from all sources is derived from
incomes from foreign sources. The second answer choice is incorrect. All we can infer is that

47 percent was reported by taxpayers other than corporations with net incomes above $ 100
million. These taxpayers could be other corporations with somewhat lower incomes. C is not
the correct answer choice. The figures of 53 and 60 percent refer to percentages of total
taxable income from foreign sources. Neither these nor any other figures in the passage refer
to or imply any percentages of all reported taxable income. E, the last choice, is also incorrect.
Since there are only 38 corporations with reported net incomes of more than $ 100 million, but

200 taxpayers with income from 10 or more countries, at the very most somewhat less than 20
percent of those 200 taxpayers could report net incomes of more than $ 100 million.
10.The greater the division of labor in an economy, the greater the need for coordination. This
is because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers, which
results in a greater burden on managers and, potentially, in a greater number of disruptions of
supply and production. There is always more division of labor in market economies than in
planned economies.
If all of the statements given are true, the which of the following must also be true?
A. Disruptions of supply and production are more frequent in planned economies than in
market economies.
B. There are more specialized producers in planned economies than in market economies.
C. The need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies.
D. A manager’s task is easier in a market economy than in a planned economy.
E. Division of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned
economies.

Explanation:
C is the correct answer. If, as the first statement claims, greater division of labor entails a
greater need for coordination and if, as the second statement claims, there is always more
division of labor in market economies than in planned economies, then it must be true that the
need for coordination in market economies is greater than in planned economies.
The first choice is incorrect. If the statements are true, then it is possible, and even expected,
that disruptions of supply and production are NOT more frequent in planned economies than
in market economies. The statements suggest that since there is always more division of labor
in market economies than in planned economies, there is potentially a greater number of
disruptions in market economies than in planned economies. B is not correct. One would
expect there to be fewer, not more, specialized producers in planned economies than in
market economies, other things being equal. This is because, according to the statements,
there is always more division of labor in market economies than in planned economies and
because increased division of labor entails a larger number of specialized producers. The
fourth answer choice is incorrect. The statement lead to the conclusion that a manager’s task
would be harder, not easier, in a market economy than in a planned economy. This is because
the increased division of labor that exists in a market economy entails a larger number of
specialized producers. The last answer choice, E is also incorrect. The statement that division
of labor functions more effectively in market economies than in planned economies does not
follow from the statements given. The statements imply that such effectiveness is dependent
on the amount of coordination available, but no information concerning that amount is given.

11.Therapists find that treatment of those people who seek help because they are unable to
stop smoking or overeating is rarely successful. From these experiences, therapists have
concluded that such habits are intractable, and success in breaking them is rare.
As surveys show, millions of people have dropped the habit of smoking, and many people
have successfully managed a substantial weight loss.
8
If all of the statements are correct, an Explanation of their apparent contradiction is provided
by the hypothesis that
A. there have been some successes in therapy, and those successes were counted in the
surveys
B. it is easier to stop smoking than it is to stop overeating
C. it is easy to break the habits of smoking and overeating by exercising willpower
D. the group of people selected for the survey did not include those who failed to break their
habits even after therapy
E. those who succeed in curing themselves do not go for treatment and so are not included in
the therapists’ data

Explanation:
If, as this choice suggests, the very people who would lead the therapists to view such habits
as more tractable do not come for treatment, it is quite understandable why therapists persist
in their pessimistic view. At the same time, E is consistent with the survey results. Therefore,
the last choice is the correct answer.
A is incorrect. Even assuming that this choice is true, no light is shed on why successes
should be so rare in therapy, and yet, if the surveys are to be believed, so common overall. B
is also incorrect. Since the comparative strength of habits is not an issue in the therapists’
findings or the surveys, it cannot have anything to do with the apparent contradiction;
consequently, information about it cannot help resolve that contradiction. C is also not the
correct answer choice. If C were true, the survey results would appear rather unremarkable,
but the therapists’ findings would be baffling. The apparent contradiction would not be
diminished but underscored. The fourth answer choice is incorrect. The survey results as
reported focus on the numbers of people who have successfully fought a habit, not on the
proportion of those who tried to break their habits who succeeded. This answer choice
pertains only to the latter and so is essentially irrelevant.

