CET Papers Download - 2017-2018 StudyChaCha

Go Back   2017-2018 StudyChaCha > StudyChaCha Discussion Forum > Career and Jobs




  #1  
Old April 17th, 2013, 11:17 AM
Vikash12
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default CET Papers Download

Well you please provide me the Karnataka Common Entrance Test question paper?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #2  
Old April 17th, 2013, 06:46 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Dec 2011
Posts: 40,525
Default Re: CET Papers Download

You are looking for the Karnataka Common Entrance Test question paper, here i am providing:

Biology:

1. Cell theory was proposed by
1. Schleiden and Schwann
2. Robert hooke
3. Leeuwenhock
4. Brown
2. Scientists name plants and animals in latin to
1. Claim superiority over common name
2. Achieve international infirmity
3. Prevent common man from understanding
4. Make the name difficult
3. Transpiration in plants will be most rapid when
1. Atmosphere is saturated with water vapour
2. Excess of water is in the soil
3. The environmental conditions are dry
4. The environment is cool and humid
4. Dioxyribose is found in
1. RNA 2. DNA 3. ATP 4. ADP
5. The edible part of jack fruit is
1. Fleshy perianth
2. Inflorescence axis
3. Mesocarp
4. None of these
6. Pith is well developed in
1. Monocot root
2. Monocot stem
3. Dicot root
4. Seeds
7. Thallophyta includes
1. Algae and fungi
2. Fungi and ferns
3. Algae and ferns
4. Only algae
8. Epiphyllous buds mean those buds which grow
1. On the internode of the leaves
2. In the axil of the leaves
3. On the surface of the leaves
4. None of the above
9. The chromosomes that do not have a centromere are
1. Submetacentric
2. Telocentric
3. acentric
4. metacentric
10. vascular bundles are scattered in
1. monocot root
2. dicot root
3. monocot stem
4. dicot stem
11. the movement of water from the roots to the aeriel parts of plants is
1. transpiration
2. transportation
3. translocation
4. evaporation
12. plants release energy during
1. photosynthesis
2. transpiration
3. absorption
4. respiration
13. root hairs are
1. multicellular
2. bicellular
3. unicellular
4. none of these
14. whose is the father of genetics?
1. Charles Darwin
2. Aristotle
3. Mendel
4. Hugo de vries
15. DNA model was proposed by
1. Mendel
2. Hogo de vries
3. Prantle and engler
4. Watson and crick
16. The triplet of bases in DNA that code for certain amino acids, together are called
1. Codon
2. Anticodon
3. Nitrogenous base
4. Nucleotide
17. The base that is not found in DNA, but found in RNA is
1. Thymine
2. Uracil
3. Adenine
4. Guanine
18. Who is the father of classification (taxonomy)?
1. Linnaeus
2. Lemarck
3. Darwin
4. Engler
19. Which one of the following is a structural protein?
1. Keratin
2. Haemoglobin
3. Amino acid
4. Gelatin
20. The edible portion of mango fruit is
1. Endocarp
2. Mesocarp
3. Epicarp
4. Seed
21. The gynoecium of pea has
1. One carpel
2. Two carpels
3. Three carpels
4. Many carpels
22. The fruits that are formed without fertilization are
1. Parthenocarpic
2. Multiple fruits
3. Simple fruits
4. Dry fruits
23. If a cell increases in volume when kept in a solution, the solution must
1. Hypotonic
2. Hypertonic
3. Isotonic
4. None of these
24. The phenomenon by which the shoot bends towards light is
1. Phototropism
2. Photosynthesis
3. Photoperiodism
4. Photorespiration
25. Plants that live on other plants but do not take anything from them are
1. Saprophytes
2. Epiphytes
3. Mesophytes
4. Xerophytes
26. The organisms that feed on dead organic matters are
1. Parasites
2. Epiphytes
3. Saprophytes
4. None of these
27. Plants that eat insects are known as
1. Insectivorous plants
2. Producers
3. Parasites
4. Saprophytes
28. Bacteriophage is a
1. Fungus
2. Virus
3. Bacterium
4. None of these
29. Parallel venation is not seen in
1. Maize
2. Wheat
3. Hibiscus
4. Palm
30. Cortex is the region present in between
1. Epidermis and stele
2. Endodermis and pith
3. Epidermis and pith
4. None of the above
31. Chromosomes start moving towards the pole in ……. Of mitosis
1. Anaphase
2. Metaphase
3. Prophase
4. Telophase
32. Raphides are crystals of
1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium oxalate
3. Sodium chloride
4. Sodium carbonate
33. A micron is …….. of millimeter
1. 1/10
2. 1/100
3. 1/1000
4. 1/10,000
34. The plants which flower only once in their lifetime are
1. Polycarpic
2. Monocarpic
3. Biennials
4. None of the above
35. Meristematic tissues are characterized by the
1. Lignified wall
2. Large vacuole
3. Capacity to divide
4. Absence of cell wall

36. The age of a tree is calculated according to
1. The height of the tee
2. The number of leaves
3. The number of annual rings
4. The colour of the trunk
37. The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from
38. Auxanometer is the apparatus used to measure
1. Growth rate in plants
2. Photosynthetic rate
3. Rate of transpiration
4. Rate of translocation
39. Which of the following is not of fungus?
1. Sargassum
2. Puff balls
3. Bread mold
4. Yeast

For detailed question paper here is attachment:
Attached Files
File Type: pdf KCET question paper Chemistry.pdf (194.7 KB, 14 views)
File Type: pdf KCET question paper Physics.pdf (275.2 KB, 8 views)
File Type: pdf KCET question paper Biology.pdf (171.9 KB, 11 views)
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member

Last edited by Gunjan; April 17th, 2013 at 06:50 PM.
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Sponsored Links






















  #3  
Old February 6th, 2014, 05:44 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2013
Posts: 42,987
Default Re: CET Papers Download

You are looking for the Karnataka Common Entrance Test question paper, here i am providing:

Physics
1. The velocity of light in a medium is 2 1010 cms/sec. The refractive index of the
medium is
1) 1.4 2) 2.3 3) 1 4) 1.5
2. If Cg, Cw, Cv are velocities of light in glass , water and vacuum, then the correct
relation is
1) Cw = Cg = Cv 2) Cg< Cv, Cw > Cg 3) Cv > Cg, Cg > Cw 4) Cg = Cw,
Cw > Cg
3. If C1 and C2 are the velocities of light in two media and the respective angles of
incidence and refraction are Ѳ1 and Ѳ2, then the correct relation is
1) C1 cosec Ѳ1 = C2 cosec Ѳ2
2) C1 cot Ѳ1 = C2 cot Ѳ2
3) C1 tan Ѳ1 = C2 tan Ѳ2
4) C1 sin Ѳ1 = C2 sin Ѳ2
4. The critical angle for a medium is 450, the refractive index is
1) 1/ 2) 3) 4) 2/
5. Total internal reflection takes place when light passes from
1) Water to glass 2) glass to diamond 3) air to water 4) glass to air
6. The brilliance of diamond is
1) entirely due to refractive index
2) entirely due to total internal reflection
3) partly due to total internal reflection
4) none of the above
7. The focal length of an equiconvex lens (µ = 1.5) is 30 cms. The radii of curvature of
the faces are respectively
1) 15, 30 2) 14, 28 3) 30, 30 4) 15, 15
8. A travelling microscope is focussed on an ink dot. When a glass slab ( µ = 1.5) of
thickness 9 cm. is introduced on the dot , the travelling microscope has to be
moved by
1) 3 cms. Upwards 2) 5 cms. Upwards 3) 3 cms. downwards 4) 5 cms.
downwards
9. A lens of power +2D and a lens of power -1D are kept in contact. The combination
behaves as
1) a lens of power +3D
2) a lens of power -3D
3) a lens of power +1D
4) a lens of power -1D
10. Two lenses of power +2D and -5D are kept in contact. The focal length of the
combination is
1) -1/3m 2) 1/3m 3) 3m 4) -3m
11. A swimmer is inside a tank. Supposing that the surface is calm, the swimmer, when
looking up sees the outside with an angular separation of


