Re: SSC Combined Matric Level Examination 2011
SSC, Staff Selection Commission combined Matric Level Exam has been replaced and a new examination called SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam for the recruitment to the posts of Lower Division Clerks and Data Entry Operators would be organized.
The candidate has been elevated to 10+2 or Intermediate from a recognized institution and the age limit is 18-27 years as on August, 2011.
SSC may be recruited similar posts
Grade \’D\’ Stenographers
Grade \’C\’ Stenographers
Important dates (Tentative):
Date of Written Test: May, 2011
Application forms will be available on the official website and at assigned Post Offices and the candidate must download the forms and send the completed Application form with Demand Draft to the official address.
Selection is based on Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and Personal Interview.
Subjects – General Intelligence
Marks – 100
Subjects – General Awareness
Marks – 100
Staff Selection Commission
Block – 12, CGO Complex
New Delhi - 110 003
Re: SSC Combined Matric Level Examination 2011
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducts Combined Examination in the month of May for the posts are:
Grade \’D\’ Stenographers
Grade \’C\’ Stenographers
The candidate must have the Indian nationality and the age limit for this exam is the candidates must be 18-27 years as on August, 2011
Selection based on Preliminary Examination, Main Examination and Personal Interview.
The exam is two parts and the Preliminary first Part has:
Subjects – General Intelligence
Marks – 100
And the Preliminary second part has Subjects – General Awareness
Marks – 100
Re: SSC Combined Matric Level Examination 2011
Following is eligibility and syllabus of SSC Combined Matric Level Exam:
Educational Qualification: Matric from a recognized Board or equivalent.
Age: 18 to 27 years of age
A citizen of India or
A subject of Nepal or
A subject of Bhutan
A Tibetan refugee who came over to India,
A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African, Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
A) Main Examination for Grade ‘C’ Stenographers (Conventional Type)
Subject Marks Duration Timings
Paper - I
Part-A General English 100 2 Hrs 10.00 AM to12.00 Noon
Part-B General Studies 100
Paper-II Essay (Hindi/English) 100 2 Hrs 2.00 PM to 4.00 PM
Stenography skill test : 100 words per minute - 300 marks
Re: SSC Combined Matric Level Examination
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducted Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination for recruitment to the posts of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerks.
Here I am sharing the question paper of Combined Higher Secondary Level Examination
CHSL General Awareness Question paper
151. The degree of monopoly power is to be measured in terms of the firm’s
(a) normal profit
(b) supernormal profit
(c) both normal and supernormal profit
(d) selling price
152. Who propounded the Innovation theory of profits?
(a) J.A. Schumpeter (b) P.A. Samuelson (c) Alfred Marshall
(d) David Ricardo
153. Which of the following does not come under legislative control over administration?
(a) Zero hour
(b) Adjournment motion
(c) Budget session
(d) Formulation of a Bill
154. Under perfect competition, the industry does not have any excess capacity because each firm produces at the minimum point on its
(a) long-run marginal cost curve
(b) long-run average cost curve
(c) long-run average variable cost curve
(d) long-run average revenue curve
155. Which one of the following is not a ‘canon of taxation’ according to Adam Smith?
(a) Canon certainty
(b) Canon of simplicity
(c) Canon of convenience
(d) Canon of economy
156. Effective demand depends on
(a) capital-output ratio (b) output-capital ratio (c) total expenditure
(d) supply price
157. ‘The Right to Public Office’ is a
(a) Civil right
(b) Economic right
(c) Moral right
(d) Political right
158. Who was the author of Gita Govinda? (a) Jayadeva
(d) Raja Rao
159. Which battle did open the Delhi area to
(a) First Battle of Tarain
(b) Second Battle of Tarain
(c) Battle of Khanwa
(d) First Battle of Panipat
160. The Aryans successes in their conflicts with the pre-Aryans because
(a) they used elephants on a large scale
(b) they were taller and stronger
(c) th ey were from an advanced urban culture
(d) they used chariots driven by horses
161. The Chola kings were ruling over (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra (c) Kerala (d) Bengal
162. From which fund can the unanticipated
expenditure be met without the prior approval of the Parliament?
