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Exams>syllabus and Sample paper for AIIMS Msc nursing Exam
lbihbih 11:29 PM October 31st, 2011
please send me a syllabus for AIIMS Msc nursing and a sample paper for msc entrance exams.thank you
shanuprakasam 11:48 AM December 30th, 2011
I already completed my BSc Nsg. Now I would like to study MSc nursing in AIIMS, where should i get the application form and applying date on 2012.
Sashwat 09:07 PM March 30th, 2012
Here I am uploading the file for the syllabus.

Application form will be available in the month of April , 2012 .
Attached: AIIMS M.Sc. Nursing Syllabus.pdf (185.1 KB) 
Unregistered 02:20 PM April 13th, 2012
sir i want syllabus and sample paper for Msc nursing in community first year
registered 05:53 PM April 27th, 2012
i want syllabus for aiims msc nursing entrance nd last 10 yrs question paper with solution
Unregistered 04:00 PM February 28th, 2014
Originally Posted by lbihbih:
please send me a syllabus for AIIMS Msc nursing and a sample paper for msc entrance exams.thank you
im a bsc nursing final year student. i would like to join in msc nursing at aiims.Please snde me asample question paper of AIIMS Msc nursing entrance examination
Unregistered 04:49 PM February 28th, 2014
Will you please share the Syllabus for All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) M.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam???
Sashwat 04:50 PM February 28th, 2014
All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) New Delhi is conducting an entrance exam for admission to its 2 year M.Sc. Nursing programme. The postgraduate degree programme is offered in the following fields of specializations:

Cardiological / CTVS nursing
Nephrological nursing
Pediatric nursing
Psychiatric nursing
Critical care nursing
Neuro-sciences nursing
Oncological nursing

Syllabus for All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) M.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam


Electromagnetic Waves
Dual Nature of Matter
Atoms and Nuclei
Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating current
Current Electricity
Communication Systems
Magnetic effect of current & Magnetism
Electronic Devices

Coordination Compounds
D- and F-Block Elements
Aldehydes, Ketons and Carboxylic Acids
Chemical Kinetics
P-Block Elements
Solid State
Organic Compounds containing Nitrogen
Surface Chemistry
General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
Chemistry in Everyday Life
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Cell Theory
Classification of Binomial and Trinomial Nomenclature
Role of Plants in Human Welfare
Five Kingdom Classifications
Mendel's Law of Inheritance
Structural Organization of Cell
Mineral Nutrition, Essential Elements and their Function
Difference between Prokaryote and Eukaryote

General Knowledge
Economic Scene
General policy and scientific research

All India Institute of Medical Sciences
Ansari Nagar East, Gautam Nagar,
New Delhi, Delhi 110029 ‎
011 2658 8500 ‎


Unregistered 04:50 PM February 28th, 2014
Will you please share the sample paper for All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) M.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam???
Sashwat 04:53 PM February 28th, 2014
As per your request, here I am sharing the sample paper for All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) M.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam

1. True regarding the following statements is all except
1. 500 ml of normal saline contains 77 mEq of Na+
2. 50 ml 25% dextrose gives 50 kcals of energy
3. 20 ml 15% potassium chloride contains 40 meq of K+
4. 10 ml of calcium chloride contains 9 meq of Ca++
Ans. 2

2. External ear is developed from
1. First branchial arch
2. First and second branchial arch
3. Second and Third branchial arch
4. Second branchial arch
Ans. 2

3. True about tympanic membrane is all except
1. Tympanic membrane is attached to annulus ring made of fibrous cartilage
2. Lined by stratified epithelium in continuity with external auditory canal
3. It is inclined at an angle of 35 degrees to the meatus
4. It has sensory supply via the auriculotemporal branch of the Mandibular Nerve
Ans. 3

4. A 12 year old child came presenting with nasal obstruction. On examination there was a bilobed polyp protruding from the right nasal cavity. The management of this child is
1. Medical treatment till she is 18 years of age
2. Caldwell luc operation to be done
3. Endoscopic sinus operation
4. Polypectomy
Ans. 4

5. Treatment of choice for a patient with inverted papilloma of right side of nasal cavity is
1. Partial Maxillectomy
2. Total Maxillectomy
3. Local excision
4. Radiotherapy
Ans. 2

6. A child presenting with history of nasal obstruction since 5 years and with epistaxis since 1 year. CT scan showed a tumor arising in left nasal cavity and extending into the nasopharynx as well. It was decided that she requires surgery. The best approach required for resection of
the tumor is
1. Transpalatal
2. Sublabial
3. Transmaxillary
4. Lateral rhinotomy
Ans. 4