1) 400 2) 900 3) 980 4) 1010
12. Mirages are observed on some days when
1) density of air increases with height
2) density of air decreases with height
3) earth acts like a mirror
4) air is dense uniformly
13. The angles of a total reflecting prism are
1) 450, 500, 850 2) 450, 450, 900 3) 900, 900, 900 4) 450, 450,
450
14. The angles of incidence and emergence of an equilateral prism are 500 and 400, the
angle of deviation is
1) 400 2) 500 3) 600 4) 300
15. when the deviation of yellow line of a spectrum is minimum, then the refracted
ray is ( in a prism)
1) Parallel to base 2) perpendicular to base 3) both 4) none of
these
16. An object is placed at a distance 18 cms. from a convex lens. The image is formed
at a distance of 9 cms. The focal length of the lens is
1) 6 cms 2) 9 cms 3) 10 cms 4) 18 cms
17. The focal length of a lens is 5 cms. If the least distance of distinct vision is 25 cms,
then magnification is
1) 20 2) 10 3) 6 4) 1
18. The focal length of a convex lens of radii of curvature 20 cms and 30 cms is 24. Its
refractive index is
1) 1.0 2) 1.3 3) 1.5 4) 2.4
19. Two lenses of powers +2D and -6D are kept in combination. Focal length of the
combination is
1) -0.25 m 2) 0.25 m 3) 2.5 m 4) -0.025 m
20. An air bubble in water behaves as
1) a convex lens 2) a concave lens 3) a convex mirror 4) a
concave mirror
21. A Galilean telescope consists of
1) a concave and convex lens
2) 2 convex lenses
3) 2 concave lenses
4) a plano-convex and a biconvex lens
22. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is 15. If the focal length of
objective is 90 cm, then focal length of eye piece is
1) 5/30 cm 2) 1 cm 3) 6 cm 4) 1350 cms
23. In a compound microscope, the magnification is maximum when focal length of
objective is
1) large
2) small
3) equal to that of eye piece
4) none of these


24. A spectrometer consists of
1) prism table 2) collimator 3) telescope 4) all the above
25. The principle used in the Direct Vision Spectroscope is
1) dispersion without deviation
2) dispersion with deviation
3) deviation without dispersion
4) deviation with dispersion
26. Optical fibers are used in
1) polarimeter 2) photometer 3) voltmeter 4) gastroscope
27. The rays of light travelling from a distant object are incapable of converging at a
common point after refraction through a thin lens; this fact is known as
1) spherical aberration
2) chromatic aberration
3) invisibility
4) astigmatism
28. Band spectrum is emitted by
1) atoms 2) ions 3) gases 4) molecules
29. A metal which emits colours when heated to certain temperature absorbs the
same colours when cooled. This was said by
1) Fraunhofer 2) Taylor 3) C.V. Raman 4) Kirchhoff
30. Fraunhofer lines indicate
1) presence of certain elements in interior of sun
2) presence of certain elements in exterior of sun
3) absence of certain elements in interior of sun
4) absence of certain elements in exterior of sun
31. The explanation for presence of Fraunhofer lines was given by
1) Kirchhoff 2) Fraunhofer 3) Leibig 4) Layman
32. Helium was discovered in sun’s atmosphere by analysing
1) Mayerhoff bands 2) Fraunhofer lines 3) spectrum 4) spectrometer
33. The wavelength of infrared rays is
1) greater than that of visible light
2) less than that of visible light
3) greater or lesser, depending on the source
4) none of these
34. Light is not transmitted through two nicols if
1) their shorter diagonals are parallel
2) their shorter diagonals are perpendicular
3) their longer diagonals are parallel
4) their longer diagonals are perpendicular
35. The specific rotation of an optically active substance of length l cm and
concentration of c with an optical rotation of Ѳ is given by
1) l c/10Ѳ 2) Ѳlc/10 3) 10Ѳ/lc 4) 10/Ѳlc
36. Unit of Luminous Intensity is (in SI units)
1) Lux 2) Phot 3) Candela 4) weber


37. A source of 10 CP is placed at a distance of 1 cm; then the intensity of illumination
is
1) 10 Lux
2) 10 cm candles or phot
3) 10 ft. candles
4) 10 C.P.
38. When light passé through a>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
1) refracted 2) reflected 3) undeviated 4) none of these
39. When light incident on a refracting surface is polarized by reflection then angle
between the refracted and reflected ray is
1) 450 2) 480 3) 900 4) 980
40. Waves that cannot be polarized are
1) longitudinal 2) transverse 3) electromagnetic 4) light
41. The planes of vibration and polarization are
1) orthogonal 2) parallel 3) non-existent 4) orthogonal and parallel
42. The correct expression relating polarizing angle and refractive index is
1) µ sin ip =1 2) µ cot ip =1 3) µ tan ip =1 4) µ cosec ip =1
43. The specific rotation of a liquid of length 10 cm, concentration 2 gm/cc is 400 .The
angle of rotation is
1) 100 2) 700 3) 800 4) 900
44. In calcite, double refraction doesn’t take place
1) perpendicular to optic axis
2) along optic axis
3) both perpendicular to and along the optic axis
4) transversely
45. An example for a diamagnetic substance is
1) copper 2) iron 3) nickel 4) aluminium
46. The charges on a body can be detected with
1) electroscope 2) electrometer 3) voltmeter 4) ammeter
47. When a glass plate is introduced in between two charged bodies, the force
between them
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains the same 4) becomes zero
48. The electric potential at a point at a distance ‘r’ from a charge ‘q’ is E. When the
charge q is replaced by a charge 4q the potential at the same point will be
1) same 2) 1/2E 3) 2E 4) 4E
49. A force repulsion is felt by a charge in front of a charged plate, keeping the distance
and the charge constant. The interspace is filled with wax; then
1) the force of repulsion changes to force of attraction
2) the force of repulsion increases
3) the force of repulsion gets lowered
4) the force of attraction increases or decreases
50. Four charges of magnitude 2 esu, 8 esu, 5 esu and -10 esu are placed at corners of
a square ABCD of side 2 cm. The potential at the centre is
1) 5/ units 2) 10 units 3) 4.5/ units 4) -10
units

