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#1
 Swati Sharma1 Guest ECIL model papers

I want model test papers for ECIL GET for Mechanical Engineers? Please provide me any website or link from where I can download the papers without any charges.
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#2
 devhills Guest ECIL model papers get

I want ECIL GET model question papers for preparation. So please give me the papers or provide me such any website from where I can download the papers free of cost.
#3 Super Moderator Join Date: Jun 2011 Re: ECIL model papers

Here I am giving you question paper for placement examination organizes by Electronics Corporation of India Limited ..

Some content is given below :
ECIL Paper:

1. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-

1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)

2. Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include- 1&3
Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-

1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4

3. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is

a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second

4. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.

a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142

6. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –

a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

7. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-

a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal( placementpapers.fresherjobs4u.com)
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

8. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-

a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

9. Case grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to

a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

10. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-

a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

11. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-

a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above

12. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are -

a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

13. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –

a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

14. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because -

a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off

15. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-

a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling

16. A superconductor is a –

a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance(placementpapers.fresherjobs4u.com)
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

17. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –

a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF

18. The Q of a radio coil –

a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

19. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –

a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75

20. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –

a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

21. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –

a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

22. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –

a.) Class ’A’
b.) Class ’b’
c.) Class ’C’
d.) None

23. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –

a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero

Electronics Corporation of India Limited paper

1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41

2. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C

3. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K

4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature

5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)

6. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K

7. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2

8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)

9. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhausttemperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)

10. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm

11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine

12. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)

13. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1

14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?

15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)………

16. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11

17. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air

18. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical

19. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m

20. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. =centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2

22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below
the centre of buoyancy.

23. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH

24. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6

25. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the centre.

26. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m

27. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.

28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2

29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2

30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450

31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.

32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21

33. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5×105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.

34. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR

35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends.
The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8.

36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2

37. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B

38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.

39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.

40. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.

41. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.

42. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.

43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.

44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.

45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.

46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.

47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel

48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron

49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm

50. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM

51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.

52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.

53. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.

54. PERT is: = event oriented technique

55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.

56. ? on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone

57. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.

58. Seamless tubes are made by?

59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.

60. Why DC current is not used in transformer?

61. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.

62. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?

63. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?
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