7. A child presented with history of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge from the same side. The diagnosis is
1. Antrachoanal polyp
2. Foreign body
3. Angiofibroma
4. Rhinosporidiosis
Ans. 3
8. In which of the following operations is the Eustachian tube closed
1. Modified radical mastoidectomy
2. Radical mastoidectomy
3. Endolymphatic decompression
4. Attico antrotomy
Ans. 2
9. Modified Radical operation is done in all the following conditions except
1. Cholesteatoma
2. Coalescent mastoidectomy
3. Deafness with fascial palsy
4. Cholestatoma with sensory neural deafness
Ans. 2
10. Schwartz sign is seen in
1. Glomus jugulare
2. Otosclerosis
3. Tympanic granuloma
Ans. 2
11. Tympanic membrane and ossicles efficiently transmit sound to the inner ear at which of the following frequencies
1. 200-1000 hrz
2. 500-3000 hrz
3. 2000-3000 hrz
4. 3000-5000 hrz
Ans. 2
12. In a patient with acoustic neuroma all are seen except
1. Fascial nerve may be involved
2. Tinnitus is present
3. Deafness
4. Acute episodes of vertigo occur
Ans. 1
13. A patient is suspected to have vestibular shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
1. Contrast enhanced CT scan
2. Gadolinium enhanced MRI
4. PET scan
Ans. 2
14. In a patient with trauma with middle cranial fossa fracture complains of loss of tear secretion. This occurs due to injury to
1. Ciliary ganglion
2. Greater superficial Petrosal nerve
3. Stellate ganglion
4. Trigeminal nerve
Ans. 2
15. Sensory nerve supply over the angle of mandible is due to
1. Superficial cervical nerve
2. Greater auricular nerve
3. Posterior auricular nerve
4. Lingual nerve
Ans. 2
16. True regarding venous drainage of thyroid is all except
1. Middle thyroid vein drains into internal jugular vein
2. Inferior thyroid vein drains into external jugular vein
3. The veins of thyroid are valveless
4. Superficial thyroid vein is closely related with external branch of superficial laryngeal
Ans. 2
17. All the following tumors of the larynx involve cervical lymph nodes except
1. Transglottic
2. Glottic
3. Supraglottic
4. Infraglottic
Ans. 2
18. Most common tumor to have metastatic involvement of upper deep cervical lymph nodes is
1. Pharynx
2. Colon
3. Breast
4. Kidney
Ans. 1
19. All are causes of grey white membrane in throat except
1. Streptococcus
2. Ludwig angina
3. adenovirus
4. Diphtheria Ans. 2
20. Which of the following acts on the uveoscleral tract
1. Levobunol
2. Epinephrine
3. Latanoprost
4. Timolol maleate Ans. 3
21. Fibrous attachment of lid to the eye globe is known as
1. Symbelpharon
2. Ankyloblepharon
3. Ectropion
4. Syndesmosis Ans. 1
22. In a susceptible patient which of the following drugs precipitate glaucoma
1. Phenylalanine
2. Phentolamine
3. Homatropine
4. Epinephrine Ans. 3
23. In a patient with cataract, capsulotomy with removal of lens nucleus followed by aspiration of cortical content is known as
1. Intracapsular cataract extraction
2. Extracapsular cataract extraction
3. Discission
4. Lensectomy Ans. 2
24. Dilator pupillae is supplied by
1. Adrenergic fibres of Oculomotor nerve
2. Cholinergic fibers of Oculomotor nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Fascial nerve Ans. 1
25. A patient presented with unilateral ptosis and diplopia and on examination was found to have decreased movement of eyeball in all directions. The patient also complains of difficulty reading newsprint. The diagnosis is
1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Oculomotor palsy Ans. 2
26. In Oculomotor palsy all the following are seen except
1. Ptosis
2. Eye deviated upward and medially
3. Mydriasis
4. Proptosis Ans. 2
27. Cherry red spot is seen in
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Central retinal artery occlusion
3. Optic neuritis
4. Adreno leukodystrophy Ans. 2
28. Anisometropia means
1. Both the eye are not oriented in the same parallel axis
2. There is high difference of refractive errors between the two eye
3. Sublaxation of one of the eye
4. Difference in image sizes’ Ans. 2
29. In a patient presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus. All are true except
1. It is caused by varicella
2. It is lodged in the gasserian ganglion
3. Corneal involvement is always associated with tip of nasal involvement and ulcers
4. Punctate Keratitis may coalesce and unite to form dendritic ulcers which simulate
Herpes simplex Ans. 4
30. Night blindness is caused by all except
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Cone dystrophy
3. Xeroderma pigmentosa
4. *** Ans. 2
31. Fleicher’s ring is seen in
1. Pterygium
2. Chalcosis
3. Keratoconus
4. Trauma Ans. 3
32. All the following are true regarding acute anterior uveitis in Ankylosing spondylitis except
1. More common in females
2. Recurrent attacks occur
3. Fibrous reaction in anterior chamber
4. Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of sacroiliac joint Ans. 1
33. In a patient with color blindness all the following are true except
1. It is a misnomer as it is actually a color defect and not blindness
2. There is normal visual acuity
3. Most common anomaly is blue green defect
4. More common in males Ans. 3
34. True regarding point source epidemic is
1. Secondary waves occur
2. There is a rapid rise in the wave which platues
3. All cases occur in a single incubation period of the disease
4. It is propagative Ans. 3
35. Positive predictive value is most affected by
1. Prevalence
2. Sensitivity
3. Specificity
4. Relative risk Ans. 1
36. Which of the following is true about case control studies
1. Attributable risk is calculated
2. Gives central tendency
3. Prevalence can be calculated
4. Incidence can be calculated Ans. 2
37. In a population to prevent coronary artery disease changing harmful lifestyles by education is referred to as
1. High risk strategy
2. Primary prevention
3. Secondary prevention
4. Tertiary prevention Ans. 2
38. All the following get immune protection from maternal antibodies except
1. Pertussis
2. Tetanus
3. Measles
4. Diphtheria Ans. 1
39. Live vaccines are all except
1. Oral polio vaccine
2. MMR
3. DPT
4. Hepatitis B Ans. 1&2
40. Which of the following is true about tuberculin test
1. It gives the immune status of patient
2. It may be negative in dissociated tuberculosis
3. It tells about prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis only
4. It is highly positive in a post measles case Ans. 2
41. True about measles is all except
1. Kopliks spots appear as rash disappears
2. It is prevented by both active and passive immunization
3. Otitis media and meningitis are the most common complications
4. TB is aggravated in post measles Ans. 1
42. True regarding pertussis is all except
1. It is associated with an inspiratory whoop
2. It is a droplet infection
3. Parapertussis causes more sever disease then pertussis
4. Pneumonia is most complication Ans. 3
43. Disease under WHO surveillance are all except
1. Malaria
2. Relapsing fever
3. Polio
4. Diphtheria Ans. 4
44. In a 2 year old child calories as supplied in ICDS diet is
1. 200 k cal
2. 300-400 k cal
3. 500-600 k cal
4. 1000 k cal Ans. 2
45. All the following are true regarding echinococcus granulosis except
1. Man is intermediate host
2. Infection is most commonly from dogs
3. Eggs ingestion are the portal of entry
4. Demonstartion of eggs in stool is diagnostic Ans. 4
46. Which of the following helps in diagnosis , in biopsy of brain specimen in Rabies
1. Asteroid bodies
2. Sheurmann bodies
3. Negri bodies
4. Lewy bodies Ans. 3