51. If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate condenser is increased, then
capacity
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) none
52. When a dielectric medium is introduced between two charged plates then capacity
1) decreases 2) increases 3) remains same 4) none
53. Two condensers of capacities 2 µF and 3 µF are connected in series. Two more
condensers of capacity 4/5 F is connected in parallel with the combination; the
effective capacity is
1) 29/20 µF 2) 20/29 µF 3) 2 µF 4) 1 µF
54. Two condensers of capacities 5 and 10 F are connected in series. Two more
condensers of capacities 2 and 4 F are separately connected in series. Then, if the
two combinations are connected in parallel the effective capacity is
1) 13/3 F 2) 14/3 F 3) 3/14 F 4)
3/13 F
55. Charges present on clouds are due to
1) motion of water drops
2) earth’s magnetic field
3) lightning
4) movement of the cloud
56. The p.d. across resistance of 1 讨 is 1 V, then the current is
1) 1 amp 2) 10 emu 3) 10 amp 4) 1
emu
57. The resistance of a conductor is
1) Directly proportional to area of across-section
2) Inversely proportional to length of conductor
3) Directly proportional to length of conductor
4) Inversely proportional to temperature of conductor
58. The specific resistance of a wire of length 1 m, area of cross-section 0.5 m2 is 25
micro-ohm. The resistance of the wire is
1) 2 106 讨 2) 6 105 讨 3) 3 106 讨 4) 5
10-5 讨
59. The emf of a cell is 1.5 volts and when it is connected to an external resistance of
value 2 ohms the current in the circuit is 0.2 amp. The internal resistance of the cell
would be
1) 0.25 ohm 2) 5.5 ohm 3) 1 ohm 4) 2 ohm
60. The emf of a cell (internal resistance – 6 讨) is 12 V. If this is connected to an external resistance 6 讨, then p.d. across it is 1) 6 V 2) 0.6 V 3) 1/6 V 4) 1/60 V
61. If E is the emf of a cell of internal resistance r and external resistance R, then p.d. across R is given as 1) V = E/(1 + r) 2) V = ER/(R + r) 3) V = E/(1 + r/R) 4) V = E/(1 + R/r)

62. If ‘n’ batches of m cells are connected in parallel with a cell of emf E, then current
through external resistance ( R), internal resistance ( r) is given by
1) I = mnE/(mr + nR)
2) I = mnE/(mR + nr)
3) I = (mE/n)/(mR + nr)
4) I = (nE/m)/(mr + nR)
63. The algebraic sum of products of current and resistance in a closed electrical path
is equal to
1) total emf in that path
2) total resistance in that path
3) total current in that path
4) None of these
64. If the resistance of a wire t 00 and 1000C are 8 讨 and R find (a = 0.0008/0C) 1) 0.8064 讨 2) 8064 讨 3) 80.64 讨 4) 8.64 讨
65. The current that flows through a conductor of length 1 cm bent in the form of an arc of a circle of radius 2 cm to produce a magnetic field of strength 0.1 oersted at its centre is 1) 1 amp 2) 4 amp 3) 1/2 amp 4) 0.1 amp
66. The direction of motion of a conductor carrying current due to a magnetic field is given by 1) Fleming’s left hand rule 2) Fleming’s right hand rule 3) Laplace’s rule 4) Herbert’s rule
67. The sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer can be increased by using
1) more number of turns
2) a thinner suspension
3) both of above
4) none of these
68. In converting a galvanometer to an ammeter
1) a high resistance is connected in series
2) a high resistance is connected in parallel
3) a low resistance is connected in parallel
4) a low resistance is connected in series
69. In an ideal voltmeter, the resistance is
1) very high 2) near to zero 3) very low 4) none of
these
70. Thermistor is
1) a resistor
2) a thermally sensitive resistor
3) An adiabatic resistor
4) None of these
71. When current flows through a conductor, heat is produced; this is
1) Seebeck Effect
2) Thompson Effect
3) Peltier Effect
4) Joule Effect
72. “The emf developed in a circuit opposes the cause to which it is due “ This is
1) Lambert’s law
2) Faraday’s law
3) Lenz’s law
4) Newman law
73. When two conductors carrying current in the same direction are placed parallel
then
1) The conductors move away
2) The conductors come closer
3) No change is observed
4) None of these
74. In an AC circuit containing inductance
1) Current lags behind voltage by π/2
2) Voltage lags behind current by π
3) Current leads voltage by π/2
4) None of these
75. The rms value of voltage in a circuit is 100 V. Then the peak voltage is (in volts)
1) 100/ 2) 100 3) 300/ 4) 300
76. The impedance in an AC circuit (LCR) is given as
1)
2)
3)
4)
77. The induction of e.m.f. in a coil when current flows through it is called
1) Mutual induction
2) Analogous induction
3) Self induction
4) Pure induction
78. The cores of transformer are made of
1) Soft iron
2) Steel
3) Copper
4) Gold
79. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of wave is inclined to the
magnetic and electric fields by
1) 450 and 450
2) 450 and 900
3) 900 and 900
4) 900 and 450
80. When an electron is placed in a magnetic field then the velocity of electron
1) Increases
2) Depends on strength of field
3) Decreases
4) Is independent of field strength
81. Isotopes are elements which have
1) Same atomic number but different atomic weights
2) Different atomic numbers but the same atomic weight
3) Same value for both
4) Different values for both
82. When deuterium and helium are subjected to accelerating field simultaneously
1) Both acquire the same velocity
2) Deuterium accelerates faster
3) Helium accelerates faster
4) Neither of them is accelerated
83. An α particle can be represented by
1) A helium ion
2) A hydrogen ion
3) A helium nucleus
4) A hydrogen nucleus
84. The rate of decay of radioactive substance is
1) Directly proportional to number of atoms present at that time
2) Directly proportional to mass of substance
3) Directly proportional to temperature
4) Inversely proportional to half life
85. State which of the following is true.
1) Mean life is greater than half life
2) Half life is greater than mean life
3) Mean life is equal to half life
4) None of these
86. State which of the following is incorrect.
1) Gamma rays have more penetrating power than α-rays
2) α-rays have maximum ionizing power
3) X-rays have minimum ionizing power
4) β-rays have maximum penetrating power
87. Packing fraction is given by the relation
1) A/(M – A)
2) (A – M)/A
3) M/(M – A)
4) (M – A)/A
88. The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14.003 and its mass number is 14. The packing
fraction is
1) -2 10-4
2) 5 10-4
3) 2 10-4
4) 6 10-4

89. The atomic weight of C12 is 12.0032. Its mass defect is
1) 12 2) 0.0032 3) 0.032 4) 0.32
90. The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into constituent particles (or lighter ones)
is
1) Nuclear fission 2) Nuclear fusion 3) Splitting 4) Cutting
91. The mass of hydrogen atom is (in atomic mass unit)
1) 1.0073 2) 2.0072 3) 1.073 4) 1.73
92. The reactions taking place in solar and stellar atmospheres are
1) Thermonuclear 2) ionic 3) covalent 4) fission reaction
93. Boron rods are used in nuclear reactors because
1) Boron can absorb neutrons
2) Strength is given to the plants
3) Boron speeds up neutrons
4) The rectors look good
94. If 0.03 gm of mass is converted to energy, energy liberated is
1) 20.9 10-7 ergs 2) 18.9 10-8 ergs 3) 9 109 ergs 4) 2.7
1019 ergs
95. 1eV is equal to
1) 1.6 10-19 J 2) 1.6 10-12 Joule 3) 1.6 10-20 erg 4) 1.6 10-
12 erg
96. Energy of a photon (light particle) of frequency v is given by
1) h/v 2) v/h 3) hv/k 4) hv
97. when the velocity of the electron is increasing the DeBroglie wavelength of the
electron
1) increases
2) decreases
3) remains the same
4) increases sometimes and decreases sometimes
98. The frequency of the incident photons which is just sufficient to liberate
photoelectrons is known as
1) Resonant frequency
2) Minimum frequency
3) Photoelastic frequency
4) Threshold frequency
99. A diode can be used as
1) An oscillator
2) A rectifier
3) An oscilloscope
4) A triode
100. A p-type semiconductor has
1) More electrons compared to holes
2) More electrons compared to electrons
3) Equal number of holes and electrons
4) More photons compared to holes and electrons

