JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers - 2014-2015 StudyChaCha

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  #1  
Old August 16th, 2012, 12:01 PM
Vijay Wakale
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Default JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

I am doing participate in the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam and I have need of its question paper so please tell me the procedure of doing download it question paper PDF File from net.
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  #2  
Old August 16th, 2012, 02:33 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

As you required the entrance exam question papers of
JIPMER MBBS here I providing the some question of this paper with answer as following:-
1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8
Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D
3. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is --______degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B
Here I am also attaching a file that contain 250 Question of the entrance exam of JIPMER MBBS as given below:-
Attached Files
File Type: doc JIPMER MBBS old Paper Entrance Exam.doc (140.5 KB, 523 views)
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  #3  
Old August 30th, 2012, 02:07 PM
SHYAM89
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Default JIPMER Question Paper

Hello sir I am preparing for the entrance exam of JIPMER . Can you provide me the previous year question paper of JIPMER for my better preparation?
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  #4  
Old August 30th, 2012, 04:35 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Question Paper

You preparing for the entrance exam of JIPMER. And you are looking for the question paper for the JIMPER.
So I have attached here PDF file you can download from here and you will see questions like that.

1. In rupture of the bulbar urethra the urine is found to
extravasate into all of the following spaces except
a. The scrotum
b. Penis
c. Anterior abdominal wall
d. Ischerectal fossa

2. The anti diabetic drug which also has anorectic effect is
a. Glipizide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Gliclazide
d. Metformin

3. The intervertebral disc is related to all of the following
except
a. To the aorta anteriorly
b. To the 2nd lumbar nerve closely
c. The cauda equina of spinal cord
d. Is the site of origin of Psoas major

4. The ant diabetic drug which is considered as post
prandial hyperglycaemic regulator is
a. Rosiglitazone
b. Piaglitazone
c. Ripaglinide
d. Tolbutamide

5. The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
a. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c. Extension, abduction and internal rotation
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIMPER Question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 257 views)
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  #5  
Old September 17th, 2012, 11:09 AM
Linson Mathew
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Default JIPMER Question Paper Sample Papers

I want to know information about the JIPMER entrance exam Sample Question Papers. Please provide me the information about it ?
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  #6  
Old September 17th, 2012, 12:08 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Question Paper Sample Papers

As you want to get the sample question paper for JIPMER entrance exam so for you help I am providing the link for the PDF file which contains the Objective type questions from Physics and chemistry.

There are total 200 questions in the file. Answers are also given in the file.

downloads.ziddu.com/downloadfiles/17620965/PMT-2012.pdf
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  #7  
Old September 20th, 2012, 10:53 PM
kpltvnne.
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Default JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Online

My name is Anu and I am preparing for the JIMPER medical entrance exam so please provide me the online question papers of this exam for my better preparation ?
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  #8  
Old September 21st, 2012, 04:28 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Online

: You want medical entrance exam paper of JIPMER so I have its question paper and here are some of questions of question paper:

The anti diabetic drug which is also has anorectic effect is:

a. Glipzide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Gliclazide
d. Matformin

For complete question paper you should have to download attached pdf file which is free for you.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER medical entrance exam question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 592 views)
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  #9  
Old December 13th, 2012, 12:09 PM
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Default JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Free

I am looking entrance examination question paper of Jawaharlal Institute of Post Graduate Medical Education and Research. I have to pursue in JIPMER entrance exam. Please provide me?
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  #10  
Old December 15th, 2012, 01:54 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Entrance Exam Question Papers Free

Here I am providing the old question paper for JIPMER entrance examination:

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8
Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D
3. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is --______degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

For the complete question paper visit through the following link:

http://studychacha.com/discuss/31036...on-papers.html
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  #11  
Old March 19th, 2013, 09:43 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

sir plz my information medical lab ke sabe question with answers
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  #12  
Old March 21st, 2013, 06:07 PM
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Default JIPMER Questions Papers

I am taking part in JIPMER exam and for see its pattern I want old question so can anyone provide me the same?
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  #13  
Old March 22nd, 2013, 05:06 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Questions Papers

You are looking for JIPMER question so I have and I am sharing it with you. following are some questions given in question paper.