47. Diagnostic investigation in Tuberculosis is
1. Auramine Rhodamine stain
2. Sputum examination
3. Sputum culture
4. PCR Ans. 4
48. All the following are true about malaria due to plasmodium vivax except
1. Merozoites can reinfect hepatocytes
2. Infected erythrocytes are pale and enlarged in size
3. Incubation period is 48 hrs
4. Commonly associated with greater then 10% parasitemia Ans. 1
49. In a pregnant lady diagnosed to have malaria due to P.vivax should be treated with
1. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine
2. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine and pyramethamine
3. Treatment with chloroquine and radical treatment with oribiquin
4. Presumptive treatment with Quinine Ans. 3
50. True regarding endotoxin is
1. It is composed of lipopolysacharide which is part of cell membrane
2. Implicated in causation of Toxic shock syndrome
3. It is secreted by the bacteria
4. It is present in gram positive organisms Ans. 1
51. All the following can be grown in cell free culture media except
1. Mycoplasma
2. Rickettsia
3. Mycobacteria
4. Campylobacter Ans. 2
52. Which of following is a motile organism
1. Pseudomonas
2. Klebsiella
3. Streptococcus
4. Campylobacter Ans. 1
53. In a splenectomized patient there is increased chances of infection by all the following organisms except
1. Pneumococci
2. Klebsiella
3. H.Influenza
4. Staphylococcus aureus Ans. 4
54. The common causes of Acute otitis media in children are
1. Branhamella and Moraxella
2. Streptococci and pertussis
3. Streptococci Pneumoniae and H.Influenza
4. E.coli and Pseudomonas Ans. 3
55. Most common cause of community acquired neonatal meningitis is
1. Pseudomonas
2. Entamoeba coli
3. Neisseria Meningitis
4. Klebsiella Ans. 4
56. In India which of the following is true regarding the cause of travelers diarrhea
1. Giardiasis
2. E.coli
3. Amebiasis
4. Idiopathic without any causative organism Ans. 2
57. The bubo caused by plague differs from those due to other causes by all except
1. Gradual onset
2. Tenderness
3. Absence of signs of ascending cholangitis
4. Associated systemic toxic symptoms Ans. 1
58. A child presented with diarrhea followed by development of rashes and petechiae. The diagnosis is
1. Campylobacter
2. Shigella
3. Giardia
4. Vibrio cholera Ans. 2
59. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is
1. Salmonella
2. Staphylococci
3. Pseudomonas
4. E.coli Ans. 2
60. True regarding Typhoid is
1. Stool culture is always indicative of disease
2. Blood culture be used for diagnosis in the 1st 7 to 10 days
3. Urine culture is positive in second week
4. Serology in 1st week Ans. 2
61. Mucosal immunity is due to
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE Ans. 2
62. All are stimulants of immune system except
1. Il-1
2. Il-6
3. Il-10
4. TNF alpha Ans. 3
63. All the following are true about primary CNS lymphoma except
1. Most common type is diffuse histiocytic type
2. Most are of T-cell origin
3. Multicentric location
4. Causes focal signs Ans. 2
64. To obtain double stranded cDNA from mRNA the enzyme involved is
1. DNA polymerase
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Ligase
4. Polymerase II Ans. 2
65. The mother is suffering from HIV. The earliest time where infection is seen in the fetus is
1. 8 weeks
2. 15 weeks
3. 28 weeks
4. 22 weeks Ans. 1
66. Autoimmune arthritis is seen in
1. Rhuematoid arthritis
2. Osteoarthritis
3. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Suppurative arthritis Ans. 1
67. Genetic aberration leading to severe immunological deficiency is seen in
1. Xanthine oxidase
2. Adenosine deaminase
3. Superoxide dismutase Ans. 2
68. Maternal antibodies causing heart block in newborn is
1. Antihistone antibodies
2. Anti Rho antibodies
3. Anti Jo
4. Anti ds DNA Ans. 2
69. All the following are true regarding drug induced lupus except
1. CNS involvement is rare
2. Procainamide and Hydralazine are the most common causes
3. Nephritis is common
4. Anti histone antibodies are present Ans. 3
70. All the following are true about soft tissue tumors except
1. Liposarcoma is the most common and arises from lipoma
2. In adult rhabdomyosarcomas are resistant to radiotherapy and spread to lymphnodes
3. Dermatofibrosarcoma protruberance is a malignant tumor and often presents with
4. Rhabdomyosarcoma is common in children Ans. 3
71. Structure present in bed of stomach is(**)
1. Left suprarenal gland
2. Splenic artery
3. Transverse mesocolon
4. 4th part of the duodenum Ans. 4
72. Which of the following is the most common cause of suppurative cholangitis
1. Hepatic vein
2. CBD stone
3. Sepsis
4. Empyema Ans. 2
73. Caput medusea is obvious in all the following except
1. Budd Chiari syndrome
2. Extra hepatic portal vein thrombosis
3. Non cirrhotic peri portal fibrosis
4. Alcoholic cirrhosis Ans. 2
74. True regarding Familial adenomatous polyposis are all the following except
1. 100% chances of malignancy over a period of time
2. Adenomatous polyps occur in colon
3. Equal incidence in males and females
4. Total colectomy early in childhood is the treatment of choice Ans. 4
75. All the following are causes of steatorrhea except
1. Chronic pancreatitis
2. Tropical sprue
3. Whipple’s disease
4. Intestinal amebiasis Ans. 4
76. On radiography widened duodenal ‘C’ loop with irregular mucosa on hypotonic
duodenography is due to
1. Chronic pancreatitis
2. Carcinoma head of pancreas
3. Duodenal ulcer
4. Duodenal ileus Ans. 2
77. Causes of pancreatitis are all the following except
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Chronic alcoholism
3. Hypocalcemia
4. CBD stone Ans. 3
78. Biliary secretion of liver is induced by
1. CCK
2. Glucagon
3. Secretin
4. Insulin Ans. 3
79. After splenectomy earliest changes seen are, increase in
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Platelets
4. Nuetrophils Ans. 3
80. True regarding management of traumatic pnuemothorax is
1. Immediate ICD tube insertion
2. CT scan should be done to confirm pulmonary leak
3. Intermittent needle aspiration
4. Open thoracotomy done and pulmonary leak sealed Ans. 1
81. True regarding deep burn is all the following except
1. Loss of pain
2. Charred appearance
3. Loss of skin reaction
4. Presence of blisters Ans. 4
82. Acute gastric dilatation is best prevented by
1. Nasogastric tube
2. Gastrostomy
3. Stopping of oral feeds until improvement in condition
4. Steroids Ans. 1
83. Which of the following azoles is the best for treatment of Aspergillosis
1. Itraconazole
2. Ketoconazole
3. Micanazole
4. Fluconazole Ans. 1
84. Beta II receptors are found in
1. Arterioles
2. Veins
3. SA node
4. Myocardium Ans. 1
85. Theophylline levels are increased in all the following except
1. Erythromycin
2. Cimetidine
3. Congestive heart failure
4. Smoking Ans. 4
86. Peripheral neuropathy is caused by all the following except
1. Vincristine
2. Methotrexate
3. Alcohol
4. INH Ans. 2
87. Which of the following ATT drugs is completely avoided in pregnancy
1. Rifampicin
2. INH
3. Pyrazinamide
4. Streptomycin Ans. 4
88. All the following are complications of Phenytoin except
1. Megaloblastic anemia
2. Ataxia
3. Ostoemalacia
4. Hypoglycemia Ans. 4
89. Tamoxifen used in the treatment of breast carcinoma leads to
1. Ostoeporosis
2. Endometrial hyperplasia
3. Fibroadenoma breast
4. Ovarian tumours Ans. 2
90. All the following complications are seen with use of oral contraceptives except
1. MI
2. Venous thrombosis
3. Stroke
4. Intracranial hemorrhage Ans. 4
91. Insulin mediated glucose entry is most important in which of the following organs