Answer key
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A 4 2 1 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 1
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 4 2
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 1 2 3 2 1
Q 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 1
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A 2 1 1 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 2
Q 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90


A 4 3 1 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 1
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A 1 1 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 2

Biology

1. Cell theory was proposed by
1. Schleiden and Schwann
2. Robert hooke
3. Leeuwenhock
4. Brown
2. Scientists name plants and animals in latin to
1. Claim superiority over common name
2. Achieve international infirmity
3. Prevent common man from understanding
4. Make the name difficult
3. Transpiration in plants will be most rapid when
1. Atmosphere is saturated with water vapour
2. Excess of water is in the soil
3. The environmental conditions are dry
4. The environment is cool and humid
4. Dioxyribose is found in
1. RNA 2. DNA 3. ATP 4. ADP
5. The edible part of jack fruit is
1. Fleshy perianth


2. Inflorescence axis
3. Mesocarp
4. None of these
6. Pith is well developed in
1. Monocot root
2. Monocot stem
3. Dicot root
4. Seeds
7. Thallophyta includes
1. Algae and fungi
2. Fungi and ferns
3. Algae and ferns
4. Only algae
8. Epiphyllous buds mean those buds which grow
1. On the internode of the leaves
2. In the axil of the leaves
3. On the surface of the leaves
4. None of the above
9. The chromosomes that do not have a centromere are
1. Submetacentric
2. Telocentric


3. acentric
4. metacentric
10. vascular bundles are scattered in
1. monocot root
2. dicot root
3. monocot stem
4. dicot stem
11. the movement of water from the roots to the aeriel parts of plants is
1. transpiration
2. transportation
3. translocation
4. evaporation
12. plants release energy during
1. photosynthesis
2. transpiration
3. absorption
4. respiration
13. root hairs are
1. multicellular
2. bicellular
3. unicellular
4. none of these


14. whose is the father of genetics?
1. Charles Darwin
2. Aristotle
3. Mendel
4. Hugo de vries
15. DNA model was proposed by
1. Mendel
2. Hogo de vries
3. Prantle and engler
4. Watson and crick
16. The triplet of bases in DNA that code for certain amino acids, together are called
1. Codon
2. Anticodon
3. Nitrogenous base
4. Nucleotide
17. The base that is not found in DNA, but found in RNA is
1. Thymine
2. Uracil
3. Adenine
4. Guanine
18. Who is the father of classification (taxonomy)?
1. Linnaeus
2. Lemarck


3. Darwin
4. Engler
19. Which one of the following is a structural protein?
1. Keratin
2. Haemoglobin
3. Amino acid
4. Gelatin
20. The edible portion of mango fruit is
1. Endocarp
2. Mesocarp
3. Epicarp
4. Seed
21. The gynoecium of pea has
1. One carpel
2. Two carpels
3. Three carpels
4. Many carpels
22. The fruits that are formed without fertilization are
1. Parthenocarpic
2. Multiple fruits
3. Simple fruits
4. Dry fruits


23. If a cell increases in volume when kept in a solution, the solution must
1. Hypotonic
2. Hypertonic
3. Isotonic
4. None of these
24. The phenomenon by which the shoot bends towards light is
1. Phototropism
2. Photosynthesis
3. Photoperiodism
4. Photorespiration
25. Plants that live on other plants but do not take anything from them are
1. Saprophytes
2. Epiphytes
3. Mesophytes
4. Xerophytes
26. The organisms that feed on dead organic matters are
1. Parasites
2. Epiphytes
3. Saprophytes
4. None of these
27. Plants that eat insects are known as
1. Insectivorous plants


2. Producers
3. Parasites
4. Saprophytes
28. Bacteriophage is a
1. Fungus
2. Virus
3. Bacterium
4. None of these
29. Parallel venation is not seen in
1. Maize
2. Wheat
3. Hibiscus
4. Palm
30. Cortex is the region present in between
1. Epidermis and stele
2. Endodermis and pith
3. Epidermis and pith
4. None of the above
31. Chromosomes start moving towards the pole in ……. Of mitosis


1. Anaphase
2. Metaphase
3. Prophase
4. Telophase
32. Raphides are crystals of
1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium oxalate
3. Sodium chloride
4. Sodium carbonate
33. A micron is …….. of millimeter
1. 1/10
2. 1/100
3. 1/1000
4. 1/10,000
34. The plants which flower only once in their lifetime are
1. Polycarpic
2. Monocarpic
3. Biennials
4. None of the above
35. Meristematic tissues are characterized by the
1. Lignified wall
2. Large vacuole
3. Capacity to divide


4. Absence of cell wall
36. The age of a tree is calculated according to
1. The height of the tee
2. The number of leaves
3. The number of annual rings
4. The colour of the trunk
37. The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from
1. H2o
2. Co2
3. Protoplasm
4. None of these
38. Auxanometer is the apparatus used to measure
1. Growth rate in plants
2. Photosynthetic rate
3. Rate of transpiration
4. Rate of translocation
39. Which of the following is not of fungus?
1. Sargassum
2. Puff balls
3. Bread mold
4. Yeast


40. The edible part of cauliflower is
1. Inflorescence
2. Fruit
3. Stem
4. Leaves
41. The flowers which do not open at all are called
1. Cleistogamous
2. homogamous
3. Heterogamous
4. None of the above
42. The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by
1. Guard cells
2. Epidermal cells
3. Mesophyll cells
4. Appendages on the epidermis
43. Which of the following is an underground stem
1. Carrot
2. Raddish
3. Beetroot
4. Potato
44. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
1. Linnaeus
2. Miller


3. Prantle
4. Robert hooke
45. Tuberous adventitious roots are seen in
1. Potato
2. Dahlia
3. Raddish
4. Carrot
46. Photosynthesis is maximum in
1. Blue light
2. Green light
3. Red light
4. Ultra violet light
47. Superior ovary is found in ……. Flowers
1. Perigynous
2. Epigynous
3. Hypogynous
4. None of the above
48. Spike inflorescence is seen in
1. Amaranthus
2. Hibiscus
3. Jasmine
4. Mango


49. Pollination is
1. Dispersal of pollen by wind
2. Transfer of pollen to the stigma
3. Germination of pollen on the stigma
4. Dehiscence of anther
50. Pod of pea plant is a
1. Fruit
2. seed
3. flower
4. none of the above
51. angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having
1. a fruit
2. a big seed
3. a flower
4. well developed leaves
52. water is translocated through
1. xylem
2. phloem
3. cortex
4. none of these
53. during photosynthesis plants


1. absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide
2. absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen
3. absorb nitrogen and release oxygen
4. absorb nitrogen and release carbon dioxide
54. leguminous plants fix nitrogen with the help of
1. chloroplasts
2. rhizobium
3. fungi
4. none of the above
55. the largest tree in the world is
1. sequoia gigantiae
2. giant oak
3. banyan
4. eucalyptus
56. the simplest form of carbohydrate is
1. monosaccharide
2. disaccharide
3. polysaccharide
4. none of the above
57. opening and closing of guard cells is due to
1. turgor pressure
2. wall pressure
3. imbibition


4. none of the above
58. parenchyma tissue is characterized by the presence of
1. sclereids
2. thick wall
3. thin wall
4. none of the above
59. production of new plants without fertilization is
1. vegetative propagation
2. transplantation
3. grafting
4. layering
60. the flower in which the ovary matures first is known as
1. protandrous
2. protogynous
3. dichogynous
4. none of the above
61.phylogeny means
1. study of embryonic development
2. study of evolutionary history of animals
3. study of environment
4. none of the above
62. the tissue formed by phellogen is


1. phelloderm
2. periderm
3. phellem
4. none of the above
ambiguous question, because both phelloderm and phellem are formed by
phellem
63. which of the following is a hereditary disease?
1. Colour blindness
2. Scurvy
3. Beri beri
4. Cancer
64. Adenohypophysis is derivation of
1. Hypothalamus
2. Medulla
3. Spinal cord
4. Cerebrum
65. The largest gland in man is
1. Liver
2. Pancreas
3. Thyroid
4. Pituitary
66. Ectoderm gives rise to
1. Nervous system
2. Digestive system


3. Endocrine glands
4. None of the above
67. Ovulation is caused by
1. ACTH
2. FSH
3. LH
4. None of these
68. The function of progesterone is
1. To maintain pregnancy
2. To prepare uterus for pregnancy
3. Implantation of embryo
4. All the above
69. Fertilization in mammals takes place in
1. Fallopian tube
2. Ovary
3. Uterus
4. None of the above
70. A typical population growth curve is
1. Paraboloid
2. Sigmoid
3. Hyperboloid
4. Ellipsoid


71. Animals that maintain a constant body temperature are
1. Homeotherms
2. Poikilotherms
3. Anemotherms
4. None of the above
72. The compound in synapse transmission is
1. Acetylcholine
2. Epinephrine
3. Iodine
4. Adrenaline
73. Axon is covered by
1. Myelin sheath
2. Dendron
3. Medullary sheath
4. None of the above
74. Which of the following is not a harmone?
1. Saliva
2. Secretin
3. Insulin
4. Thyroxin
75. The products of protein hydrolysis are
1. Amino acids
2. Sugars


3. Fatty acids
4. None of these
76. The structural and functional unit of kidney is
1. Neuron
2. Nephron
3. Dendron
4. Blood
77. The universal recipient blood group is
1. A
2. AB
3. O
4. B
78. Total number of genes in a population is called as
1. Gene mutation
2. Genetic drift
3. Genome
4. Gene pool
79. A population is
1. Number of organisms of same genus occupying the same place
2. The of organisms of same species at a certain time in place
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above


80. Two organisms cannot occupy the same niche. This was found out by
1. Darwin
2. Lemarck
3. Elton
4. None of these
81. Food for developing foetus in mammals is supplied by
1. Placenta
2. Ovary
3. Yolk sac
4. Uterus
82. Some animals and plants invaginate and take fluid in to the cell. It is called
1. Phagocytosis
2. Diffusion
3. Pinocytosis
4. Cyclosis
83. Bowman’s capsule is a part of the
1. Nephron
2. Neuron
3. Cerebrum
4. Spinal cord
84. Principally man is
1. Uricotelic
2. Ureotelic


3. Ammonotelic
4. Mixedon
85. The axon of a nerve helps in
1. Transformation of impulse
2. Conduction of impulse
3. Generation of impulse
4. Stimulation of centron
86. The floating organisms are called as
1. Plankton
2. Neketon
3. Benton
4. None of these
87. During maturation division
1. The chromosome number is doubled
2. The chromosome number is halved
3. The chromosome number is remains unchanged
4. None of the above
88. Lateral ventricles are present in
1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla
4. Spinal cord


89. Blood is a / an
1. Organ system
2. Organ
3. Tissue
4. Cell
90. The bag containing a liquid in which the foetus is enclosed is
1. Amnion
2. Chorion
3. Pouch
4. Capsule
91. Holoblastic cleavage occurs in
1. Elecithal egg
2. Telolecithal egg
3. Mesolecithal egg
4. Microlecithal egg
92. During digestion starch is converted in to glucose. The inter-mediate product is
1. Sucrose
2. Fructose
3. Lactose
4. Maltose
93. Sex harmones are
1. Steroids
2. Glycoprotiens


3. Proteins
4. Vitamins
94. Gastrulation begins with
1. Movement of blastomeres
2. Dissolution of ectoderm
3. Formation of blastocoel
4. Disappearance of archenteron
95. The grey crescent area has its importance during
1. Blastula
2. Morula
3. Gastrula
5. Neurula
96. The wild life sanctuary in assam is
1. Kaziranga national park
2. Manas wild life sanctuary
3. Jim Corbett national park
4. none of the above
97. Pineal body is from the stomodium of
1. hypothalamus
2. proencephalon
3. cerebellum
4. mesentrop
98. Mammalan erithrocites have
1. no nuclei
2. many nuclei
3. one nucleus
4. two nuclei
99. ACTH is secreted by
1. islets of langerhans
2. pituitary
3. adrenal
4. thyroid
100. Insulin is secreted by
1. delta cells
2. alpha cells
3. beta cells
4. none of these
101. Plants occupy the first place in the ecosystem because
1. they synthesize food for themselves and for animals
2. they consume lot of food
3. they eat insects sometimes
4. none of the above
102. Amniotes are characterized by
1. amnion and allantois
2. allantois and nephron

3. amnion and epidermis
4. amnion and endodermis
103. Homologous organ are those which have
1. same origin but different function
2. different origin but same function
3. same structure and same function
4. same function and different structure
104. Reproduction without fertilization is called as
1. heterozygous
2. apomixes
3. aneuploid
4. chimera
105. The most ancient marsupial is
1. paramales
2. opossum
3. cat
4. kangaroo
106. Insulin controls
1. blood sugar
2. blood proteins
3. fat emulsification
4. none of the above
107. The mammary glands are stimulated by
1. LH
2. ADH
3. FSH
4. LTH
108. The improvement of genetic characters in man is termed
1. Genetics

2. Eugenics
3. Heredity
4. Variation
109. Androgen is an
1. Enzyme
2. Sugar
3. Hormone
4. Amine
110. Sperms are produced in
1. Vas deference
2. Seminiferous tubules
3. Spermatocytes
4. None of the above
111. A region that selectively accumulates iodine in the body is
1. Thymus
2. Spleen
3. Thyroid
4. Pituitary
112. The animal which has become extinct recently in India is
1. Cheetah
2. Chakar
3. Hyena
4. Nilgai
113. In places having heavy traffic, a layer of ………. Is formed
1. Smoke
2. Fog
3. Smog
4. Mist
114. Gastrulation is a process of
1. Formation of ectoderm
2. Formation of blastula
3. Formation of gastrula
4. None of the above
115. The scientific name of Indian monkey is
1. Macaca
2. Gorilla
3. Panther
4. Chimpanzee
116. The sex chromosomes are also called
1. Autosomes
2. Allosomes
3. Heterosomes
4. Homosomes
117. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by
1. Lamarck
2. Darwin
3. Mendel
4. Hogo de vries.


