JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers - 2014-2015 StudyChaCha

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  #1  
Old August 16th, 2012, 11:01 AM
Vijay Wakale
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Default JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

I am doing participate in the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam and I have need of its question paper so please tell me the procedure of doing download it question paper PDF File from net.
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  #2  
Old August 16th, 2012, 01:33 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

As you required the entrance exam question papers of
JIPMER MBBS here I providing the some question of this paper with answer as following:-
1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8
Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D
3. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is --______degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B
Here I am also attaching a file that contain 250 Question of the entrance exam of JIPMER MBBS as given below:-
Attached Files
File Type: doc JIPMER MBBS old Paper Entrance Exam.doc (140.5 KB, 398 views)
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  #3  
Old August 30th, 2012, 01:07 PM
SHYAM89
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Default JIPMER Question Paper

Hello sir I am preparing for the entrance exam of JIPMER . Can you provide me the previous year question paper of JIPMER for my better preparation?
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  #4  
Old August 30th, 2012, 03:35 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Question Paper

You preparing for the entrance exam of JIPMER. And you are looking for the question paper for the JIMPER.
So I have attached here PDF file you can download from here and you will see questions like that.

1. In rupture of the bulbar urethra the urine is found to
extravasate into all of the following spaces except
a. The scrotum
b. Penis
c. Anterior abdominal wall
d. Ischerectal fossa

2. The anti diabetic drug which also has anorectic effect is
a. Glipizide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Gliclazide
d. Metformin

3. The intervertebral disc is related to all of the following
except
a. To the aorta anteriorly
b. To the 2nd lumbar nerve closely
c. The cauda equina of spinal cord
d. Is the site of origin of Psoas major

4. The ant diabetic drug which is considered as post
prandial hyperglycaemic regulator is
a. Rosiglitazone
b. Piaglitazone
c. Ripaglinide
d. Tolbutamide

5. The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
a. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c. Extension, abduction and internal rotation
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIMPER Question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 127 views)
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  #5  
Old September 17th, 2012, 10:09 AM
Linson Mathew
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Default JIPMER Question Paper Sample Papers

I want to know information about the JIPMER entrance exam Sample Question Papers. Please provide me the information about it ?
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  #6  
Old September 17th, 2012, 11:08 AM
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Default Re: JIPMER Question Paper Sample Papers

As you want to get the sample question paper for JIPMER entrance exam so for you help I am providing the link for the PDF file which contains the Objective type questions from Physics and chemistry.

There are total 200 questions in the file. Answers are also given in the file.

downloads.ziddu.com/downloadfiles/17620965/PMT-2012.pdf
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  #7  
Old September 20th, 2012, 09:53 PM
kpltvnne.
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Default JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Online

My name is Anu and I am preparing for the JIMPER medical entrance exam so please provide me the online question papers of this exam for my better preparation ?
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  #8  
Old September 21st, 2012, 03:28 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Online

: You want medical entrance exam paper of JIPMER so I have its question paper and here are some of questions of question paper:

The anti diabetic drug which is also has anorectic effect is:

a. Glipzide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Gliclazide
d. Matformin

For complete question paper you should have to download attached pdf file which is free for you.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER medical entrance exam question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 447 views)
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  #9  
Old December 13th, 2012, 11:09 AM
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Default JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Free

I am looking entrance examination question paper of Jawaharlal Institute of Post Graduate Medical Education and Research. I have to pursue in JIPMER entrance exam. Please provide me?
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  #10  
Old December 15th, 2012, 12:54 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Free

Here I am providing the old question paper for JIPMER entrance examination:

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8
Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D
3. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is --______degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

For the complete question paper visit through the following link:

http://studychacha.com/discuss/31036...on-papers.html
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  #11  
Old March 19th, 2013, 08:43 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

sir plz my information medical lab ke sabe question with answers
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  #12  
Old March 21st, 2013, 05:07 PM
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Default JIPMER Questions Papers

I am taking part in JIPMER exam and for see its pattern I want old question so can anyone provide me the same?
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  #13  
Old March 22nd, 2013, 04:06 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Questions Papers

You are looking for JIPMER question so I have and I am sharing it with you. following are some questions given in question paper.