1. Erythrocytes
2. Hepatocytes
3. Brain
4. Muscle Ans. 4
92. Corticosteroids given to mother prevent all the following complications in the newborn except
1. Hyaline membrane disease
2. Intraventricular hemorrhage
3. Necrotizing enterocolitis
4. Bronchopulmonary aplasia Ans. 4
93. All the following are bactericidal except
1. Rifampicin
2. Cephalexin
3. INH
4. Oxytetracycline Ans. 4
94. All the following are used in preaneasthetic medication except
1. Morphine
2. Atropine
3. Diazepam
4. Vecuronium Ans. 1
95. Lowest dose of ethinyl estradiol used in combination contraceptive which has been shown to be effective is
1. 20 micro gms
2. 30 micro gms
3. 50 micro gms
4. 35 micro gms Ans. 1
96. Morphine for pain is not to be used in which of the following conditions
1. Biliary colic
2. Terminal cancer pain
3. Post operative pain
4. Myocardial infarction Ans. 1
97. Post exposure hepatit is is seen in
1. Methoxyflurane
2. Halothane
3. Succinylcoline
4. Ether Ans. 2
98. Drug induced Lupus is caused by
1. Procainamide
2. Rifampicin
3. Oral contraceptives
4. Ranitidine Ans. 1
99. Dissociate anesthesia is caused by
1. Ketamine
2. Halothane
3. Succinyl choline
4. Mivacuruim Ans. 1
100. All the following anesthetics sensitize the heart except
1. Methoxyflurane
2. Diethylether
3. Halothane
4. Chloroform Ans. 2
101. Hoffman’s mechanism of drug elimination is seen in which of the following drugs
1. Gallamine
2. Mivacurium
3. Methoxyflurane
4. Atracuruim Ans. 4
102. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by all the following except
1. Nitrous oxide
2. Phenobarbitone
3. Primidone
4. INH Ans. 4
103. Drug of choice for acute gout is
1. Probenicid
2. Allopurinol
3. Sulphinpyrazone
4. Indomethacin Ans. 4
104. The treatment of choice for Intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis is
1. Diloxanide furoate
2. Chloroquin
3. Metronidazole
4. Tetracycline Ans. 3
105. Which of the following factors require Vitamin K for its synthesis
1. Prothrombin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Thromboplastin
4. Hagerman’s factor Ans. 1
106. Deficiency of which of the following factors does not cause an abnormality of the intrinsic pathway
1. Factor IX
2. Factor VII
3. Factor XI
4. Factor VIII Ans. 2
107. All the following are used in the treatment of hypertensive emergencies except
1. Prazosin
2. Nitroglycerin
3. Sodium Nitropruside
4. Nifedipine Ans. 1
108. Isotonic saline when infused IV show which of the following changes
1. Increase in osmolality in ECF
2. Decrease in Osmolality in ECF
3. No change in osmolality in ECF
4. Decrease in osmolality in ICF Ans. 3
109. A patient with scrotal filaraisis was treated with DEC. Which of the following would show that the adult filaria is killed
1. Disappearance of microfilaria from blood
2. Appearance of filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound
3. Disappearance of filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound
4. Absence of microfilaria in scrotal fluid Ans. 3
110. Interferons are used for all the following except
1. Fungal infections
2. Viral infections
3. Immunomodulation
4. To induce differentiation of immune cells Ans. 1
111. Amide linked local anesthetics are all the following except
1. Procaine
2. Lidocaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Mepivacaine Ans. 1
112. All the following act on membrane receptors except
2. TSH
3. GnRH
4. Glucagon Ans. 3
113. Which of the following act via cAMP
1. LH
2. Testosterone
3. Thyroxin
4. Estrogen Ans. 1
114. Which of the following belongs to steroid superfamily
1. Insulin
2. Vitamin D3
3. Epinephrine
4. Growth hormone Ans. 2
115. Epinephrine causes glycogenolysis by
1. Adenyl cyclase
2. Conversion of diphospoglycogen synthase to phosphoglycogen synthase
3. Phosphorylase
4. Adenyl kinase Ans. 1
116. Agranulocytosis is caused by all the following except
1. Gold
2. Carbimazole
3. Phenytoin
4. Rifampicin Ans. 4
117. All the following are natural vasodilators except
1. Endothelin
2. Bradykinin
3. Histamine
4. Nitric oxide Ans. 1
118. In a patient with allergic asthma the most important mediators are
1. Prostaglandins
2. Leukotrienes
3. Thromboxanes
4. Bradykinin Ans. 2
119. Paranoid psychosis occurs on consumption of
1. Barbiturates
2. Carbamazine
3. Cocaine
4. Amphetamines Ans. 4
120. All the following are true regarding digoxin except
1. Dose is reduced in liver failure
2. Increased contractility of cardia
3. Decreased heart rate
4. Dose reduced in renal failure Ans. 1
121. In coronary artery disease the role of Beta blockers in decreasing the symptoms is by all the following mechanism’s except
1. Decreasing the resting heart rate
2. Increasing the coronary blood flow
3. Decreasing cardiac force
4. Preventing exercise induced tachycardia Ans. 2
122. Which of the following muscles are used in the action involved in sucking of a straw
1. Orbicularis oris and buccinator
2. Orbicularis and depressor angular oris
3. Levator angularis oris and depressor angularis oris
4. Levator angularis and Zygomaticus Ans. 4
123. Axillary nerve supplies deltoid muscle and
1. Teres major
2. Pectoralis minor
3. Subscapularis
4. Teres minor Ans. 4
124. Injury to common peronial nerve causes which of the following
1. Loss of sensation over sole
2. Foot drop
3. Weakness of medial compartment muscles
4. Loss of sensation over lat aspect of foot Ans. 2
125. Structures seen in posterior triangle of neck are all the following except
1. Accessory nerve
2. Posterior belly of omohyoid
3. Stylohyoid
4. Transverse cervical artery Ans. 3
126. All the following muscles are involved in forced inspiration except
1. Diaphragm
2. Pectoralis minor
3. Sternomastoid muscle
4. Lattisimuss Dorsi Ans. 4
127. All the following muscles are involved in dorsiflexion except
1. Tibialis anterior
2. Extensor hallusis longus
3. Peroneus tertius
4. Plantaris Ans. 4
128. Sensory supply of duramater of middle cranial fossa is by
1. Maxillary nerve
2. Anterior ethmoidal
3. Anterior cervical
4. Mandibular Ans. 4
129. Longest ligament around the hip joint is
1. Iliofemoral
2. Ischiofemoral
3. Pubofemoral
4. Ligamentum teres Ans. 1
130. Ligamentum teres arises from
1. Umblical artery
2. Ductus venosus
3. Umblical vien
4. Lessor omentum Ans. 3
131. True about structures around knee joint is
1. Anterior cruciate arises from anterior aspect of intercondylar crest
2. Popliteus is related posteriorly to lateral ligament
3. Anterior end of medial meniscus is broader then posterior
4. Suprapatellar bursa is in front of Quadriceps tendon Ans. 1
132. Which of the following is a hinge joint
1. Elbow
2. Metacarpophalengeal joint
3. Atlanto axial
4. Wrist Ans. 1
133. Parasympathetic fibres arise from all the following cranial nerves except
1. Vagus
2. Oculomotor
3. Hypoglossal
4. Glossopharyngeal Ans. 3
134. Which of the following is true about diverticulosis
1. High fibre containing diet is associated with increased incidence of Diverticulosis
2. It is premalignant
3. In India >20% of the population above the age of 40 years is affected by diverticulosis
4. Management is essentially conservative in divertuculosis Ans. 4
135. All the following are true regarding Hernia except
1. Femoral hernia is lateral to and below the pubic tubercle
2. Indirect hernia is medial to inferior epigastric blood vessels
3. Contents of the sac are anterolateral to the cord
4. Ovary and fallopian tubes may prolapse into inguinal canal as hernia Ans. 2
136. Structures passing through esophageal hiatus are all except