Answer Key :
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 4
Q.No 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 1
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 2
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 2
Q.No 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 1&3 1 * 1 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 1 1 1
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 2 4 2 4 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. ** 4 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 2 2
Q.No 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117
Ans. 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 1
• Q. No. 64: wrong question, because adenohypophysis is derived from rathke’s pouch
• Q. No. 91: complete holoblastic cleavage may occur in alecithal, telolecithal and
microlecithal eggs.

Chemistry

1. In an exothermic reaction, heat is
1) evolved
2) absorbed
3) either evolved or absorbed
4) neither evolved nor absorbed
2. Heat of transition is heat evolved or absorbed when a substance is converted from
1) solid liquid
2) solid to vapour
3) liquid to vapour
4) one allotropic form to another allotropic form
3. ‘ Heat of neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base is a constant ‘ because
1) Salt formed does not hydrolyse
2) Only H+ and OH- ions react in every case
3) The strong base and strong acid react completely
4) The strong base and strong acid react in acqueous solution
4. Heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume is
1) Greater in the first case
2) Greater in the second case
3) Same in the both case
4) Depending on the temperature
5. The heat of formation of carbon dioxide is -393.5 KJ. The heat of decomposition of
carbon dioxide into the elements is
1) 393.5 KJ 2) 161.7 KJ 3) 196.7 KJ 4) 203 KJ
6. Which of these does not influence the rate of reaction?
1) Nature of the reactants
2) Concentration of the reactants
3) Temperature of the reaction
4) Molecularity of the reaction
7. The rate constants of forward and backward reactions are 8.5 10-5 and 2.38 10-4.
The equilibrium constant is
1) 0.34 2) 0.42 3) 2.92 4) 0.292
8. 2HI H2 + I2 . If an inert gas is added to the system at equilibrium the concentration
of the products
1) Decrease 2) increase 3) cannot be said precisely 4) is
unaltered
9. 2 HI H2 + I2 . Here the relation between KP and kc is
1) KP > kc 2) KP < kc 3) KP = kc 4) KP kc
10. Chemical equilibrium is achieved when
1) Mass of the reactants is equal to the mass of the products
2) Moles of the reactants is equal to the moles of the products
3) The ratio of rate of forward reaction to the rate of backward reaction is one


4) The quantity of the substance consumed is equal to the quantity of the products
formed.
11. The rate of chemical reaction at constant temperature is proportional to
1) The amount of products formed
2) The product of the masses of the reactants
3) The product of the molar concentrations of the reactants
4) The mean free path of the reaction
12. PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 - Heat. The forward reaction is favoured by
1) The removal of chlorine
2) Low temperature
3) Removal of PCl5
4) high pressure
13. 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3. The forward reaction is favoured by
1) High temperature
2) Low pressure
3) Removal of sulphur dioxide
4) High pressure
14. N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3 + Heat. What is the effect of increase of temperature on the
equilibrium of the reaction?
1) Equilibrium is shifted to the left
2) Equilibrium is shifted to the right
3) Equilibrium is unaltered
4) Reaction rate does not change
15. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to
1) The increase in the number of collisions
2) The increase in the number of activated molecules
3) The shortening of the mean free path
4) The lowering of the activation energy
16. Catalytic decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is a …….. order reaction.
1) Zero 2) first 3) second 4) third
17. The reaction 2 N2O5 4 NO2 + O2 follows I order kinetics. Hence the molecularity of
the reaction is
1) Unimolecular
2) Pseudo unimolecular
3) Biomolecular
4) None of these
18. Radioactivity decay follows
1) Zero order
2) I order
3) II order
4) III order
19. The hydrolysis of methyl acetate catalysed by acid is an example for
1) First order reaction
2) Second order reaction


3) Bimolecular reaction
4) None of these
20. The decay constant of a reaction is 1.1 10-9 /sec. Then the half life of the reaction is
1) 1.2 108 2) 6.3 108 3) 3.3 108 4) 2.1 108
21. The catalyst remains unchanged at the end of the reaction regards
1) Quality
2) Chemical composition
3) Quality and chemical composition
4) Chemical composition and physical state
22. In the manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald’s process, the catalyst used is
1) Finely divided iron
2) Platinum – rhodium gauze
3) Vanadium – pentoxide
4) Molybdenum
23. In the hydrogenation of oil, the catalyst used is
1) Platinum
2) Finely divided nickel
3) Molybdenum
4) Finely divided iron
24. A catalyst poison
1) Reacts with the reactants
2) Reacts with the catalyst
3) Destroys active centres
4) Forms a film on the catalyst
25. A silver cup is plated with silver by passing 965 coulombs of electricity. The amount of
silver deposited is
1) 9.89 gm
2) 107.87 gm
3) 1.0787 gm
4) 1.0002 gm
26. Sulphuric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid because


1) It dissociates completely
2) It has high molecular weight
3) Acetic acid is weakly ionised
4) It is highly unstable
27. Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte because
1) Its molecular weight is high
2) It is a covalent compound
3) It does not dissociate much
4) It is highly unstable
28. An electrolyte is one
1) Which conducts electric current
2) Which is capable of ionisation by passing electric current
3) Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
4) Possesses ions even in the solid state
29. In the electrolysis of dil. H2SO4 using platinum electrodes
1) OH– is discharged at the cathode
2) H+ Is evolved at the anode
3) Oxygen is evolved at the anode
4) No chemical change occurs
30. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
1) Dilution
2) Number of ions
3) Current density


4) Volume of the solution
31. Which one of the following does not conduct electricity?
1) Fused NaCl
2) Solid NaCl
3) Sodium chloride solution
4) Copper
32. Solid sodium chloride is a bad conductor of electricity because
1) It contains only molecules
2) It does possess ions
3) The ions present in it are not free to move
4) It does not contain free molecules
33. pH is defined as
1) -log
2) log
3) log [H+]
4)
34. A strong electrolyte is one
1) Which ionises almost completely in solution


2) Which is partially ionised
3) Which forms complex ions
4) Which is ionised even at high concentration
35. The conductivity of an infinitely diluted solution is
1) Equal to the sum of ionic conductances
2) Equal to the product of ionic conductances
3) Independent of the ionic conductances
4) Equal to the difference of ionic conductances
36. A drop of HCl is added to pure water. Its pH
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Is unaltered
4) Increases steeply
37. A drop of HCl is added to a solution of CH3COONa and CH3COOH. Then the pH
1) Decrease
2) Increases
3) Is unaltered
4) Decreases gradually
38. In NaOH, [OH-] is highest. Even then the product of [H+] and [OH-] is