(a) Consolidated Fund of India (b) Contingency Fund of India (c) Vote-on-Account
(d) From the Treasury
163. A law made by the Judiciary is known as
(a) Ordinary law (b) Case law
(c) Rule of law (d) Administrative law
164. O n e of t h e im p or ta n t att r i bu t es of
Parliamentary form of government is
(a) Fixed tenure for the executive
(b) Executive is answerable to the people (c) Executive is separate from the legislative (d) Collective responsibility of Council of
Ministers to the Parliament
165. ENIAC was
(a) an electronic calculator
(b) an electronic computer
(c) an memory device
(d) an engine
166. One byte consists of
(a) one bit (b) four bits
(c) eight bits (d) ten bits
167. Which of the following vertebrates lack exoskeleton?
(a) Amphibia (b) Mammalian (c) Aves
168. Which of the following branches deals with the interaction of same species of living or g a n i s m s wit h t h ei r n on - li vi ng environment?
(a) Autecology (b) Synecology (c) Ecology
169. Which of the following organelles is called
(a) Microtubules (b) Nucleolus
(c) Golgi bodies (d) Lysosome
170. In AC circuits, AC meters measure
(a) mean values (b) rms values
(c) peak values (d) mean square values
171. When a light wave is reflected from a mirror, there is a change in its
(a) frequency (b) amplitude
(c) wavelength (d) velocity
172. Solar energy is due to (a) fusion reactions (b) fission reactions
(c) combustion reactions
(d) chemical reactions
173. The width of depletion layer of a P-N junction
(a) decreases with light doping
(b) increases with heavy doping
(c) is independent of applied voltage
(d) is increased under reverse bias
174. Huge deposits of uranium were recently found in
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
175. When water itself combines chemically with some element or mineral it is called
(a) Carbonation (b) Desalination
(c) Hydration (d) Oxidation
176. From the bark of which plant is quinine extracted?
(a) Eucalyptus (b) Cinchona (c) Neem
177. Hypertension is the term used for
(a) increase in heart rate
(b) decrease in heart rate
(c) decrease in blood pressure
(d) increase in blood pressure
178. The contractile proteins in a muscle are
(a) Actin and Myosin
(b) Actin and Tropomyosin
(c) Myosin and Troponin
(d) Troponin and Tropomyosin
179. Coins made of metal first appeared in
(a) Harappan Civilisation
(b) Later Vedic Age
(c) Age of the Buddha
(d) Age of the Mauryas
180. A natural region has the similarity of (a) climate and natural vegetation (b) climate and occupation
(c) soil and drainage
(d) economic base and reces
181. Which one of the following is presently the largest oil refinery of India?
(a) Vadodara (IOC) (b) Mathura (IOC)
(c) Vishakhapatnam (HPCL) (d) Mumbai (BPCL)