Complete paper is available in attached pdf file. feel free to download it.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper 1.pdf (168.8 KB, 236 views)
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper 2.pdf (88.9 KB, 187 views)
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Last edited by Sashwat; February 1st, 2014 at 03:00 PM.
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  #14  
Old April 13th, 2013, 06:56 PM
valampuri
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

please give me a jipmer exam question papers
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  #15  
Old April 19th, 2013, 08:50 PM
Nazira begam.su
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

Good evening sir , sir i want jipmer last10 years entrance exam question papers please download question papers to my email id my email fathimashaik21@gmail.com.kindly help me sir.I want to get a seat in jipmer because i wasted 1year sir and gave me a any tips to get success in entrance exam.please help me sir
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  #16  
Old May 10th, 2013, 10:30 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nazira begam.su View Post
Good evening sir , sir i want jipmer last10 years entrance exam question papers please download question papers to my email id my email fathimashaik21@gmail.com.kindly help me sir.I want to get a seat in jipmer because i wasted 1year sir and gave me a any tips to get success in entrance exam.please help me sir
Did you received the questions... If so send the same to vijaiyesh1947@gmail.com , I am having only PG questions.If you need that send me a mail...I will forward the same.
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  #17  
Old May 31st, 2013, 07:33 PM
priyanka saini
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Post Re: JIPMER question paper

Hye,
Gunjan i hope u r f9 plz..... can u tell me the jimper question paper i have tried many times so its very important for me if u can tell so call me on the no. 8794917017 today at 05:35 plz
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  #18  
Old December 25th, 2013, 07:08 PM
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Default JIPMER Solved question paper

I am going to participate in JIPMER exam so need question paper for preparation so will you provide here?
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  #19  
Old December 26th, 2013, 10:46 AM
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Default Re: JIPMER Solved question paper

You are looking for the JIPMER exam question paper i am giving here:

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

For detailed paper here is attachment:
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper.pdf (88.9 KB, 121 views)
File Type: doc JIPMER Question Paper.doc (140.5 KB, 83 views)
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  #20  
Old December 27th, 2013, 11:48 AM
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Default Question Papers of JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Solved

Here I am looking for the solved question papers of JIPMER MBBS entrance exam, can you provide me the same???
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  #21  
Old December 27th, 2013, 01:24 PM
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Default Re: Question Papers of JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Solved

As you are looking for the solved question papers of JIPMER MBBS entrance exam, here I am uploading a document file that contains the same. This attachment contains objective types of the questions. I have taken following questions from the attachment:

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145
Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

Rests of the questions are in the attachment, please click on it……..
Attached Files
File Type: zip JIPMER MBBS entrance exam solved question papers.zip (56.8 KB, 87 views)
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  #22  
Old January 3rd, 2014, 12:27 PM
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Default JIPMER Question Papers

Guys, can you provide me the Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research papers???
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  #23  
Old January 3rd, 2014, 05:47 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER Question Papers

Yes sure, here I am uploading a pdf file having the Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research question papers. There are objective types of the questions available. You can use this question paper in your studies. This is the content of attachment:

1)Vocalis Muscle is a part of
a)Thyroarytenoid
b)Cricoarytenoid
c)Transverse arytenoid
d)Posterior cricoarytenoid

2)Sumatriptan is contraindicated in
a)Asthma
b)DM
c)Coronary artery disease
d)peripheral vascular disease
3)Non granular fungal disease is
a)Cryptococcus
b)Blastomycosis
c)Candida
d)

4)All following are true of seminiferous tubules except
a)Sertoli cells
b)Leydig cells
c)spermatid
d)Spermatogonia

5)Sub-poena is a
a)Legal
b)medicolegal
c)Medical
d)first info report

6)Refsum disease is due to defect in enzyme
a)Phytanic acid oxidase
b)
c)
d)

7)Skin supplied over the angle of mandible and parotid area is by
a)Greater auricular
b)posterior auricular
c)auriculotemporal
d)facial