12.“On the whole,” Ms. Dennis remarked, “engineering students are lazier now than they used
to be. I know because fewer and fewer of my students regularly do the work they are
assigned.”
Which of the following identifies a flaw in Ms. Dennis’ reasoning?
A. Plenty of people besides engineering students do not work as hard as they should.
B. Ms. Dennis does not consider the excuses her students may have for being lazy.
C. The argument does not propose any constructive solutions to the problem it identifies.
D. The argument assumes that Ms. Dennis’ students are representative of engineering
students in general.
E. Ms. Dennis does not seem sympathetic to the problems of her students.

Explanation:
Since the constantly decreasing work output of Ms. Dennis’ students could stem from causes
specific to those students, Ms. Dennis is not logically justified in extending her judgment about
her own students to engineering students in general. D is a concise statement of the logically

flawed assumption Ms. Dennis must be making in so extending her judgment. Thus, this
answer choice is the correct answer.
A is incorrect. Whether or not other groups resemble engineering students has no bearing on
whether or not certain conclusions about engineering students follow logically from certain
observations about some engineering students. Thus, Ms. Dennis’ lack of attention to people
who are not engineering students is not a flaw in her reasoning. B is also incorrect. Any
excuses offered for laziness do not alter it, though they might help us understand it. Ms.
Dennis is only concerned with establishing that the laziness of engineering students is a fact;
she does not inquire into possible explanations. It is not a flaw of her reasoning as it stands
that it addresses the particular concerns it addresses. C is not the correct answer choice. Ms.
Dennis’ reasoning is involved in reaching a conclusion on the basis of certain evidence. It
does not go beyond that. This choice concerns itself with matters beyond the ones Ms. Dennis
reasons about, and thus cannot be considered a flaw in her reasoning. The last answer choice
is also incorrect. The logical merits or flaws of an argument are independent of the emotional
attitudes of the person making the argument. Since this choice describes an emotional
attitude, it cannot identify a reasoning flaw.

13.The overall operating costs of many small farms are reduced when the farmers of small
farms eliminate expensive commercial chemical fertilizers and pesticides in favor of crop
rotation and the twice-yearly use of manure as fertilizer. Therefore, farmers of large farms
should adopt the same measures. They will then realize even greater total savings than do the
small farmers.
The argument assumes that
A. it is more cost-effective for small farm farmers to eliminate the use of commercial fertilizers
and pesticides than it is for large farm farmers to do so
B. a sufficient amount of manure will be available for the fields of large farm farmers
C. large farm farmers would not realize similar cost benefits by using treated sewage sludge
instead of commercial chemical fertilizers
D. large farm farmers generally look to small farm farmers for innovative ways of increasing
crop yields or reducing operating costs
E. the smaller the farm, the more control the farmer has over operating costs

Explanation:
B is the correct answer choice.
It would be impossible to argue reasonably that large farmers should use manure as fertilizer
because they would realize even greater savings than the small farmers without also
assuming that there is a sufficient amount of manure available for the fields of large farmers.
A is not the correct answer choice.
The argument implies that it would be more cost effective for large farmers to eliminate
commercial fertilizers and pesticides than it would be for small farmers to do so. The third
answer is incorrect. No statements are made in the argument concerning treated sewage
sludge and no assumption is made about it. D is not the correct answer choice. This statement
is not assumed because if it were false—if large farmers seldom or never looked to small
farmers for innovative ways of increasing crop yields or reducing operating costs—this would

not affect anything relevant to the argument about the total savings that large farmers might
gain by adopting new farming practices. E is also not the correct answer choice. It may well be
true that the smaller the farm, the more control the farmer has over operating costs. However,
with respect to control, the argument only that large farmers have enough control over their
farming methods to adopt the recommended measures.