182. Imaginary lines joining places with same
temperature are called
(a) Isobars (b) Isoh yets
(c) Isohalines (d) Isotherms
183. Crop rotation helps to
(a) lesson use of pesticides
(b) eliminate parasites which have selective h osts
(c) yield more crops
(d) pr od uce a gr eater ch oice of p lant products
184. An area legally reserved for wild life in its natural surroundings is
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(c) Social Forest
(d) National Park
185. Who is the new Governor of Maharashtra? (a) Shiv Shankar Menon
(b) K. Sankaranarayanan
(c) B.K. Sinha
(d) Shivaraj Patil
186. At pr esent the BRAHMOS missile are assembled at
(a) Bangalore (b) Hyderabad (c) Chandipur (d) Sriharikota
187. The electronic configuration of an atom
having atomic number ‘20’ is
(a) 2, 8, 10 (b) 2, 6, 8, 4 (c) 2, 8, 8, 2 (d) 2, 10, 8
188. The most reactive among the halogens is
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
189. The major component in the LPG is
(a) methane (b) butane (c) ethane (d) propane
190. KMnO4 can be used as a/an
191. Acute lead poisoning is also known as
(b) Plumbism (c) Neuralgia (d) Byssinosis
192. The vertical movement of air is termed as
(a) wind (b) air current
(c) air turbulence (d) air mobility
193. Sivasamudra is an island formed by the river
(a) Ganga (b) Godavari
(c) Krishna (d) Cauvery
194. Who among the following was the first h ea vywei gh t box er t o g o un d efeat ed throughout his career?
(a) Rocky Marciano
(b) Lee Epperson (c) Larry Holmes (d) Michael Spinks
195. Which one of the following newspapers had
been edited by Gandhiji? (a) Navjeevan
(b) Gujarat Times
(d) Jan Satta
196. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be
(a) A person of Finance and Banking field
(b) An Economist of high caliber
(c) An expert from Judiciary—level of High
(d) A person having experience in Public
197. The novel ‘White Tiger’ which won the
Booker Prize 2008 is authored by
(a) Arundhati Roy
(b) V.S. Naipaul
(c) Kiran Desai
(d) Aravind Adiga
198. Who is the Minister for Environment and
Forest of India?
(a) Anand Sharma
(b) Jairam Ramesh
(c) Dayanidhi Maran
(d) None of these
199. Queen Elizabeth has recently conferred
(a) Chetan Bhagat
(b) L.N. Mittal
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) None of the above
200. The First Election Commission of India was
(a) S.P. Sen Verma
(b) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(c) K.V.K. Sundram
(d) Sukumar Sen
151 (b) 152 (a) 153 (c) 154 (a) 155 (b) 156 (d) 157 (a) 158 (a) 159 (b) 160 (d)
161 (a) 162 (b) 163 (b) 164 (d) 165 (a) 166 (c) 167 (d) 168 (c) 169 (d) 170 (b)
171 (b) 172 (a) 173 (d) 174 (a) 175 (c) 176 (b) 177 (d) 178 (a) 179 (b) 180 (a)
181 (a) 182 (d) 183 (b) 184 (b) 185 (b) 186 (b) 187 (c) 188 (a) 189 (b) 190 (a)
191 (b) 192 (c) 193 (d) 194 (a) 195 (a) 196 (d) 197 (d) 198 (b) 199 (c) 200 (d)
CHSL English Question paper
Directions (51-55): In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer is (4) i.e. No error.
51. I remember (1)/ meet him/ (2) five years ago. (3)/ No error (4).
52. He asked (1)/ that how long (2)/ you would be absent. (3)/ No error (4).
53. He ate (1)/ nothing (2)/ since yesterday. (3)/ No error (4).
54. She (1)/ is working here (2)/ since 1983. (3)/ No error (4).
55. Madhuri Dixit is having (1)/ a large (2)/ a fan following. (3)/ No error.
Directions (56-60): In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested
for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
56. He was accused of bringing money into the exchange rules.
(a) anticipation (b) compensation
(c) perpetration (d) violation
57. One of the players forget to _ . (a) turn up for practice
(b) run away from school
(c) buy shoes for the exam
(d) bring his book for the match
58. Today students should be reconciled
the way thing are changing. (a) with (b) to (c) for (d) at
59. T h e coun t r y‟s econ omi c gr owt h was
adversely by political instability. (a) reflected (b) effected
(c) affected (d) expected
60. The agenda for the meeting is ____ the notice.
(a) forwarded in (b) subscribed to (c) enclosed with
(d) delivered as
Directions (61-65): In the following questions, out of th e altern atives, choose th e one wh ich best expresses the meaning of the given word.
(a) create (b) generate
62. (c) prohibit
PACIFY (d) strengthen
(a) clam down (b) satisfy
(c) rouse (d) rejoice
(a) surplus (b) shortage
(c) excess (d) meanness
(a) devious (b) dull
(c) distinctive (d) derogatory
(a) envy (b) violence
(c) jealousy (d) absurdity
irections (66-70): In the following questions, hoose the word opposite in meaning to the given ord
(a) carried (b) acquired
67. (c) possessed
MISERY (d) regained
(a) glad (b) pleasant
68. (c) enjoy
BARBAROUS (d) bliss
(a) improved (b) cordial
69. (c) civilized
DYNAMIC (d) modified
(a) stable (b) still
70. (c) lazy
DILIGENT (d) static
(a) intelligent (b) lazy
(c) boastful (d) notorious
irections (71-75): In the following questions, for lternatives are given the idiom/phrase printed in bold n the sentence. Choose the alternative which best xpresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
71. Having no arguments to defend his point, the speaker began to beat about the bush.
(a) wander across the words
(b) speak in a haphazard manner
(c) speak in a round-about manner
(d) make use of irrelevant reference
72. They were offered six months‟ rent in lieu of
notice to vacate the building.