Complete paper is available in attached pdf file. feel free to download it.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper 1.pdf (168.8 KB, 131 views)
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper 2.pdf (88.9 KB, 97 views)
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Last edited by Sashwat; February 1st, 2014 at 02:00 PM.
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  #14  
Old April 13th, 2013, 05:56 PM
valampuri
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

please give me a jipmer exam question papers
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  #15  
Old April 19th, 2013, 07:50 PM
Nazira begam.su
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

Good evening sir , sir i want jipmer last10 years entrance exam question papers please download question papers to my email id my email fathimashaik21@gmail.com.kindly help me sir.I want to get a seat in jipmer because i wasted 1year sir and gave me a any tips to get success in entrance exam.please help me sir
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  #16  
Old May 10th, 2013, 09:30 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nazira begam.su View Post
Good evening sir , sir i want jipmer last10 years entrance exam question papers please download question papers to my email id my email fathimashaik21@gmail.com.kindly help me sir.I want to get a seat in jipmer because i wasted 1year sir and gave me a any tips to get success in entrance exam.please help me sir
Did you received the questions... If so send the same to vijaiyesh1947@gmail.com , I am having only PG questions.If you need that send me a mail...I will forward the same.
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  #17  
Old May 31st, 2013, 06:33 PM
priyanka saini
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Post Re: JIPMER question paper

Hye,
Gunjan i hope u r f9 plz..... can u tell me the jimper question paper i have tried many times so its very important for me if u can tell so call me on the no. 8794917017 today at 05:35 plz
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  #18  
Old December 25th, 2013, 06:08 PM
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Default JIPMER Solved question paper

I am going to participate in JIPMER exam so need question paper for preparation so will you provide here?
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  #19  
Old December 26th, 2013, 09:46 AM
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Default Re: JIPMER Solved question paper

You are looking for the JIPMER exam question paper i am giving here:

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

For detailed paper here is attachment:
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper.pdf (88.9 KB, 61 views)
File Type: doc JIPMER Question Paper.doc (140.5 KB, 35 views)
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  #20  
Old January 30th, 2014, 05:44 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

I am doing participate in the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam and I have need of its question paper so please tell me the procedure of doing download it question paper PDF File from net.[/QUOTE]
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  #21  
Old February 12th, 2014, 12:08 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

As you required the entrance exam question papers of
JIPMER MBBS here I providing the some question of this paper with answer as following:-
JIPMER 2000

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin

Ans. D

52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin

Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia

Ans. B

54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa

Ans. B

55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days

Ans. D

56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C

57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin

Ans. B

58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium

Ans. A

59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone

Ans. A

60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP

Ans. D

61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin

Ans. A



FORENSIC MEDICINE

62. Which of the following is most useful for sex determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia

Ans. C

63. Which of the following is diagnostic of drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages

Ans. A

64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide

Ans. B

65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge

Ans. B

MEDICINE

66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray

Ans. B

67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract

Ans. A

68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy

Ans. C

69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion

Ans. A




70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom

Ans. C

71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation

Ans.

72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids

Ans. C

73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement

Ans. A

74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease

Ans. C

75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of
A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis

Ans. C

76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization

Ans. A

77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment

Ans. A

78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries

Ans. D?

79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV

Ans. B

80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia

Ans. A?

81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI

Ans. C

82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency

Ans. D

83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest

Ans. D

84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.

Ans. B

85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein

Ans. C

86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the following conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma

Ans. B

87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma

Ans. B

88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max

Ans. A

89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-penia
A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count

Ans. A

90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common

Ans. B


91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis

Ans. C

92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day

Ans. B


93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity

Ans. A?

94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease

Ans. B

95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures

Ans. B






96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic

Ans. A

97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis

Ans.

98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the following except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis

Ans.

99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease

Ans. B

100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar

Ans. B

101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to start reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex

Ans. C

102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis

Ans. A


103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms

Ans. C

104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/dl
B.130mg/dl
C.160mg/dl
D.190mg/dl

Ans. A
SURGERY

105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney

Ans. B

106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm

Ans. A

107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation

Ans. C?