1. Esophagus
2. Left gastric artery
3. Vagus
4. Thoracic duct Ans. 4
137. Vagus nerve stimulation causes all the following except
1. Intestinal motility
2. Bradycardia
3. Bronchodilatation
4. Hypotension Ans. 3
138. Most common site of involvement in Myocardial infarction is
1. Posterior part of intraventricular septum
2. Lateral wall of Left ventricle
3. Inferior wall
4. Anterior wall of left ventricle Ans. 4
139. Apex of heart is supplied by
1. Left anterior descending artery
2. Right coronary artery
3. Left circumflex artery
4. All of the above Ans. 1
140. All the following are true about micturation reflex except
1. Stretch receptors of detrusor muscle
2. Pudendal nerve
3. Pelvic nerves
4. Parasympathetic nerve arising from sacral segment Ans. 3
141. Which of the following is true about prostatic urethra
1. Ejaculatory duct opens into it
2. Urethral crest is present in the anterior aspect of the prostatic urethra
3. Develops from ectoderm
4. Is lined by the cuboidal epithelium Ans. 1
142. All the following are true about the blood supply to brain except
1. Consumes 20% of oxygen
2. It weighs about 2% of body weight
3. Has a blood flow of 2% of the cardiac output
4. The bloodflow is 50 ml/100 gms of tissue Ans. 3
143. All the following are true about the blood supply of liver except
1. Hepatic artery gives 1/3rd of blood supply to liver
2. Liver utilizes 10% of cardiac output
3. Umblical vein forms ligamentum teres
4. Hepatic artery gives rise to cystic artery Ans. 2
144. All the following are true about the colon except
1. Mucosa is lined by columnar epithelium
2. Submucosa is strongest portion of wall and contains blood vessels
3. Muscularis propria consists of an inner circular muscular layer and an outer longitunal muscular layer
4. The serosal lining of the rectum is tough and prevents spread of tumor to surrounding
pelvis Ans. 4
145. Branchiomeric nerve supply is via
1. Nucleus Solitarius
2. Nucleus Ambiguous
3. Hypoglossal nerve
4. Trigeminal nerve? Ans. 2
146. The blood testis barrier is seen in
1. Leydig cells
2. Spermatogonia
3. Serotli cells
4. Spermatozoa Ans. 3
147. All the following are true regarding antiarrhythmics except
1. Mexiletine belongs to class Ib and acts by decreasing refractory period
2. Quinidine belongs to class Ic and acts by prolonging APD
3. Verapamil belongs to class II and acts by blocking fast Na+ channels
4. Amiodarone belongs to class III and acts by prolonging APD Ans. 3
148. Which of the following is/are true about Miniature end plate potential
1. It forms in neuromuscular end plate of the resting muscle
2. It disappears on giving Acetylcholine
3. It follows different laws as compared to end plate potentials
4. All of the above Ans. 4
149. True regarding Refractory period is all the following except
1. It is equal to duration of APD
2. Membranes are in a depolarized state
3. The duration is equal to 1 second
4. It is refractory to all stimuli Ans. 3
150. All the following are true regarding renal homeostasis except
1. Rennin is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells
2. Juxta glomerular cells are present in afferent arteriole
3. It secretes rennin which acts to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin II
4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor Ans. 3
151. Which of the following is true about Aortic pressure
1. It is 120 mmHg and correlates with protodiastolic pressure
2. It is zero during isovolumetric relaxation
3. It reflects ventricular filling
4. It is responsible for coronary blood flow Ans. 4
152. 80% of serotonin is present in
1. Brain
2. Spleen
3. Small intestine
4. Muscle Ans. 3
153. Which of the following is an endocrine organ
1. Lamina dura
2. Small intestine
3. Ciliary body
4. Breast Ans. 2
154. Normal anion gap in humans is (in meq’s)
1. 5-10
2. 8-14
3. 20-30
4. 14-20 Ans. 2
155. All the following are true about striated muscle except
1. ATP and creatinine phosphate is responsible for structural alterations in muscle fibre
2. Calcium combines with troponin and causes change in tropomyosin
3. The T-tubules are modified endoplasmic reticulum
4. Calcium present in the endoplasmic reticulum is called as ganoplasm Ans. 3
156. Sclerotic bones are found in all the following except
1. Pagets disease
2. Osteopetrosis
3. Osteoporosis
4. Metastasis Ans. 3
157. Decreased bone age is in all the following except
1. Hypopituitarism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Sever constitutional illness Ans. 3
158. It is difficult to treat Diaphyseal aclasis when it causes which of the following
1. Growth disturbances
2. Nerve involvment
3. Vascular compression
4. ** Ans. 1
159. Which of the following is treatment for osteoclastoma of lower end of radius
1. Amputation
2. Local resection
3. Chemotherapy
4. Radiotherapy Ans. 2
160. Which of the following is true about Human bone
1. Diaphysis is present in the middle of the bone and contains spongy bone
2. Metaphysis is below the epiphyseal plate and contains compact bone
3. Epiphysis is present at end of long bone and is made of spongy bone covered with a
articular cartilage
4. The flat bones are spongy in the middle and are covered by compact bone Ans.*
161. Which of the following is true about enchondral bone osscification
1. Occurs in flat bone
2. Growth is continous till late
3. It occurs on the cartilage formed prior to initiation of process
4. It is of more compact nature Ans. 3
162. All the following are true about Unicameral bone cyst except
1. It occurs in 5-15 years of age
2. Occurs in upper end of Humerous
3. Rapidly outgrows diameter of Shaft
4. More common in males Ans. 3
163. Aviators fracture is
1. # neck of talus
2. Calcaneal #
3. 5th metatarsal #
4. Tibial bone # Ans. 1
164. All the following are true about multiple myeloma except
1. Hyperuricemia
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Hyperphosphatemia
4. Hyper gamma globulinemia Ans. 3
165. In the management of a case of fracture mandible, importance must be given most to
1. Getting the preocclusion closure
2. Radiological confirmation after reduction of fracture
3. Open reduction to visualize proper alignment
4. External skin approximation to get good cosmetic result Ans. 1
166. Potts spine most commonly occurs in which of the following locations
1. Paradiscal
2. Posterior
3. Anterior
4. Central Ans. 1
167. A 6 year old child presents with congenital dislocation of hip. All the following operations are done except
1. Salters osteotomy
2. Colanna’s osteotomy
3. Chiari’s osteotomy
4. Open reduction and arthrodesis Ans. 4
168. All the following are true about Osteogenesis imperfecta except
1. Deafness
2. Increased fragile fractures
3. Decreased healing
4. Ligament laxity Ans. 4
169. Type II collagen is seen in all the following except
1. Bone
2. Cartilage
3. Tendon
4. Loose areolar tissue Ans. 2
170. All the following are true are true about Paclitaxel except
1. It acts on the mitotic phase
2. Improves microtubule formation
3. Oral Bioavailability is very high
4. Extensively metabolized by liver Ans. 3
171. All the following are causes of pleural effusion except
1. Thyroid tumors
2. Bronchial carcinoma
3. Carcinoma breast
4. Lymphoma Ans. 1
172. All the following are causes of hemorrhagic pleural effusion except
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Pancreatitis
4. TB Ans. 2
173. All the following are true regarding Appendix except
1. Recurrent appendicular artery is a branch of Right colic artery