(a) in spite of (b) in place of
(c) despite of (d) in addition of
73. The reputed company is in the red due to the recession.
(a) making money (b) losing money (c) in danger
(d) spending money
74. When the Principal was entering the class, all my friend quietly disappeared, leaving me alone to face the music.
(a) to listen to him
(b) to enter into the class
(c) to bear the criticism
(d) to listen to a favourable comment
75. The Kenyan team proved to be dark horse
in the ICC World Cup Cricket. (a) a strong intruder
(b) a skilled team
(c) the most powerful
(d) un unexpected winner
Directions (76-80): In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (1), (2) and (3) which may improve the sentence. Choose th e correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (4).
76. My uncle presented me the more expensive watch.
(a) much (b) mere
(c) most (d) No improvement
77. Either Vijayof Vimal are going to be selected for the match.
(a) has (b) is
(c) have been (d) No improvement
78. Nisha is more funnier than Natasha. (a) funnier (b) funniest
(c) quite funny (d) No improvement
79. The office staff members wished each and other on New Year ‟s Day.
(a) one other (b) one another
(c) each another (d) No improvement
80. The two brothers shared the property beside
(a) among (b) between
(c) amidst (d) No improvement
Directions (81-85): In the following questions, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/phrase.
81. A person who loves mankind
(a) misanthrope (b) anthropologist (c) philanthropist (d) mercenary
82. To confirm with the help of evidence
(a) corroborate (b) implicate
(c) designate (d) extricate
83. The action of looking within or into one‟s own mind
(c) introspection (d) introvert
84. One who has narrow and prejudice religious views
(a) religious (b) fanatic
(c) bigot (d) god-fearing
85. Capable of being interpreted in two ways
(a) confusing (b) unclear
(c) ambiguous (d) ambivert
Directions (86-90): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of alternative given.
PASSAGE (Question Nos. 86 to 95)
In du „didda‟ loved to wear sar is. He (86) collections, which Sonia inherited, were remarkable for not only (87) taste, but also the (88) of weaves and traditional representation. I do not think any other public figure (89) the first five decades after independence was so (90) to acquire saris of distinct (91) as „didda‟ did. (92) you noticed this fact when meeting her, you not only joined her circle of (93) persons on traditional textiles. (94) also got a chance to bring her (95) to the cause you were espousing. Now this was very rare.
86. (a) private (b) peculiar
(c) personnel (d) particular
87. (a) extravagant (b) worthy
(c) good (d) suitable
88. (a) uniformity (d) mixture
(c) extent (d) variety
89. (a) with (b) in
(c) for (d) since
90. (a) keen (b) attracted
(c) earnest (d) enthusiastic
91. (a) base (b) wave
(c) weave (d) length
92. (a) When (b) Also
(c) If (d) But
93. (a) snobbish (b) knowledgeable
(c) smart (d) wonderful
94. (a) Hence (b) So
(c) Thus (d) But
95. (a) notice (b) attention
(c) observation (d) concern
Directions (96-100): In the following questions, you have one brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE (Question Nos. 96 to 100)
Th is is th e t h or n y sid e of t h e pr eva ili ng examin ation system. Most examin er s h ave perfected their skill in making it a veritable nightmare for majority of the students.
Quite unwittingly we have increased the enrolment in schools alarmingly. Most of the students have neither the requisite aptitude to learn nor any clear- cut goal in life. The destiny of students would be decided in true to test bookish, rote memory.
All laudable objectives of kindling originality and problem solving ability are trumpeted only in educational seminars and workshops. Ultimately all these are gone with the wind. No wonder examination hangs like a Damocles sword.
Computer this with a related discipline such as music and dance. None would venture to seek entry into such centres of excellence unless one has proven aptitude to profit from training.