Complete question paper is in the attachment, please click on it…….
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Question Paper.pdf (130.6 KB, 45 views)
File Type: doc JIPMER Question Papers 1.doc (140.5 KB, 43 views)
File Type: doc JIPMER Question Papers 2.doc (77.5 KB, 37 views)
File Type: doc JIPMER Question Papers.doc (112.5 KB, 37 views)
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  #24  
Old January 17th, 2014, 10:19 AM
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Default How to get JIPMER Entrance Exam Previous years Question Papers

Can any one here provide me the previous years Question Papers of JIPMER Entrance Exam????
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  #25  
Old January 17th, 2014, 10:31 AM
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Default JIPMER Paramedical Test Sample question papers

Can any one here provide me the JIPMER Sample question papers for Paramedical Test???
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  #26  
Old January 17th, 2014, 11:04 AM
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Default Re: How to get JIPMER Entrance Exam Previous years Question Papers

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) conducts JIPMER MBBS Medical Entrance

Here I am sharing the Question paper of JIPMER MBBS Medical Entrance

The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively
(a) gas and liquid (b) liquid and gas
(c) solid and gas (d) solid and liquid

The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is
(a) Ba (b) Ag
(c) Rb (d) Pb

According 10 the first law of thermodynamics which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function?
(a) (b)
(c) —— (d) +

Which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?
(b)
(d)

The geometry of is
(a) planar hexagon (b) regular octahedron
(c) distorted octahedron (d) square bipyramid

Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Entrance Exam Question paper 1.pdf (148.8 KB, 62 views)
File Type: pdf JIPMER Entrance Chemistry Question paper.pdf (425.5 KB, 52 views)
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  #27  
Old January 17th, 2014, 11:29 AM
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Default Re: JIPMER Paramedical Test Sample question papers

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) conducts JIPMER Entrance Test

Here I am sharing the Question paper of JIPMER Entrance Test

The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively
(a) gas and liquid (b) liquid and gas
(c) solid and gas (d) solid and liquid

The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is
(a) Ba (b) Ag
(c) Rb (d) Pb

According 10 the first law of thermodynamics which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function?
(a) (b)
(c) —— (d) +

Which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?
(b)
(d)

The geometry of is
(a) planar hexagon (b) regular octahedron
(c) distorted octahedron (d) square bipyramid

Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Entrance Chemistry Question paper.pdf (425.5 KB, 33 views)
File Type: pdf JIPMER Entrance Exam Question paper 1.pdf (148.8 KB, 35 views)
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  #28  
Old January 17th, 2014, 05:27 PM
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Default JIPMER Exam Question Papers

Can you provide some sample question papers of JIPMER Entrance Exam?
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  #29  
Old January 17th, 2014, 06:25 PM
Sashwat's Avatar
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Default Re: JIPMER Exam Question Papers

As you want to get the JIPMER Entrance Exam question papers, so here I am giving the following question papers:

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of

A. T10

B. T12

C. T6

D. T8

Ans. B


2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal

A. Pudendal nerve

B. Internal pudendal artery

C. Internal pudendal vein

D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D


3. All the following are general visceral efferent except

A. Nucleus ambiguous

B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus

C. Salivatory nucleus

D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A
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  #30  
Old January 20th, 2014, 04:33 PM
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Default Question Papers for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam

I need the Jawaharlal Institute Of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research MBBS entrance exam question paper, will you please provide here?
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  #31  
Old January 20th, 2014, 05:14 PM
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Default Re: Question Papers for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam

The Jawaharlal Institute Of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research MBBS entrance exam pattern is:

The examination shall be conducted in ENGLISH medium only. All the questions will be in English language only.

The Entrance Examination will be of multiple choice type questions and each question will have four options. Out of the options, only one option is correct.

There will be total 200 in the subjects of English, Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology.

The Entrance test is of 150 minutes duration and the question paper consists of a total 200 questions

Physics: 40

Chemistry: 40

Botany: 40

Zoology: 40

English: 40

1 marks will be awarded for each correct answer. There is no negative marking for wrong attempt.