2. It is an end artery
3. The appendix on histology shows abundant lymphoid tissue
4. It contains Kulchitzky cells in the mucosa which may give rise to Carcinoid tumor Ans. 1
174. All the following are true about middle colic artery except
1. It is an end artery
2. It is a branch of superior mesenteric artery
3. It supplies the jejunum
4. It anastomoses with the superior rectal artery Ans. 2
175. All the following are true about inheritance pattern except
1. Autosomal recessive inheritance is associated with severe disease
2. X linked recessive disease is more common in males
3. In Autosomal recessive disease 50% children are affected
4. In Autosomal dominant male and female have equal incidence Ans. 3
176. In scurvy all the following radiological signs are seen except
1. Pelican spur
2. Soap bubble appearance
3. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
4. Frenkel’s line is present Ans. 2
177. On x ray examination of a solitary pulmonary nodule which of the following favors a benign nature
1. Eccentric calcification
2. Bulls eye calcification
3. Lesion is associated with atelectasis
4. Associated with pleural effusion Ans. 2
178. In a patient with carcinoma cervix , radiotherapy is to be given . At a point 2.5 cms from source the radiation exposure is 1000 rads. What would be the radiation exposure at a point 5
cms from the source
1. 250 rads
2. 500 rads
3. 750 rads
4. 1000 rads Ans. 1
179. If the mother is having blood group A, and the father blood group AB. Which of the
following blood group would the offspring be unlikely to have
1. O
2. AB
3. A
4. B Ans. 1
180. All the following are true about Ischemic heart disease in India as compared to other more developed countries
1. It occurs a decade earlier in India as compared to the developed countries
2. Males are more commonly affected
3. It is often associated with insulin resistance
4. India has a lower prevalence of CAD as compared to the developed countries Ans. 4
181. In a patient with infective endocarditis vegetations of mitral valve would embolise to all the organs except
1. Small intestine
2. Spleen
3. Lung
4. Brain Ans. 3
182. All the following are true about histopathological findings in a case of muscular dystrophy except
1. Non uniform muscle fiber size
2. Centralization of skeletal muscle nuclei
3. Infiltration of fatty tissue in between muscle fibers
4. Hypertrophy of some fibers Ans. 2
183. All the following are true about claudication except
1. It appears as a cramp like pain
2. It can occur on sitting for a long time in a cramped up position
3. If it occurs in upper limb it is known as writers spasm
4. It is relieved on taking rest Ans.*
184. All the following are true about Psoriasis except
1. Scalp is commonly involved
2. Nails are involved
3. Can cause arthritis
4. It commonly occurs in flexural areas Ans. 4
185. In a skin graft transfer the word ‘take ‘ of graft refers to
1. Healing of graft
2. Vascularization of graft
3. Dense attachment of graft to surrounding tissue
4. Epithelial ingrowth in the margins Ans. 2
186. Koebners phenomenon is seen in
1. Erythema marginatum
2. Pemphigus
3. Lichen planus
4. Pityriasis Rosea Ans. 3
187. All are type II hypersensitivity reactions except
1. Rheamatoid arthritis
2. Goodpastuers disease
3. Contact dermatitis
4. Blood transfusion reactions Ans. 3
188. Increase serum alpha fetoprotein is seen in all the following except
1. Open spina bifida
2. Esophageal atresia
3. Post maturity
4. Bronchial aplasia Ans. 3
189. A patient was found to have carcinoma cervix stage Ib. The treatment of choice for her condition is
1. Surgery alone
2. Surgery and radiotherapy
3. Radiotherapy
4. Chemotherapy Ans. 1
190. Which of the following is true about gonococci
1. It causes vulvovaginitis in young girls
2. Causes interstitial Pneumonia in new born
3. Causes non specific urethritis Ans. 1
191. In a patient 28 years old presenting with infertility and recurrent history of PID with lower pelvic pain must be investigated for which of the following infections
1. Gonococci
2. HIV
3. TB
4. Chlamydia Ans.*
192. A patient with infertility is treated with Clomiphene .Which of the following methods
would be best for her follow up
1. Cervical mucous viscosity
2. Basal body temperature
3. Ultrasound to monitor follicle growth size
4. Hormonal assay Ans. 3
193. All the following are true about plasmids except
1. It contains extrachromosomal DNA
2. It is separate from the host DNA
3. It is present only in the gram positive organisms
4. It is responsible for transfer of bacterial resistance Ans. 3
194. All the following are true about causes of Hyperkalemia except
1. Renal failure
2. Metabolic acidosis
3. Hyperaldosteronism
4. Type IV renal tubular acidosis Ans. 3
195. Exclusive breast feeding should be done for a minimum period of at least
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. 2 years Ans. 1
196. Which the following are true about findings of Polyarteritis nodosa
1. There is tear in the lamina dura
2. Aneurysm formation in the blood vessel
3. Nodules are formed which are clinically palpable
4. All of the above Ans. 4
197. Splitting of second heart sound is seen in all the following except (*****)
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Pulmonary hypertension
3. ASD
4. RBBB Ans. 1
198. The amniotic fliud is chiefly produced by
1. Placenta
2. Fetal kidney
3. Chorion frondosum
4. Fetal skin Ans. 2
199. A 6 year old child complains of difficulty in swallowing and on examination there is a sublingual swelling, which is suspected to be Lingual thyroid. The 1st step in the management
of this child would be
1. Tracheostomy and airway maintenance
2. Thyroid scan
3. Intubation
4. Explain to child that he may require immediate surgery Ans. 2
200. In a asthmatic patient who is pregnant, to do an MTP procedure which of the following agents is most preferable
1. Prostaglandins
2. Ethacrydin lactate
3. Isotonic saline
4. Oxytocin Ans. 2
201. --- Ans.*
202. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is most commonly seen with
1. Mesothelioma
2. Bronchogenic carcinoma
3. Hepatocellular carcinoma
4. COPD Ans. 2
203. The least invasive procedure to diagnose active H.pylori infection after giving treatment is
1. Urease study of gastric biopsy specimen
2. Urea breath test with C14
3. Urea breath test with C13
4. Serology Ans. 2
204. In perinatal mortality rate all the following are true except
1. Numerator contains deaths occurring within 1st
7 days
2. Late still births are also included in numerator
3. Denominator contains Total live births
4. Denominator contains total births Ans. 4
205. All the following are true about uric acid excretion except
1. It is filtered at the glomerulous
2. It is completely reabsorbed in PCT
3. It is resecreted in the loop of henle
4. Effectively 50 % of the filtered uric acid is excreted Ans.*
206. In Kesri dal poisoning due to lathyrus Sativus. The active principal is
1. Pyrrazolidine
3. Argemone oil
4. Pilocarpine Ans. 2
207. In a patient with history of blood loss, brought to casualty must be treated initially with
1. Blood transfusion
2. Plasma expanders
3. Crystalloids
4. Dopamine Ans. 3
208. In a brow presentation the plane of engagement is
1. Submentobregmatic
2. Submentovertical
3. Mentovertical
4. Mentobregmatic Ans. 3
209. Lieomyoma uterus is least susceptible to undergo which of the following changes
1. Malignancy
2. Calcifivation
3. Red degeneration
4. Hyalinosis Ans. 1