14.Factory workers in Beltania are guaranteed lifetime jobs, bonuses paid on the basis of
productivity and corporate profits, and a wage rate that is not attached to a particular job.
Paradoxically, these guarantees do not discourage factory owners from introducing
labor-saving machinery. Such innovations are to the factory owners’ advantage despite the
fact that the owners must protect the wages of their workers.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the introduction of labor-saving
machinery is advantageous to factory owners?
A. Before a Beltanian Factory worker is hired, he or she must present a record of his or her
previous productivity.
B. Labor-saving machinery increases productivity, thus yielding profits that more than cover
the cost of retraining workers for other jobs.
C. The purchase and maintenance of new machinery adds significantly to the final cost of the
goods produced.
D. Factory workers demand a change of procedure in the routine tasks they perform.
E. Limited competition exists among Beltanian factories for consumer markets.

Explanation:
If the second answer choice is true, introducing labor-saving machinery results in additional
profits even if it also requires the retraining of workers. Hence, this answer choice
demonstrates the advantages to the factory owners of labor-saving machinery. Thus, B is the
correct answer.
The first answer choice is incorrect. Productivity in a previous job may relate to productivity in
the job for which a worker is hired. However, if the worker’s job is eliminated by new
machinery, the factory owner loses the advantage of having been able to select a highly
productive worker for that job. There is no indication in this answer choice of what advantage,
if any, the owner gains. C is incorrect. Since increased costs, other things being equal, mean
decreased profits, this answer choice suggests the change is disadvantageous to the factory
owners. D is also incorrect. Changes of procedure may result for those employees whose jobs
are eliminated by the introduction of machinery, but would not necessarily result for a
substantial number of factory workers. The owners have an advantage only if a substantial
number of workers have been satisfied. Thus, this fourth answer choice cannot explain why
the change is advantageous. The last answer choice is incorrect. Limited competition might
imply that the factory owners will be able to sell their products, even if the price must be raised
to cover new machinery as well as wage
s. Although this does not harm the factory owners, it
does not suggest an advantage either.

15.During the day in Lake Constance, the zooplankton D. hyaline departs for the depths
where food is scarce and the water cold. D. galeata remains near the warm surface where

food is abundant. Even though D. galeata grows and reproduces much faster, its population is
often outnumbered by D. hyaline.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox?
A. The number of species of zooplankton living at the bottom of the lake is twice that of
species living at the surface.
B. Predators of zooplankton, such as whitefish and perch, live and feed near the surface of the
lake during the day.
C. In order to make the most of scarce food resources, D.hyaline matures more slowly than D.
galeata.
D. galeata clusters under vegetation during the hottest part of the day to avoid the Sun’s rays.
E. galeata produces twice as many offspring per individual in any given period of time as does
D. hyaline.

Explanation:
The presence of predators of zooplankton, feeding near the surface during the day, would
suggest that D. galeata is consumed at a higher rate than D. hyaline.
Therefore, if this choice were true, it would help resolve the apparent paradox that D. galeata
grows and reproduces faster than D. hyaline, yet D. hyalian has the greater population.
A is incorrect. Nothing is said in the paragraph to show the relevance of the presence of other
species of zooplankton to the relative population size of the two species. C is not correct. This
information explains the slower growth and reproduction of D. hyaline, which is one aspect of
the paradox; but it does nothing to show how D. hyaline can grow and reproduce more slowly
and yet have the greater population. D is incorrect. Nothing is said in the paragraph to show
the relevance to the paradox of D. galeata’s clustering under vegetation. E is also incorrect.
More information on the faster reproduction of D. galeata does not show how, despite faster
growth and reproduction, D. galeata has the lesser population.