1) 10-1 2) 10-7 3) 10 4) 10-1
39. The reaction in which water reacts with anion or cation of salt to form an acidic or
alkaline solution is called
1) Neutralisation 2) Hydrolysis 3) Electrolysis 4) Pyrolysis
40. The standard electrode potential is measured by
1) Voltmeter 2) Pyrometer 3) Galvanometer 4)
Ammeter
41. The standard electrode potentials of zinc and copper electrodes are -0.76 V and +0.34 V
respectively. Then the e.m.f . of Daniel cell is
1) +0.36 volt 2) +1.10 volt 3) -1.10 volt 4) +0.81
volt
42. A metal rod is dipped in a solution of its ions. Its electrode potential is independent of
1) Temperature of the solution
2) Concentration of the solution
3) Area of the metal exposed
4) Nature of metal
43. Ammonia is passed over strongly heated cupric oxide
1) Copper is formed
2) Copper nitride is obtained
3) Copper oxide is formed


4) Nitric oxide is formed
44. Ammonium sulphate is primarily used as
1) Fertiliser 2) Antiseptic 3) Mordant 4) Drug
45. Action of heat on ammonium sulphate and sodium nitrite gives
1) NO 2) NO2 3) N2O 4) N2
46. Nitrous acid is a/an
1) Oxidising agent 2) Reducing agent 3) Dehydrating agent 4) Drying
agent
47. Ammonium carbonate is a smelling salt because
1) It has pleasant smell 2) It gives the smell of ammonia
3) It decomposes 4) It is crystalline
48. Nitrogen is absorbed by
1) Alluminium carbide 2) Calcium carbide
3) Ferrous sulphate 4) Calcium hydroxide
49. Fixation of nitrogen means
1) Manufacture of nitrogen from air
2) Liquation of nitrogen
3) Nitrogen cycle in nature
4) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds


50. The percentage of nitrogen in urea is
1) 50 2) 46.6 3) 35.2 4) 87.3
51. Action of heat on silver nitrate gives
1) Silver 2) Silver nitrate 3) Silver oxide 4) Hydrated silver oxide
52. When nitric oxide mixed with excess oxygen is dissolved in water, the product formed is
1) Nitric acid
2) Nitrogen dioxide
3) A mixture of two acids
4) Nitrogen pentoxide
53. The anhydride of nitric acid is
1) NO 2) N2O 3) N2O3 4) N2O5
54. Aqua regia is a mixture of
1) con. hydrochloric acid and con. sulphuric acid
2) con. sulphuric acid and con. nitric acid
3) con. hydrochloric acid and con . nitric acid
4) sulphuric acid and acetic acid
55. Dil. HNO3 and dil. HCl differ in the action on metals because
1) Nitrogen is less active than chlorine
2) HNO3 is a reducing agent


3) HNO3 is an oxidising agent
4) HCl is a reducing agent
56. The plants absorb atmospheric nitrogen
1) By atmospheric electricity
2) Directly
3) From soil
4) By bacteria present in root nodules
57. Phosphorus occurs as
1) Phosphide 2) Phosphate 3) Oxides 4) Element (in free state)
58. Phosphine is
1) Acidic 2) Basic 3) Neutral 4) Amphoteric
59. P2O5 is used as
1) Oxidising agent 2) Dehydrating agent 3) Bleaching agent 4) Reducing
agent
60. PCl3 is used in
1) Replacing OH group by Cl atom
2) Bleaching textiles
3) Drying
4) Replacing H of OH group by Cl atom


61. P2O3 reacts with cold water to produce
1) Phosphorus acid
2) Phosphoric acid
3) Metaphosphoric acid
4) Pyrophosphoric acid
62. Bones and teeth contain
1) Calcium phosphate
2) Calcium fluoro phosphate
3) Calcium sodium phosphate
4) Calcium hydrogen phosphate
63. When sodium dihydrogen phosphate is heated we get
1) Sodium meta phosphate
2) Sodium pyro phosphate
3) Sodium hypo phosphate
4) Sodium phosphide
64. Micro cosmic salt when heated gives
1) Sodium meta phosphate
2) Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
3) Sodium hydrogen phosphate


4) Sodium hypo phosphate
65. Super phosphate of lime contains
1) Calcium dihydrogen phosphate
2) Tricalcium phosphate
3) Calcium hydrogen phosphate
4) Calcium phosphate
66. Froth flotation process is used to concentrate
1) Oxide ores 2) Carbonate ores 3) Sulphide ores 4) Chloride
ores
67. NaCN is used in the extraction of
1) Iron 2) Copper 3) Magnesium 4) Gold
68. Decahydrate of sodium carbonate is called
1) Baking soda 2) Washing soda 3) Soda ash 4) Caustic soda
69. Sodium carbonate solution is basic because of
1) Hydrolysis 2) Electrolysis 3) Electrophoresis 4)
neutralisation
70. The ore of copper is
1) Malachite 2) Apatite 3) Dolomite 4) Haematite
71. Alum is used in the purification of water as
1) It gives trivalent cations


2) A germicide
3) A coagulant
4) A deodoriser
72. In the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process, lime and magnesia [calcined dolomite]
are coated as a lining
1) To protect the converter
2) To remove silicon and phosphorus
3) To react with iron
4) To get low grade iron
73. Ethyl chloride reacts with alcoholic KOH to give
1) Ethane 2) Ether 3) Ethylene 4) Ethanol
74. Alcoholic AgNO3 does not give white precipitate with
1) C6H5–CH2 Cl
2) C6H5CH2CH2Cl
3) C6H5Cl
4) CH3CHCH3
I
Cl
75. Alkyl halide reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form


1) Grignard reagent
2) Schiff’s reagent
3) Tollen’s reagent
4) Gabriel’s reagent
76. Which of the compounds does not react with benzene in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3?
1) C6H5Cl
2) C6H5CH2Cl
3) CH3Cl
4) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Cl
77. Vinyl chloride has great importance in
1) Synthetics 2) Chemicals 3) Plastics 4)
Antiseptics
78. Acetylene is stored in
1) Compressed form 2) Acetone 3) Aluminium carbide 4) Calcium
carbide
79. RX + 2 Na + R‘X → 2 NaX + RR’. The reaction is an example of
1) Friedel-Crafts reaction
2) Wurtz reaction
3) Wurtz-Fittig reaction


4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
80. The mixture of ethanol and water cannot be separated by distillation because
1) They form a constant boiling mixture
2) Alcohol molecules are solvated
3) Their boiling points are very near
4) Alcohol remains dissolved in water
81. Ethyl alcohol is denatured by adding
1) Methanol and pyridine
2) Glycerol
3) Aniline
4) Ether and methanol
82. Ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H2SO4. The conditions are
1) Excess of H2SO4 and 1700C
2) Excess of ethyl alcohol and 1400C
3) Excess of ethyl alcohol and 1800C
4) Excess of conc. H2SO4 and 1000C
83. Methyl alcohol can be distinguished from ethyl alcohol using
1) Fehling’s solution
2) Schiffs reagent