108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal

Ans. A

109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved

Ans. D

110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis

Ans. B

111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia

Ans. C

112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma

Ans. C

113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma

Ans. B

114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use

Ans. B

115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test

Ans. B

116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis

Ans. C

117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas

Ans. C


119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops

Ans. C

120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base

Ans. B


121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation

Ans. A

122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein

Ans. C

123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel

Ans. C

124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG

Ans. B

125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast

Ans. C

126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs

Ans.

127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%

Ans. A

PSM

128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80

Ans. B
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129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India is
A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is
A. 1mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg

Ans. B

131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control

Ans. A

132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio

Ans. D

133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm

Ans. B

134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq

Ans. B

135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is included is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs

Ans. B?

136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate

Ans. B

137. Which of the following is true about Botulism
A.high fever
B.brisk reflexes
C.salivation
D.sore throat

Ans. D





138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height 1.5m
A.19
B.20
C.21
D.18

Ans.B

139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water
A. Copper sulphate
B. Pottassium permanganate
C. Hypochlorite
D. Bleaching powder

Ans. A

140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonoides

Ans. B

141. The WHO criteria for TB control means
A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%

Ans. A

142. Validity of a screening test includes all except
A.sensitivity
B.specificity
C.repeatability
D.accuracy

Ans. C

143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted
A. Entameba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Leishmania brasiliensis

Ans. D

144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent maternal mortality is
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12

Ans. A

145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO
A.vision less than 3/60

Ans. A

146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life
A.Hib
B.Hepatitis B
C.DPT

Ans. B



147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus
A. 7days
B. 10days
C. 14days
D. 18days

Ans. A

148. PQLI does not include
A.Infant Mortality rate
B.Gross national Product
C.Litreacy rate
D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.

Ans. B

149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also of the living standard of a community
A.IMR
B.PNMR
C.MMR

Ans. A

150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance
A. U test
B. t-test

Ans. B

151.All are components of Primary Health Care except
A.providing essential drugs
B.supplementary nutrition
C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments
D.prevention of locally endemic diseases

Ans. B


152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula
A.x-`x/s
B.(x-`x)2/s

Ans. A

153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy is
A. 1yr
B. 2yrs
C. 6months
D. 9months

Ans. B

154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of
A. Strength of association
B. Possibility
C. Dose response

Ans. A

155. Median incubation period means
A. Time for 50% cases to occur
B. Time between primary case and secondary case
C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity

Ans. A



156. In census literacy rate is assessed by
A.attended literacy classes for one year
B.ability to write signature
C.ability to read and write

Ans. C

157. Ringer lactate does not contain
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate

Ans. D

158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many days
A. 51
B. 61
C. 91
D. 71

Ans. C

ORTHOPEDICS

159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
A. Osteo arthritis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. peroneal spasm
D. congenital tarsal fusion

Ans. A

160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis
A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
B. interroseous membrane ossification
C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body
D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint

Ans. D?

161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential diagnosis of osteomyelitis
A.chondrosarcoma
B.Ewing's sarcoma
C.osteosarcoma

Ans. B

162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified as
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB

Ans. A?

163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is
A. standing
B. sitting
C. lying flat
D. lying on one side

Ans.




164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip
A.flexion adduction and internal rotation
B.flexion adduction and external rotation
C.flexion abduction and internal rotation
D.flexion abduction and external rotation

Ans. D

165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture
A.Sudek's osteodystrophy
B.Non Union
C.Shoulder stiffness
D.Malunion

Ans. B

166. Median nerve involvement is most common with
A. elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture
C. lateral condyle fractrue
D. olecranon fracture

Ans. B

167. Earliest bone to ossify is
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. Ribs

Ans. A

ENT

168.Bezold's abscess is seen at
A.petrous tip
B.Mastoid tip
C.digastric triangle
D.subdurally

Ans. B

169. Which of the following is not a feature of Rhinosporidiosis
A.Bleeding polyp
B.Russel bodies are seen
C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment
D.bleeding is present

Ans. B

170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is seen is
A.rhinolalia clausa
B.rhinolalia aperta
C.hotpotato voice

Ans. A

171. Abductor of the vocal cord is
A.lateral cricoarytenoid
B.cricothyroid
C.posterior cricoarytenoid

Ans. C





172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares in
A.Atrophic rhinitis
B.Rhinosporidiosis
C.Deviated nasal septum
D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate

Ans. C

173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease
A.vertigo
B.tinnitus
C.conductive deafness

Ans. C

174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital deafness
A.delta wave
B.long QT
C.short PR interval

Ans. B

175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis
A.hearing better in louder conditions
B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal
C.tympanic membrane is normal
D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness

Ans. B

176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on tympanic membrane is made on
A.anteroinferior quadrant
B.anterosuperior quadrant
C.posterosuperior quadrant
D.posteroinferior quadrant

Ans. A

177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis
A.dyspnea on exertion
B.transient hoarseness
C.husky voice
D.inspiratory stridor

Ans. B

178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true except
A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks
B.high frequency sensory hearing loss
C.spontaneous nystagmus is present
D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection

Ans. B

179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is
A.pneumothorax
B.surgical emphysema
C.injury to the large vessels
D.injury to esophagus

Ans. B







EYE

180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of
A.Infantile Gaucher's disease
B.Niemann Pick disease
C.Fabry's disease

Ans. B

181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated by application of
A.Atropine
B.Pilocarpine
C.Timolol
D.Hydroxy amphetamine

Ans. D

182. Axial proptosis is caused by
A. blow out fracture of the orbit
B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit
C. frontal mucocele
D. optic glioma

Ans. D

183. Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia
A. Nd YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Hormium laser

Ans. B

184. Sun flower cataract is seen in
A.Blunt trauma
B.Diabetes
C.Chalcosis
D.Argyriosis

Ans. C

185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of herpes keratitis
A. Superficial punctate keratitis
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Geographic ulcer
D. Disciform keratitis

Ans. D

186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch vein occlusion
A. Cystoid macular edema
B. Macular hemorrhage
C. Vitreous hemorrhage

Ans. A

187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint
A. Accomodative squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Divergant squint
D. Congenital squint

Ans. A





188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in
A. hypermature cataract
B. immature cataract
C. lens subluxation
D. developmental cataract

Ans. C

189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of
A. Deschmet's membrane
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. stroma

Ans. A

190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is
A.dacryocystectomy
B.hydrostaticmassage
C.probing and syringing with antibiotics
D.dacryocystorhinostomy

Ans. B

191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of
A.CRVO
B.Incomplete CRAO
C.Incomplete CRVO
D.Hypertensive retinopathy

Ans. B

192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Ethambutol

Ans. B?

PSYCHIATRY

193. Reversible dementia is a feature of
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.Pick's disease
C.Multiinfarct dementia
D.Hypothyroidism

Ans. D

194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression
A.altered sleep pattern
B.weight loss
C.guilt
D.decreased apettite

Ans. C?

195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of schizophrenia
A.hebephrenic
B.catatonic
C.paranoid
D.simple

Ans. B

196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in Schizophrenia
A.perceptional delusions
B.thought insertion
C.perceptional hallucinations

Ans. B
A I P P G
197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome
A.clear consciousness
B.inabiliity to learn new things
C.hallucinations
D.confabulation
Ans. C

198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the following
A.Pyridoxine
B.Thiamine
C.Vitamin B12
D.Riboflavin

Ans. B

199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is
A.Psychoanalysis
B.Family therapy
C.Transaction analysis
D.Rapid emotive treatment and response

Ans.

200. deJavu phenomenon means
A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar
B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it

Ans. B


SKIN

201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma virus
A.HPV 6-16
B.HPV 6-11
C.HPV 16-18
D.HPV 11-18

Ans. B

202. Herald patch is seen in
A.pityriasis rosea
B.lichen planus
C.DLE

Ans. A

203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma
A.Furuncle
B.Ecthyma
C.Pyoderma gangrenosum
D.Carbuncle

Ans. C

204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is
A.penicillin
B.ceftriaxone

Ans. B

205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by
A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes
B.Trichophyton rubrum
C.Microsporum audoni

Ans. C

206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
A.webspace
B.face
C.genitalia
D.axilla

Ans. B

207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is
A.Lymphogranuloma venerium
B.Chancroid
C.Granuloma inguanale

Ans. C

208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except
A. SLE
B. Xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Poephyria cutanea tarda
D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

Ans. D

ANAESTHESIA

209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit' person following surgery
A.midazolam
B.propofol
C.alfentanyl
D.thiopentone