16.A study attitudes toward prime-time television programs showed that programs with
identical rating sin terms of number of people watching received highly divergent marks for
quality from their viewers. This additional piece of information could prove valuable for
advertisers, who might be well advised to spend their advertising dollars for programs that
viewers feel are of high quality.
Which of the following, if true, supports the claim that information about viewers’ perceptions
of the quality of television programs could be valuable to advertisers?
A. The number of programs judged to be of high quality constituted a high percentage of the
total number of programs judged.
B. Many of the programs judged to be of high quality were shown on noncommercial
networks.
C. Television viewers more frequently remember the sponsors of programs they admire than
the sponsors of programs they judge mediocre.
D. Television viewers tend to watch new programs only when those programs follow old,
familiar programs.
E. Television viewers report that the quality of a television advertisement has little effect on
their buying habits.

Explanation:
C is the correct answer, because advertisers are interested in having their products
remembered favorably. By linking viewer perception of program quality with this goal, this
choice gives advertisers a reason to care about the quality of programs they sponsor.
A is incorrect. That a large portion of programs are judged to be of high quality does not
bolster the conclusion that information about viewer perception of program quality will be
useful to advertisers. Rather, if a large portion of programs are judged to be of high quality, an
advertiser may feel relatively safe in looking only at the ratings. B is incorrect. Programs on
noncommercial networks cannot contain ads. Information as to their quality will not help
advertisers place ads with programs judged to be of high quality. D is incorrect. This answer
makes no mention of either program quality or viewer buying habits and thus neither
strengthens nor weakens the connection between the two. The idea expressed in the answer
thus has nothing to do with the importance of program quality to advertisers. The last answer
choice is also incorrect. This answer connects the perception of the quality of advertisements
to buying habits. It does not determine a connection between perception of the quality of
programs and buying habits and thus is irrelevant to any interest advertisers may have in
program quality.

17.Each year, fires in the United States cause $ 12 billion in property losses, insurance costs,
fire-fighting expenses, and loss of worker productivity. These fire losses are seven times those
in Japan on a per capita basis.
Which of the following, if true, would be LEAST likely to be a factor contributing to the
difference between fire losses in Japan and those in the United States?
A. Significantly more money per capita is spent each year on fire-prevention efforts in the
United States than is spent on such efforts in Japan.
B. The rate of arson, a major contributor to fire statistics in the United States, is almost
negligible in Japan.
C. Most Japanese homes, unlike those in the United States, are equipped with specially
designed and effective fire-extinguishing equipment.
D. Foam-based and plastic furniture, less popular in Japan than in the United States, ignites
readily and releases twice the heat energy of equivalent weights of natural fibers.
E. Japanese fire departments devote proportionately more personnel time to inspection,
training, and public education than do United States fire departments.

Explanation:
The fact that more money per capita is spent on fire-prevention in the United States than in
Japan would be a factor likely to contribute to greater fire loss in Japan than in the United
States. Therefore, this factor would be very unlikely to contribute to lesser fire loss in Japan,
and A is the correct answer.
B is incorrect. A greater incidence of arson in the United States would indeed be likely to
contribute to greater fire loss in the United States. C is also incorrect. More effective fire
extinguishing equipment in more Japanese homes would indeed be likely to contribute to
lesser fire loss in Japan. D is incorrect. The greater popularity of foam based and plastic

furniture in the United States would indeed be likely to be a factor contributing to greater fire
loss in the United States, since such furniture is a greater fire hazard than furniture of natural
fibers. E is also incorrect. Greater attention to prevention and training by Japanese fire
departments would indeed be likely to contribute to lesser fire loss in Japan.

18.Some would have you believe that the economic problems of Western Europe in the 1980s
were caused by the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) oil cartel. This is
nonsense. After all, Great Britain was not dependent on OPEC oil and yet Great Britain
suffered from the same economic problems that afflicted France and West Germany.
The author’s point is made primarily by
A. offering Great Britain as a counterexample
B. analyzing the economic difficulties of France and West Germany
C. pointing out a misconception in reasoning
D. proposing an alternative Explanation
E. drawing an analogy between France and West Germany

For more questions , here i am giving attachment
Attached Files Available for Download
File Type: pdf LSAT Critical Reasoning Questions.pdf (110.2 KB, 22 views)
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