Question paper;
Here is the attachment of the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question paper:
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 67 views)
File Type: pdf JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question paper 1.pdf (1,013.9 KB, 56 views)
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  #32  
Old January 24th, 2014, 11:32 AM
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Default Previous year JIPMER Solved Question Papers

Here I am looking for the previous year solved question papers of JIPMER Entrance exam, Can you please provide me the same???
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  #33  
Old January 24th, 2014, 11:32 AM
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Default Previous Year JIPMER Unsolved Question Papers

Will you please share the previous year unsolved question papers of JIPMER Entrance Exam??
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  #34  
Old January 24th, 2014, 12:05 PM
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Default Re: Previous year JIPMER Solved Question Papers

As you are looking for the previous year solved question papers of JIPMER Entrance exam, so here I am sharing the same with you

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost for you
Attached Files
File Type: zip JIPMER Exam Solved Question Paper.zip (56.6 KB, 40 views)
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  #35  
Old January 24th, 2014, 12:16 PM
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Default Re: Previous Year JIPMER Unsolved Question Papers

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) conducts JIPMER MBBS Medical Entrance

Here I am sharing the Question paper of JIPMER MBBS Medical Entrance

The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively
(a) gas and liquid (b) liquid and gas
(c) solid and gas (d) solid and liquid

The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is
(a) Ba (b) Ag
(c) Rb (d) Pb

According 10 the first law of thermodynamics which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function?
(a) (b)
(c) —— (d) +

Which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?
(b)
(d)

The geometry of is
(a) planar hexagon (b) regular octahedron
(c) distorted octahedron (d) square bipyramid




Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Entrance Exam Question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 42 views)
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Default JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Previous Years Paper

Give me information about paper pattern for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Examination??
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  #37  
Old January 28th, 2014, 10:29 AM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Previous Years Paper

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research, Puducherry (JIPMER) organized an entrance examination for admission in medical courses ..

Here I am giving you information about paper pattern for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Examination below “

JIPMER MBBS Paper Pattern:
Duration: 2 hours 30 minutes
JIPMER Question Paper will consist of Objective type of questions as follows:
English- 50 questions
Physics - 50 questions
Chemistry - 50 questions
Biology – 50 questions
Total - 200 questions
Total Marks - 200 x 1 = 200 marks

Books for paper::

JIPMER Pondicherry Medical Entrance Exam Previous Years' Solved Papers 01 Edition
(Paperback)
Author: RPH Editorial Board
Publisher: Ramesh Publishing House (2012)



JIPMER Medical Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research: 13 Years' Solved Papers (2000 - 2012)
(Paperback)
Author: Arihant Experts
Publisher: Arihant (2012)

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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

I am doing participate in the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam and I have need of its question paper so please tell me the procedure of doing download it question paper PDF File from net.[/QUOTE]
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  #39  
Old January 31st, 2014, 12:32 PM
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Default Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER

Will you please provide me the Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER????
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  #40  
Old February 4th, 2014, 06:39 PM
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Default Re: Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER

Yes sure, here I am providing you the Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER, you can use this question paper in your studies and it will give you basic idea about the paper pattern.

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of

A. T10

B. T12

C. T6

D. T8
Ans. B



2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal

A. Pudendal nerve

B. Internal pudendal artery

C. Internal pudendal vein

D. Nerve to obturator internus



Ans. D
3. All the following are general visceral efferent

except

A. Nucleus ambiguous

B. Dorsal nucleus of

vagus



C. Salivatory nucleus





D. Edinger Westphal nucleus



Ans. A



4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___

degrees

A. 115

B. 125

C. 135

D. 145



Ans. B



5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ

A. Spleen

B. Lymphnode

C. Bonemarrow

D. Liver



Ans. C



6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle

A. Hyoglossus

B. Palatoglossus

C. Myelohyoid

D. Genioglossus



Ans. D



7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis

except

A. Narrow subpubic angle

B. Short concave sacrum

C. Divergent side walls

D. Wide sciatic notch



Ans. A



8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect

A. Extensors of fingers and wrist

B. Flexors of fingers and wrist

C. Small muscles of hand



Ans. B



9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies

A. levator scapulae and rhomboids

B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus

C. lattismus dorsi

D. serratus anterior



Ans. A



10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is

brought about by

A. Popliteus

B. gastrocnemius

C. vastus medialis

D. adductor magnus



Ans.