3) Sodium hydroxide and iodine
4) Phthalein fusion test
84. Phenol is recovered from
1) Coal tar 2) Middle oil 3) Naphthalene 4) Benzene
85. Phenol can be distinguished from its colour reaction with
1) neutral FeCl3 solution
2) feSO4 solution
3) BaCl2 solution
4) iodoform reaction
86. In kolbe’s reaction the reacting substances are
1) Phenol and CCl4
2) Sodium phenate and CO2
3) Sodium phenate and CCl4
4) Phenol and CHCl3
87. Salicylic acid when heated with soda lime gives
1) benzene 2) benzyl alcohol 3) phenol 4)
salol
88. Cool tar mainly contains the acidic compound
1) Pyridine 2) Phenol 3) Cresol 4) Acetic
acid


89. Aniline reacts with alkyl halide to give
1) Amino compound
2) Tertiary compound
3) Azo methane
4) Quaternary ammonium compound
90. Benzene diazonium chloride when heated with water produces
1) Phenol 2) Aniline 3) Benzyl alcohol 4)
Chlorobenzene
91. Aniline + HNO2[NaN02 + HCl] →… The reaction is called
1) Diazotisation 2) Nitration 3) Reduction 4)
Ammonolysis
92. On a large scale benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzyl chloride by
1) Treating with aqueous NaOH
2) Treating with alkaline KMNO4
3) Treating with alcoholic KOH
4) Hydrolysis with steam in the presence of a catalyst
93. The oxidization of toluene to benzaldehyde is done in the presence of
1) Alkaline KMNO4
2) Acidified K2Cr2O7
3) Cu(NO3)2 solution


4) CrO2Cl2 in CS2
94. The substance used to preserve biological specimens is
1) Acetone
2) Formic acid
3) Acetaldehyde
4) 20% solution of formaldehyde in water
95. Which one of these undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction?
1) C6H5CHO
2) CH3CHO
3) CH3COCH3
4) C6H5CH2Cl
96. Aldehydes on oxidation yield
1) Alcohols 2) Acids 3) Ketones 4) Esters
97. Dry calcium acetate is heated in the absence of air. It gives
1) Acetone
2) Acetaldehyde
3) Formaldehyde
4) Benzaldehyde
98. The substances used in perfumery industry are


1) Esters 2) Aldehydes 3) Ketones 4) Ethers
99. Vinegar consists of
1) Citric acid
2) Acetic acid
3) Formic acid
4) Ortho phosphoric acid
100. Destructive distillation of wood gives pyroligneous acid. It contains
1) Acetic acid and acetone
2) Acetic acid, acetone and methanol
3) Wood tar and methanol
4) Methanol and acetic acid
101. Fruits are preserved using
1) Aldehydes
2) Benzoic acid or sodium benzoate
3) Formic acid
4) Salicylic acid
102. The carboxylic acid is converted into acyl chloride by the action of
1) Chlorine 2) HCl 3) CHCl3 4) PCl3
103. The sugar present in fruits is


1) Fructose 2) Glucose 3) Sucrose 4) galactose
104. The intermediate compound in the conversion of starch to glucose is
1) Maltose 2) Lactose 3) Fructose 4) Cane sugar
105. Cane sugar is made up of
1) 5 membered glucose ring and 5 membered fructose ring
2) 6 membered glucose ring and 6 membered fructose ring
3) 6 membered glucose ring and 5 membered fructose ring
4) 6 membered galactose ring and 6 membered fructose ring
106. The solution of iodine in KI is used to detect a solution of starch and glycogen as it gives
1) Blue colour with starch and red colour with glycogen
2) Green colour
3) Green colour with starch, blue with glycogen
4) Red colour with starch, yellow with glycogen
107. The substance that forms the plant cell wall is
1) Cellulose 2) Sucrose
3) Glycogen
4) Starch
108. In the photosynthesis the one which is increased is
1) Carbon


2) Hydrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Carbon dioxide
109. The process which is exact reverse of photosynthesis is
1) Ripening of fruits
2) Digestion of starch
3) Oxidation
4) Burning of wood
110. Oils and fats are
1) Esters
2) Aldehydes
3) Ketones
4) Ethers
111. Fats and oils serve as
1) Reserve food for the body
2) Immediate source of energy
3) Nitrogenous food
4) Control materials of metabolism
112. Hydrolysis of fats and oils yields


1) Dihydric alcohol
2) Trihydric alcohol
3) Esters
4) Unsaturated acids
113. Hydrogenation of oils involves
1) Saturation of unsaturated fatty acids
2) Reaction with hydrogen
3) Conversion into fatty acids
4) Driving off the impurities in oil by hydrogen gas
114. In the esterification reaction of alcohols
1) OH- is replaced by C6H5OH
2) H+ is replaced by sodium metal
3) OH- is replaced by chlorine
4) OH- is replaced by CH3COO group
115. The protein can be best described as
1) Peptide
2) Amino acid
3) Polypeptide
4) Polymer


116. Proteins on digestion yield
1) Amino acids
2) Fatty acids
3) Glycerols
4) Glucose
117. The protein that is the structural material is
1) Albumen
2) Oxytocin
3) haemoglobin
4) keratin
118. The amino acid among the following is
1) CH3CONH2
2) CH3CONHCH3
3) CH3NHCHO
4) CH2COOH
I
NH2
119. An amino acid contains
1) NH2 and COOH groups

2) NH2 and SO3H groups
3) OH and COOH group
4) NH and SO3H groups
120. Enzymes are active under
1) 00C
2) 370C
3) 1000C
4) Depends on the specific reaction
121. R.N.A differs from D.N.A. in having ribose instead of deoxyribose. Which base present in
R.N.A. is not found in D.N.A.?
1) Adenine
2) Guanine
3) Cytosine
4) Uracil
122. Which metal is present in the human body in great percentage?
1) Calcium
2) Sodium
3) Potassium
4) Iron

123. The metal that is present in haemoglobin is
1) Potassium
2) Iron
3) Zinc
4) Sodium
124. The molecular weight of protein is
1) <10,000
2) >10,000
3) >1000
4) >1000 and <10,000
125. Which of the following is not a classification of proteins?
1) Enzymes
2) Antibodies
3) Antigens
4) Hormones

Answer key

Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 2 * 1 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 4 1 2
Q.No 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 2 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 2
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 4
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 3 2 1
Q.No 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 1 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 1 3 2 3 3 1
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 1
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
Ans. 1 1 4 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 1 3
Q.No 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119
Ans. 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 1 4 3 1 4 4 1
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125
Ans. 4 1 2 2 3
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Other Discussions related to this topic
Thread
EAMCET papers download
Karnataka CET Papers Download
LAWCET Papers Download
GUJCET Papers Download
IIT Jam MCA Question Papers Download
IIT Papers Free Download
IIT Sample Papers Download
ICFAI Papers Download
APPSC JL Old Papers Download
NDA Papers Download
RBI sample papers download
TET model papers download
CET Exam Papers download
CPT question papers download
CDS Sample Papers Download
SMU Question Papers MBA Download
RMCAAT papers download
IES Mechanical Papers Download
CET Test Papers Download
NID Sample Papers Download






Have a Facebook Account? Ask your Question Here



Reply


Reply to this Question / Ask Another Question
Your Name: Click here to log in

Message:
Options

Forum Jump


All times are GMT +6.5. The time now is 11:20 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.7
Copyright ©2000 - 2017, vBulletin Solutions, Inc.
Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9