Here the students have excellent rapport with their teachers who evaluate their performance on a day- to-day basis and pr ove constan t feedback. Students enjoy practicing at home what they are taught in class.
As th ey r ealise th eir pr ogr ess by con stant r ei n for cemen t t h ey welcom e a n d en joy
examination in class. Under the watchful guidance of committed teach ers, studen ts gr ow and (d) prove that dance and music alone can bring peace to us
blossom out as well-trained artistes.
This is possible and feasible because the teacher- 100. According to the passage, the objectives of education should be
pupil ratio is ideal and the attitude of the learner is (a) to teach dance, music and drama to
based on devotion and dedication. students in schools and colleges
96. “Ultimately all these are gone with the wind.” (b) to reduce teacher-pupil ratio
The above sentence shows that the writer
(a) enjoys the prevailing situation
(b) regrets our ignoring the aims of true education
(c) is quite satisfactory about the syllabus
(d) makes fun of teachers and their students
97. The passage emphasises the need for
(a) making dance and music compulsory in schools
(b) makin g examin ation an en joyable experience
(c) s eek i ng eas y qu es ti on s i n t he examinations
(d) warning examiners who harass students in the examinations
98. The writer is dissatisfied with the examiners because they test students.
(a) memory (b) originally
(c) aptitude (d) creativity
99. The writer ‟s intention to compare the topic of discussion what that of dance and music is to
(a) show how students of dance and music en joy n ot on l y l earn i ng but a lso examinations
(b) popularises dance and music among all children
(c) congratulate teachers who take good care of their students
(c) not to test bookish, rote memory
(d) to encourage originally and problem solving ability
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (d)
CHSL general Intelligence Question paper
PART-I GENERAL INTELLIGENCE Directions (1-9):
In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.
1. Tadpole : Frog : : Cub : ?
(a) Hedgehog (b) Lion (c) Cat (d) Dog
2. CHAIR : RIAHC : : TABLE : ?
(a) BATLE (b) EBATL (c) ELBAT (d) ELTAB 3. LKJ : MNO : : DCB : ?
Directions (10-18): In each of th e following questions, find the odd word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
10. (a) 064 (b) 208
16. (a) BDH (b) CFL (c) EJU (d) DHP
17. (a) CBCD (b) IHIJ (c) ONOP (d) UTUW
18. (a) ADGPT (b) ACEIK (c) ABDEI (d) ADIPY
19. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? bca__b__aabc__a__caa (a) c b a b (b) b a c c (c) a c a b (d) b c b b
Directions (20-24): A series is given with one for (or more) term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
20. BDF, ? , PRT, WYA
(a) GJK (b) HKL (c) IKM (d) IJK
21. 14, 21, 30, 41, 54, ?
(a) 61 (b) 73 (c) 69 (d) 70
22. 17, 14, 15, 12, 13, ?, ?
(a) 10, 11 (b) 14, 11 (c) 11, 13 (d) 12, 15 23. 2, 5, 10, ? ,
26 (a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 17 (d) 25
24. A C F J O ? B (a) I (b) H (c) U (d) D
Directions: From among the given alternatives, select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of numbers given in the question.
25. Given set: (10, 12, 15)
(a) (21, 23, 27) (b) (30, 32, 36) (c) (60, 62, 66) (d) (68, 70, 73)
26. M and F are a married couple. A and B are sisters. A is the sister of F, Who is B to M?
(a) Sister (b) Sister-in-law (c) Niece (d) Daughter
27. In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash was shifted by two places towards the left, he became 7th from the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?
(a) 7th (b) 8th (c) 9th (d) 10th
28. If day before yesterday was Wednesday, when will Sunday be?
(a) 3 days after today (b) Tomorrow (c) Today (d) Day after tomorrow
29. The sum of the ages of a father and a son presently is 70 years. After 10 years the son’s age is exactly half that of the father ’s. What are their age now?