PHYSIOLOGY



11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as

A. Dissolved CO2

B. HCO3-

C. Carboxy haemoglobin

D. Carbamino haemoglobin



Ans. B



12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the

following type

A. autosomal dominant

B. autosomal recessive

C. x-linked dominant

D. x-linked recessive



Ans. B



13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed

by

A. actin

B. myosin

C. tropomyosin

D. calmodulin



Ans. A



14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in

A. Brain

B. Heart

C. Skin



Ans. A



15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult

is

A. free fatty acids

B. amino acids

C. glucose

D. ketone body



Ans. C?



16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on

hypothalamus

A. smell

B. fine touch

C. hearing

D. vision

Ans. C



17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the

following is seen

A. uncoupling of phosphorylation

B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain

C. inhibition of phosphorylation

D. generation of ATP

Ans.

18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated

by

A. Pavlov

B. Skinner

C. Freud

D. Watson



Ans. B?



19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be

A. Nitric oxide



Ans. A



20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled

by

A. Anterior corticospinal tract

B. Lateral corticospinal tract

C. Tectospinal

D. Vestibulospinal



Ans.



BIOCHEMISTRY



21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which

enzyme

A. Lysyl hydroxylase

B. Lysyl oxidase

C. Procollagen peptidase



Ans. A



22. Okazaki pieces are seen in

A. DNA repair

B. DNA replication

C. Transcription

D. Translation



Ans. B



23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located

on

A. Long arm of chromosome 6

B. Short arm of chromosome 6

C. Long arm of chromosome 7

D. Short arm of chromosome 7



Ans. B



24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged

starvation

A. Aceto acetate

B. B-hydroxy buryrate

C. acetone

D. alpha ketoglutarate



Ans. B?