210. A pregnant lady develops eclampsia and an attack of seizures. The immediate management is
1. IV Phenytoin
2. Diazepam
3. Airway patency
4. IV Magnesuim sulphate Ans. 3
211. In a patient with ovarian carcinoma with involvement of both ovaries and with omental metastasis. This is considered as stage
1. Ic
2. II
3. III
4. IV Ans. 3
212. In a pregnant lady the L/S ratio is done to assesss maturity of
1. Fetal kidneys
2. Fetal lungs
3. Fetal heart
4. Fetal Brain Ans. 2
213. The mechanism of Ethambutol resistance is
1. Rop B
2. Etm b
3. Etm a
4. rag? Ans. 2
214. Type I diabetus mellitus is associated with all the following except
1. Insulitis
2. Reduction in B cell mass
3. B cell degranulation
4. Amyloid change in B cells Ans. 3
215. A patient with tall stature, gyneacomastia, hypogonadism. On chromosomal analysis was found to have XXY. The diagnosis is
1. Klinefilters
2. Edwards
3. Turners
4. CAH Ans. 1
216. Amyl nitrate inhalation is useful in which of the following poisoning
1. Mercury
2. Hydrocyanic acid
3. Phosphorous
4. Organophosphates Ans. 2
217. In contaminated liquor poisoning all the following can occur except
1. Metabolic alkalosis
2. Blindness
3. Treatment is with ethanol
4. Toxicity is due to Methanol Ans. 1
218. Foamy liver is seen in
1. Arsenic poisoning
2. Putrefaction
3. Mummification
4. Aconite poisoning Ans. 2
219. Right and Wrong test is used in
1. Insanity
2. Alcoholism
3. Identification of a person
4. Schizophrenia Ans. 2
220. A patient brought dead had smell of bitter almonds coming from him. The poison
implicated is
1. Methanol
2. Organophosphate
3. Hydrocyanic acid
4. Arsenic Ans. 3
221. In a firearm injury blackening seen around the entry wound is due to
1. Flame
2. Smoke
3. Unburnt powder
4. Hot gasses Ans. 2
222. Gun powder contains all the following except
1. Potassium nitrate
2. Lead peroxide
3. Charcoal
4. Phosphorous Ans. 2
223. Unconjugated hyperbilurubinemia is seen in all the following except
1. Criggler najjar syndrome
2. DubinJohnson syndrome
3. Breast milk jaundice
4. Gilberts syndrome Ans. 2
224. The histological finding in acute rheumatic fever which would best aid in diagnosis is
1. Increased vascularity of myocardial valves
2. Fibronous perichondritis
3. Ahscoff’s bodies
4. Vegetations over mitral valve Ans. 3
225. A patient semiconscious with altered sensorium with visual hallucination and fragmented delusions is suffering from which of the following
1. Delerium
2. Delusion
3. Schizophrenia
4. Mania Ans. 1
226. A person complains of creeping sensation all over his body. He is know to be addicted to a certain substance ,which most probably is
1. Hashish
2. Alcoholism
3. Cocaine
4. Amphetamine Ans. 3
227. Most specific tumor marker for prostate is
1. Acid phosphatase
2. Alkaline phospohatase
3. Prostate specific antigen
4. HCG Ans. 3
228. In a smoker a tumor with central cavitation is found. This is most likely to be
1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Alveolar carcinoma
4. Adenocarcinoma Ans. 1
229. Which of the following is true about pleomorphic tumor
1. The pleomorphic tumors over period of time give rise to warthins adenoma
2. They are associated with nerve commonly
3. Treatment is enucleation
4. 80 % of benign tumors are of pleomorphic origin Ans. 4
230. Epileptic seizures associated with high fever can be differentiated from simple febrile
seizures by which of the following
1. Family history
2. Focal lesion
3. Associated with high rise of temperature
4. Focal seizures Ans.*
231. 100 ml of breast milk contains
1. 70 kcals
2. 150 kcals
3. 75kcal
4. 200kcals Ans. 1
232. All the following can be used in diagnosis as tumor markers except
1. Beta HCG
2. Alph fetoprotein
3. Beta 2 microglobulin
4. CEA Ans. 1
233. Most common cause of ocular morbidity in our country as found by the 86-89 national
survey for blindness was
1. Refractive error
2. Cataract
3. Trauma
4. Vitamin A deficiency Ans. 2
234. In a patient found to have sputum –ve but X-ray +ve tuberculous lesions must be treated by which regime
1. E+R for 1 year
2. 3EHZ + 4HZ
3. 3 RHZ + 2RH
4. 2RHZ + 4 HZ Ans. 4
235. A female with Tuberculous infection on treatment with Rifampicin and INH has a history of deep vein thrombosis and was on started on warfarin. However warfarin was not found to be effective and she developed another episode of venous thrombosis. She should now be managed with
1. Withdrawal of Warfarin and starting long term heparin therapy
2. Withdrawal of Rifampicin and substitution by Ethambutol
3. Low molecular weight heparin therapy
4. Withdrawal of warfarin and substitution by acuomeral Ans. 3
236. Which of the following requires emergency operation in setting without tertiary care
1. Extradural hemorrhage
2. Subdural hemorrhage
3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
4. Intacerebral hemorrhage Ans. 1
237. All the following are true about Wilson’s disease except
1. Increase liver copper
2. Increase serum ceruloplasmin level
3. Chronic active hepatitis
4. Hemolysis Ans. 2
238. Nephrocalcinosis can be diagnosed in x-ray as caused by all the following except
1. Hereditary hyperoxaluria
2. Fanconi’s anemia
3. Medullary sponge kidney
4. Hyperparathyroidism Ans. 2
239. On x-ray all the following renal calculi can be seen except
1. Calcium oxalate
2. Triple phosphate
3. Uric acid
4. Cystine stones Ans. 3
240. All the following are seen in nephrotic syndrome except
1. Albuminuria
2. Hypoalbuminemia
3. Edema
4. Hypocomplementenemia Ans. 4
241. Which of the following are true about nephritic syndrome
1. Hematuria
3. 3 RHZ + 2RH
4. 2RHZ + 4 HZ Ans. 4
242. Gall stone causes intestinal obstruction when it gets impacted in which part of the intestine commonly
1. Proximal Ileum
2. Distal ileum
3. Doudenum
4. Jejunum Ans. 2
243. Which of the following anticancer drugs cause dihydrofolate reductase inhibition
1. Cyclophosphamide
2. Methotrexate
3. 5FU
4. Bleomycin Ans. 2
244. A female presents with primary amenorrhea and absent vagina. The investigation to be done is
1. LH/FSH assay
2. Chromosomal analysis
3. Urinalysis
4. Laproscopy Ans. 2
245. Boot shaped heart with oligemia is seen in
1. TGA
2. TOF
3. ASD
4. PDA Ans. 2
246. The organ which contains appendices epiploicae is which of the following
1. Small intestine
2. Jejunum
3. Appendix
4. Colon Ans. 4
247. Female with prior history of ectopic pregnancy. The contraceptive of choice now would be which of the following
1. Barrier method
2. OC pills
3. Diaphragm
4. IUD Ans. 2
248. Postprandial Hypoglycemia is reduced by all the following except
1. Small particle size
2. Uncooked starch
3. Presence of enzyme inhibitors in food
4. Excess amounts of proteins and fats along with carbohydrates Ans. 1
249. Leukemoid reaction can be differentiated from CML by all the following except
1. Normal alkaline phosphatase
2. Absent Philadelphia chromosome
3. Splenomegaly
4. Decreased vitamin B12 levels Ans. 3
250. Best prognosis is seen in which AML
1. M6
2. M1
3. M7
4. M3 Ans. 4
251. Which of the following tumors is common in extramedullary intradural location
1. Ependymoma
2. Metastasis
3. Astrocyotma
4. Neurofibroma Ans. 4
252. Most common tumor of retroperitoneal region is
1. Neurofibroma
2. Liposarcoma
3. Lipoma
4. Rabdomyosarcoma Ans. 2
253. The treatment of choice for chronic partial and tonic clonic seizures is
1. Trimethadione
2. Phenytoin
3. Diazepam
4. Ethosuxemide Ans. 2
254. Best prognosis in new born seizures is due to which of the following causes
1. Hypoglycemia
2. Hypocalcemia
3. Hyponatremia
4. Hypomagnesemia Ans. 2