Ans. B

210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits
A.trichloroethylene
B.isoflurane
C.halothane
D.methoxyflurane

Ans. A

211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines
A.Halothane
B.Isoflurane
C.Enflurane

Ans. A

212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action because
A.it is rapidly metabolized
B.it is rapidly redistributed

Ans. B


213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to
A.prevent gastric aspiration
B.prevent fetal depression
C.to decrease awareness

Ans. A

PEDIATRICS
all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)
214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except
A.there is always respiratory distress
B.steroids are not useful
C.ECMO may be useful

Ans. A

215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change disease
A.65%
B.75%
C.85%
D.95%

Ans. D

216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex
A.24months
B.36months
C.30months
D.42months
Ans. A?

217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth
A.knee jerk
B.ankle jerk
C.biceps jerk
D.triceps jerk

Ans.


218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of
A.Kawasaki disease
B.Scarlet fever

Ans. A

219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated immunity
A.protein energy malnutrition
B.zinc deficiency
C.selenium deficiency
D.iron deficiency

Ans. C

220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except
A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases
B.convulsion in 25% of cases
C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth
D.profuse vomiting

Ans. C

221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following except
A.crawl upstairs
B.make a tower of 5 cubes
C.name familiar objects
D.point to familiar things

Ans. B

GYNAE & OBST.

222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with leucorrhea
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.H.vaginalis
C.Trichomonas
D.Candida

Ans. A

223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree. The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on management
A.cesarian section
B.oxytocin drip
C.rupture of membranes
D.instillation of PG E2

Ans. A

224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in
A.subseptate uterus
B.uterus didelphys
C.hypoplastic uterus
D.unicornuate uterus

Ans. A
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225. Osiander's sign means
A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix
B. Bluish colour change in the vagina
C.Softening of the cervix
D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in between

Ans. A


226. Which of the following does not cross placenta
A.heparin
B.propranolol
C.warfarin

Ans. A

227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following except
A.premature rupture of membrane
B.intrauterine infection
C.myasthenia gravis
D.renal failure

Ans. B

228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is
A.phenytoin
B.sodium valproate
C.carbamazepine
D.lamotrigene

Ans. D

229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure in which period
A.16wks
B.24wks
C.20wks
D.28wks

Ans. D

230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for
A.colon
B.ovary

Ans. B

231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS is
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9

Ans.

232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is
A. XO
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XY

Ans. A

233. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Ccord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primi

Ans.

234. Variable deceleration indicates
A.head compression
B.cord compression
C.fetal hypoxaemia
D.maternal sedation
Ans. B


235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true
A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy
B. sex discordance can occur rarely
C. always monochorionic
D. more common following ovulation induction

Ans. C

236. The placenta is formed from
A.decidua basalis
B.decidua vera
C.chorion levae
D.decidua capsularis

Ans. A

237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy
A.50-60
B.60-70
C.70-80
D.80-90

Ans. B

238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one in
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

Ans. B
239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention
A.Anterior
B.Posterior
C.Submucous
D.Subserous

Ans. A

240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except
A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
B. Nile blue sulfate test
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid

Ans. C

241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the first thing that you will do
A. USG
B. NST
C. Review the menstrual history once more
D. X-ray abdomen

Ans. C

242. First trimester USG is not indicated in
A.Hydramnios
B.Hyper emesis gravidarum

Ans. A

243. Parkland formula for burns is for
A.Ringer lactate
B.glucose saline
C.Normal saline

Ans. A

244. Paracusis willisi is seen in
A.stapedial fixation
B.ASOM

Ans. A

245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is
A.Gartner's cyst
B.endometriotic cyst
C.Inclusion cyst

Ans. A

RADIOLOGY

246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation
A.skin
B.muscle
C.bone marrow
D.intestine

Ans. B

247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis

Ans. A
248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is
A.Becqueral
B.Gray
C.Stewart
D.Roentgen

Ans. B

249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis
A. Gas in the portal system
B. Gas in the intestinal wall
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Air fluid levels

Ans. B

250. Sign of contour is seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. duedonal atrisia
C. Chron's disease
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  #22  
Old April 4th, 2014, 04:46 PM
vijay baskar
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

sir ,please send me the 2013 jipmer mbbs entrance q paper

emal id:vijaymithun28@gmail.com
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