25. cAMP is degraded by

A. Phosphodiesterase

B. Phosphokinase

C. Phosphatase

D. Xanthine oxidase



Ans. A



MICROBIOLOGY



26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through

A. pili

B. fimbriae

C. flagella

D. mesosomes



Ans. A



27. Which of the following organism is capsulated



A. Histoplasma capsulatum

B. Cryptococcus neoformans

C. Candida albicans



Ans. B



28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of

A. Schistosoma japonicum

B. Schistosoma mansoni

C. Schistosoma haematobium

D. Schistosoma mekongi



Ans. B



29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus

A. HTLV-1

B. HPV

C. EBV

D. HBV



Ans. A



30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement

pathway

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgD



Ans. A



31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway

A. Immune complex

B. Lipopolysaccharide

C. Exotoxin



Ans. A



32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV



Ans. C



33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is

A. Lung

B. Meninges



Ans. B



34. All are true about streptococcal infections except

A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years

B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs

C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces

D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs

Ans. D

PATHOLOGY



35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease

A. increased TIBC

B. increased serum iron

C. increased serum ferritin

D. increased bone marrow iron



Ans. B



36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha

A. lymphocyte

B. fibroblast

C. macrophage

D. endothelium



Ans. A



37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include

A. periportal inflammation

B. portal fibrosis

C. bridging necrosis

D. cholestasis



Ans. D



38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by

A. Type I pneumocytes

B. Type II pneumocytes

Ans. B



39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except

A. Increased fibrin degradation products

B. Decreased platelets

C. Increased fibrinogen



Ans. C



PHARMACOLOGY



40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist

A. Acebutolol

B. Atenolol

C.Metoprolol

D.Bisoprolol



Ans. D



41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following

except

A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis

B. Elderly hypertensive

C. Diabetic microalbuminuria

D. Severe renal failure



Ans. C



42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug

A. bleomycin

B. doxorubicin

C. 5 FU



Ans. B



43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed

with

A. Naloxone

B. Theophylline

C. Artificial ventillation



Ans. A

44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid

hemorrhage is

A. Nimodipine

B. Diltiazem

C. Verapamil



Ans. A



45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with

A. alpha methyldopa

B. phenylbutazone

C. INH



Ans. B



46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile

seizures

A. sodium valproate

B. carbamazepine

C. phenobarbitone

D. diazepam



Ans. B



47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic

A. Rifampicin

B. Ethambutol

C. Pyrazinamide

D. INH



Ans. B



48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism

A. Ethambutol

B. Lithium

C. Amiodarone

D. Pyrazinamide



Ans. D



49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of

A. Growth hormone

B. Prolactin



Ans. B



50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent

A. Doxapram

B. Nikethamide

C. Doxacurium

D. Propylbutamide



Ans. C



51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic

infections

A. penicillin

B. clindamycin

C. chloramphenicol

D. gentamycin



Ans. D



52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in

pregnancy

A. Doxycyclin

B. Erythromycin

C. Mirepenam

D. Tetracyclin



Ans. B

53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of

A. petit mal epilepsy

B. type 2 diabetes mellitus

C. hyperlipidaemia



Ans. B



54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant

A. guanabenz

B. guanadrel

C. clonidine

D. alpha methyl dopa



Ans. B



55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in

A. 26days

B. 36days

C. 46days

D. 56days



Ans. D



56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to

A. Increase effect

B. decrease side effects

C. decrease abuse

D. enhance absorption

Ans. C



57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs

A. Lithium

B. L-Dopa

C. Digoxin

D. Phenytoin



Ans. B



58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine

esterase

A. Mivacurium

B. Atracurium



Ans. A



59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of

A. Phenytoin

B. Diazepam

C. Clonazepam

D. Phenobarbitone



Ans. A



60. Which of the following is prothrombotic

A. Thrombomodulin

B. PGI2

C. Heparin

D. ADP



Ans. D



61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by

A. Erythromycin

B. vitaminK

C. Theophyllin



Ans. A







FORENSIC MEDICINE



62. Which of the following is most useful for sex

determination

A. Skull

B. femur

C. pelvis

D. tibia



Ans. C



63. Which of the following is diagnostic of

drowning

A. froth in the nostrils

B. cutis anserina

C. water in the stomach

D. mud in the respiratory passages



Ans. A



64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of

A.copper sulphate

B.phenol

C.organophosphorus

D.cyanide



Ans. B



65. Leading questions are not permitted in

A.cross examination

B.examination in chief

C.questions by the judge



Ans. B



MEDICINE



66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by

A.CT

B.Angiography

C.MRI

D.X-ray



Ans. B



67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with

A.Fresh Frozen Plasma

B.Cryo precipitate

C.Whole blood

D.Buffy coat extract



Ans. A



68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in

A. Cardiac tamponade

B. Aortic regurgitation

C. dilated cardiomyopathy

D. restrictive cardiomyopathy



Ans. C



69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in

treadmill test

A. flat ST depression

B. upsloping ST depression

C. ventricular tachycardia

D. T wave inversion



Ans. A









70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased

sweating. What is the best next step

A.lytic cocktail

B.atropine

C.antevenom



Ans. C



71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature

of

A.variceal sclerotherapy

B.coronary artery bypass

C.peritoneal dialysis

D.radiation



Ans.



72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is

A.Clofazimine

B.Chloroquin

C.Thalidomide

D.Steroids



Ans. C



73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except

A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present

B.LMN in upper limb

C.UMN in lower limb

D.no sensory involvement



Ans. A



74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of

A.Multiple sclerosis

B.Parkinsonism

C.Alzheimer's disease



Ans. C



75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of



A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome

B.Rotor syndrome

C.Gilbert's syndrome

D.primary biliary cirrhosis



Ans. C



76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is

A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

B.Klinefelter's syndrome

C.Testicular feminization



Ans. A



77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of

hypokalemia

A.tall T waves

B.U waves

C.flat ST segment



Ans. A



78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is

A.Multiple myeloma

B.NHL

C.Lukaemia

D.multiple secondaries



Ans. D?



79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick

injury

A.HIV

B.Hepatitis B

C.Hepatitis C

D.CMV



Ans. B



80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except

A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma

B.AML

C.ALL

D.Aplastic anemia



Ans. A?



81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis

A.FTA-ABS

B.TPHA

C.IgM-FTA ABS

D.TPI



Ans. C



82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in

A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia

B.Kawasaki's disease

C.Guillen Barrie syndrome

D.Selective IgA deficiency



Ans. D



83.Grade 1 lymphedema means

A.pitting edema up to the ankle

B.pitting edema up to the knee

C.non-pitting edema

D.edema disappearing after overnight rest



Ans. D



84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is

A.defective absorption

B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility

C.primary mucosal disease.