(a) 45 years, 25 years (b) 50 years, 20 years (c) 47 years, 23 years (d) 50 years, 25 years
30. If B = 2, MAT = 34, then JOGLEX = ?
(a) 70 (b) 71 (c) 72 (d) 73
31. If HONESTY is written as ABCXZDQ, how can TONY be written in that code?
(a) DBCQ (b) QDCX (c) CBXZ (d) CQDC
32. Sanmitra starts from his house and walks 3 km towards north. Then he turns right and walks 2 km and then turns right and walks 5 km, then turns right and walks 2 km and then again turns right and walks 2 km. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) North (b) South (c) West (d) East
33. Rama is standing at a point facing north. He walks 10 km straight, turns left and walks another 15 km straight and finally turns left and walks 10 km. How far is he from the starting points now?
(a) 10 km (b) 5 km (c) 12 km (d) 15 km
34. In a solid cube made up of 27 small cubes, two opposite sides are painted red, two opposite sides yellow and two other sides white. How many small cubes have the colours yellow and white alone in them?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
35. Five birds are sitting on a tree. The Pigeon is to the right of the Parrot. The Sparrow is above the Pigeon. The Crow is next to the Pigeon. The Crane is below the Crow. Which bird is at the centre?
(a) Crow (b) Pigeon (c) Parrot (d) Sparrow
36. Two years ago a mother was 4 times as old as her son. Six years from now her age will become more than double her son’s age by 10 years. What is the present ratio of their ages?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 38 : 11 (c) 19 : 7 (d) 3 : 1
Directions (37-38): In each of the following question, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
(a) SCOUT (b) CLASS (c) LIAISON (d) ASSOCIATION
(a) ADMIT (b) NEST (c) MANIA (d) ROAD
Directions: In the following question, from the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word.
(a) FARMER (b) MOTION (c) FIREMAN (d) NAME
Directions (40-41): In each of th e following questions, one/two statement are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly/known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions. If any, follow from the given statements.
40. Statements: The best evidence of India’s glorious past is the growing popularity of Ayruvedic medicines in the west.
Conclusions: I. Ayruvedic medicines are not popular in India. II. Allopathic medicines are not popular in India.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows
41. Statements: Some dogs bark. All dogs bite.
Conclusions: I. Those dogs who do not ark, also bite.
45. 5 8 7 2 4 6 6 2 3 60 64 ? (a) 68 (b) 49 (c) 39 (d) 126
II. Th ose dogs wh o do n ot bar k, n or necessarily bite.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows
42. S el ect t h e corr ect com bi n ati on of mathematical signs to replace * signs so as to balance the equation. 8 * 8 * 1 * 11 * 11
(a) + = ÷ - (b) × + = - (c) ÷ × + = (d) - + = ÷ 43. If 1 × 10 = 9, 2 × 10 = 18 , × 10 = 27, then what is 8 × 10 = ?
(a) 36 (b) 72 (c) 78 (d) 52
44. If ‘+’ stands for division, ‘×’ stands for addition, ‘-’ stands for multiplication, ‘‚’ stands for subtraction, then which of the following equation is correct?
(a) 36 – 6 + 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 74 (b) 36 × 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20 (c) 36 + 6 – 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 24 (d) 36 ÷ 6 + 3 × 5 – 3 =
45 Directions: Select the missing number from the given responses. alphabets as in the 2 matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by column n umber. For example, ‘W’ can be represented by 13, 20 etc. ‘H’ can be represented by 66, 78 etc. Identify the set for the word PENS.
46. MATRIX – I 0 1 2 3 4 0 P W N I S 1 I S P W N 2 W N I S P 3 S P W N I 4 N I S P W
MATRIX – II 5 6 7 8 9 5 A E R O H 6 O H A E R 7 E R O H A 8 H A E R O 9 R O H A E
(a) 12, 67, 21, 30 (b) 43, 56, 13, 23 (c) 43, 56, 21, 42 (d) 31, 57, 21, 42 47.
If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure? Question Figure
Directions: In the following question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given M N in the alternatives are represented by two classes of 4
5 Answer Figures 50. Among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed from the cut-pieces given below in the question figure? Question Figure
(a) (b) (c ) (d)
48. Wh i ch on e of t h e foll owi n g fi gu r es represents the relationships among Dog, Animal, Pets? (a) Answer Figures (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
Directions: Which answer figure will complete the question figure?
49. Question Figure Answer Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
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Answered By StudyChaCha
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