255. A patient with hyperparathyroidism with pheochromocytoma develops a thyroid swelling. This is most likely due to which of the following .
1. Follicular adenoma
2. Papillary carcinoma
3. Medullary carcinoma
4. Follicular carcinoma Ans. 3
256. An adult male with history of regurgitation of food taken 3-4 days back, and halitosis, also complains of dysphagia to solid food. The Diagnosis is
1. Plummer Vinson syndrome
2. Esophageal web
3. Achalasia cardia
4. Zenkers diverticulum Ans. 4
257. Bromocriptine is used in all the following except
1. Acromegaly
2. Parkinsonism
3. Endogenous depression
4. Infertility Ans. 3
258. Which of the following enzymes acts in dephosphorylated state
1. Lipase
2. Glycogen synthase
3. Fructose 1,6 diphosphatase
4. Phoshorylase Ans.*
259. The bonds required for structure of alpha helix is
1. Hydrogen bonds backed on peptide chain
2. Hydrophobic interactions
3. Hydrophilic interactions
4. Peptide bonds Ans.*
260. Enzyme ‘hormone sensitive lipase’is inhibited by
1. Epinephrine
2. Cortisol
3. Glucogan
4. Insulin Ans. 4
261. All the following are true about polycythemia rubra vera except
1. Erythrocytosis
2. Splenomegaly
3. Normal oxygen saturation
4. Normal B12 levels Ans. 4
262. Abductor of vocal cord is
1. Posterior cricoarytenoid
2. Lateral aretenoids
3. Cricothyroid
4. Thyroaretenoid Ans. 4
263. All the following are associated with actin filament except
1. Actin
2. Troponin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Tapaicin Ans. 1
264. All the following are true regarding Immunodeficiency states except
1. Kaposi’sarcoma is a tumour of vascular origin
2. Increased risk of gut lymphomas
3. Good prognosis on treatment
4. Ans. 3
265. All the following are true about Hyperkinetic attention deficit disorder except
1. Decreased attention span
2. Associated with seizures
3. Soft neurological signs
4. Treated with amphetamines Ans. 2
266. In a child 2 years old with rickets has all the characteristic features except
1. Increased alkaline phosphatase
2. Decreased phosphate levels
3. Normal calcium levels
4. Craniotabes Ans.*
267. Black cylinder with white shoulders is used in aneasthesia for which of the following
1. Nitrous oxide
2. Oxygen
3. Helium
4. Carbon dioxide Ans. 2
268. Osmoreceptors are present in
1. Anterior hypothalamus
2. Atria
3. Kidney
4. Ventricles Ans. 1
269. In a chi square test for a given p value. The p value signifies that at a given p value
1. Null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
2. Null hypothesis is accepted when it is true
3. Null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
4. Null hypothesis is rejected when it is false Ans. 4
270. True regarding location of MHC is, it is present on
1. Chromosome 16
2. Chromosome 6 Long arm
3. Chromosome 6 short arm
4. Chromosome 11 long arm Ans. 3
271. Which of the following inhibits biotransformation of drug metabolism except
1. Cimetidine
2. Ketoconazole
3. Phenytoin
4. Erythromycin Ans. 3
272. Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatal pathway is
1. Serotonin
2. Dopamine
3. Cholinergic
4. Adrenergic Ans. 2
273. True about Cushing’s syndrome is
1. Adrenomedullary hyperplasia in association with the MEN syndrome is a common cause
2. Bronchial carcinoid causes cushings syndrome
3. It is diagnosed by hypokalemia in association with Increased adrenal secretion
4. It is often fatal due its coronary and Cerebrovascular accidents Ans.*
274. Which of the following is most important carbon dioxide transport means in blood
1. It is mostly transported as carboxy hemoglobin
2. As dissolved Co2
3. Due to the action of carbonic anhydrase
4. Due to Co2 molecule attached to Hemoglobin Ans. 3
275. In a newborn being exclusive ly fed with goats milk will develop which of the following as compared to being fed with breast milk
1. Scurvy
2. Rickets
3. Microcytic anemia
4. Megaloblastic anemia Ans. 4
276. The precursor of phoshophotidyl choline is
1. Phosphotidyl ethanolamine
2. Acetyl choline
3. G6 PD
4. Glycerol 3 phosphate Ans.*
277. All the muscles are inserted in the greater trochanter except
1. Pyriformis
2. Pectineus
3. Gluteus medius
4. Glutues minimus Ans. 2
278. The most common organism to cause osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is
1. Staphylococci
2. Salmonella
3. Pseudomonas
4. Proteus Ans. 1
279. On examination of a patient there was a double peaked pulse in his peripheral artery .All
the following are causes except
1. Aortic Regurgitation
3. AS with AR
4. Mitral regurgitation Ans. 4
280. All the following are field defects seen in glaucoma except
1. Complete baring of blind spot
2. Isolated scotoma may occur
3. The field changes are usually restricted to 15-30 degrees on field chart
4. Temporal field is first to be affected Ans. 4
281. The prostaglandins were first demonstrated in
1. Blood
2. Sputum
3. Semen
4. CSF Ans. 3
282. All the following tumours are seen in posterior mediastinum except
1. Neurofibroma
2. Thymoma
3. Lipoma
4. Lymphoma Ans. 2
283. Increased blood pressure mediates reflex bradycardia through impulses in all the following nerves except
1. Accessory cervical
2. Nerve of Herrings
3. Glossopharyngeal
4. Vagus Ans. 1
284. Rectal polyp most commonly presents as
1. Obstruction
2. Bleeding
3. Infection
4. Changes into malignancy Ans. 2
285. All are true regarding pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma except
1. It is diagnosed by presence of cold agglutinin antibodies
2. Erythromicin is used for treatment
3. It is a highly contagious infection
4. It is difficult to culture Ans. 1
286. The lifespan of a red blood cell is
1. 60 days
2. 80 days
3. 120 days
4. 100 days Ans. 3
287. Which of the following commonly gives rise to migratory Thrombophlebitis
1. Carcinoma lung
2. Hepatocellular carcinoma
3. Carcinoma pancreas
4. Thyroid carcinoma Ans. 3
288. The most common primary cause of intraocular tumor in children
1. Retinoblastoma
2. Rhabdomyosarcoma
3. Neuroblastoma
4. Melanoma
Ans. 2
289. Which of the following is most important side effect of Cisplatinum
1. Neurotoxicity
2. Cardiotoxicity
3. GIT adverse effects
4. Nephrotoxicity
Ans. 4
290. The treatment of choice for pseudomembranous colitis is
1. Ampicillin
2. Vancomycin
3. Bacitracin
4. Amikacin
Ans. 2
291. The most common cause of budd-chiari syndrome is
1. Hepatic vein valve
2. PNH
3. IVC web
4. Oral contraceptives
Ans. 2
292. All the following are seen in upper motor nerve palsy except
1. Fasciculation’s
2. Increased reflexes
3. Hypertonic movements
4. Clonus
Ans. 1

293. Which of the following inducing agents increase intracranial pressure
1. Halothane
2. Thiopentone
3. Ketamine
4. Fentanyl
Ans. 3

294. Least common change to occur in a leiomyoma is
1. Red degeneration
2. Malignancy
3. Calcification
4. Infarction
Ans. 2

295. Mucosal immunity is due to
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE
Ans. 2
youkti 01:54 PM May 2nd, 2014
i want syllabus n last qustion paper 5 yearfor aiims msc nursing n i waht to do preparation of entrance exam
mchoudhary1781 03:35 PM May 9th, 2014
it is not online available because they do not give question paper to students after exam . U will ask from the person who is studying or studied from aiims. general bsc nursing level questions asked.
Unregistered 12:21 AM June 11th, 2015
Originally Posted by registered:
i want syllabus for aiims msc nursing entrance nd last 10 yrs question paper with solution
sallybus of msc.nursing entrance exam
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