Ans. B



85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through

A.femoral vein

B.saphenous vein

C.subclavian vein



Ans. C



86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the

following conditions

A.Alzheimer's disease

B.senile cardiac amyloidosis

C.medullary carcinoma thyroid

D.multiple myeloma



Ans. B



87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of

A.sarcoidosis

B.silicosis

C.lymphoma



Ans. B



88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor

gene

A.N myc

B.Rb

C.p53

D.Mad-max



Ans. A



89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-
penia

A.bleeding time

B.clotting time

C.platelet count



Ans. A



90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true

A.the language defect progresses with age

b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of

cases

C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation

D.seizures are common



Ans. B





91. Macula cerulea is seen in

A.Pediculosis humanis corporis

B.Pediculosis capitis

C.Phthiris pubis



Ans. C



92. Lyonization occurs usually at

A.9th day

B.16th day

C.28th day

D.36th day



Ans. B





93. Localized tetanus is due to

A.large gaping wound

B.atypical strains of bacteria

C.abnormally long incubation period

D.partial immunity



Ans. A?



94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in

A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease

B.Neurofibromatosis

C.Sturge Weber syndrome

D.Bournville's disease



Ans. B



95. CMV does not cause

A.intracranial calcification

B.congenital heart disease

C.mental retardation

D.seizures



Ans. B













96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except

A.Irondeficiency anemia

B.bloody diarrhea

C.pulmonary hemosiderosis

D.intestinal colic



Ans. A



97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of

A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy

B.hypotonic CP

C.choreo athetotic CP

D.Myasthenia gravis



Ans.



98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the

following except

A.mental retardation

B.hypoglycemia

C.low hairline

D.micropenis



Ans.



99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except

A.analgesic nephropathy

B.hydronephrosis

C.acute pyelonephritis

D.sickle cell disease



Ans. B



100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen

in

A.Yaws

B.Pinta

C.Leprosy

D.Kala azar



Ans. B
101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to

start reperfusion is

A.streptokinase

B.urokinase

C.tissue plasminogen activator

D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex



Ans. C



102. Iliac horns are seen in

A.Nail patella syndrome

B.ankylossing spondylitis



Ans. A





103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is

A.multiple

B.pontine

C.severe symptoms



Ans. C



104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level

A.100mg/dl

B.130mg/dl

C.160mg/dl

D.190mg/dl



Ans. A

SURGERY



105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in

A.Poly cystic kidney disease

B.Horse Shoe Kidney

C.Hydronephrosis

D.Ectopic kidney



Ans. B



106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with

A.Armillifer

B.Loa Loa

C.Cysticercus cellulosae

D.Guinea worm



Ans. A



107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with

A.Radiotherapy

B.Chemotherapy

C.Surgery

D.Laser ablation



Ans. C?



108. Commonest type of hypospadias is

A.glandular

B.penile

C.coronal

D.scrotal



Ans. A



109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis

Obliterans

A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years

B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs

C.there is associated phlebitis

D.femoral artery is involved



Ans. D



110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed

Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of

treatment

A.Diverticulectomy

B.leave it alone

C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump

D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis



Ans. B



111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be

due to

A.pulmonary embolism

B.pulmonary contusion

C.hemothorax

D.pneumonia



Ans. C



112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple

is

A.Duct ectasia

B.Duct carcinoma

C.Duct papilloma



Ans. C



113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have

more

A.malignant change

B.fistula formation

C.bleeding per rectum

D.cholangio carcinoma



Ans. B



114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis

except

A.Usually follows a viral infection

B.There is increased radio iodine uptake

C.Initial hyperthyroid state

D.Anti thyroids are of no use



Ans. B



115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in

varicose veins

A. Trendelenberg test

B. Fegan's test

C. Morissey's test

D. Homan's test



Ans. B



116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in

A.multiple septic emboli

B.multiple small peripheral emboli

C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated

D.Ileo femoral thrombosis



Ans. C



117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread

A.Warthin's tumor

B.adenoid cystic carcinoma

C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma

D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma



Ans. B

118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following

carcinoma

A.stomach

B.gall bladder

C.colon

D.pancreas



Ans. C





119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from

congenital mega colon is

A.Delayed evacuation of barium

B.Air fluid levels

C.Presence of a transition zone

D.Dilated bowel loops



Ans. C



120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer

A.Sloping edge

B. Undermined edge

C. Serous discharge

D. Reddish base



Ans. B





121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula

A. fistulectomy

B. seton repair

C. proximal colostomy

D. anal dilatation



Ans. A



122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is

A. PTFE

B. Dacron

C. Autologous vein



Ans. C



123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is

A. elevation of the limb

B. proximal tourniquet

C. direct pressure

D. ligation of the bleeding vessel



Ans. C



124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is

A. Retrograde cystourethrogram

B. MCU

C. IVP

D. USG



Ans. B



125. Most virus associated malignancy is

A. Carcinoma cervix

B. Burkitt's lymphoma

C. Carcinoma Breast



Ans. C



126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is

A. <10yrs

B. 20-40yrs

C. 40-60yrs

D. >60yrs



Ans.



127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much

percentage

A. 45%

B. 55%

C. 60%

D. 65%



Ans. A



PSM



128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate

of

A. 50

B. 60

C. 70

D. 80



Ans. B

discuss questions at message board at aippg.com

129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India

is

A.Culex tritaneorhyncus

B.Anopheles

Ans. A

130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is



A. 1mg

B. 0.5mg

C. 0.2 mg

D. 0.7mg



Ans. B



131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study

A.incidence can be calculated

B.it is from effect to cause

C.it is inexpensive

D.shorter time than case control



Ans. A



132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health

regulations

A. plague

B. yellow fever

C. cholera

D. polio



Ans. D



133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter

is

A. 0.1 -0.2 mm

B. 0.2-0.3 mm

C. 0.3-0.4 mm

D. 0.4-0.5 mm



Ans. B



134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS

solution

A. 10meq

B. 20meq

C. 30meq

D. 40meq



Ans. B



135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is

included is below

A. 5yrs

B. 12yrs

C. 8yrs

D. 16yrs



Ans. B?



136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance

now

A. ABER

B. Infant parasite rate

C. Annual parasite incidence

D. Slide positivity rate



Ans. B



137. Which of the following is true about Botulism

A.high fever

B.brisk reflexes

C.salivation

D.sore throat



Ans. D











138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height

1.5m

A.19

B.20

C.21

D.18



Ans.B



139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water

A. Copper sulphate

B. Pottassium permanganate

C. Hypochlorite

D. Bleaching powder



Ans. A



140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except

A. Culex

B. Anopheles

C. Aedes

D. Mansonoides



Ans. B



141. The WHO criteria for TB control means

A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%



Ans. A



142. Validity of a screening test includes all except

A.sensitivity

B.specificity

C.repeatability

D.accuracy



Ans. C



143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted

A. Entameba histolytica

B. Giardia lamblia

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Leishmania brasiliensis



Ans. D



144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent

maternal mortality is

A.3

B.6

C.9

D.12



Ans. A



145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO

A.vision less than 3/60



Ans. A



146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life

A.Hib

B.Hepatitis B

C.DPT



Ans. B







147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus

A. 7days

B. 10days

C. 14days

D. 18days



Ans. A



148. PQLI does not include

A.Infant Mortality rate

B.Gross national Product

C.Litreacy rate

D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.



Ans. B



149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also

of the living standard of a community

A.IMR

B.PNMR

C.MMR



Ans. A



150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance

A. U test

B. t-test



Ans. B



151.All are components of Primary Health Care except

A.providing essential drugs

B.supplementary nutrition

C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments

D.prevention of locally endemic diseases



Ans. B





152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula



A.x-`x/s

B.(x-`x)2/s



Ans. A



153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy

is

A. 1yr

B. 2yrs

C. 6months

D. 9months



Ans. B



154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of

A. Strength of association

B. Possibility

C. Dose response



Ans. A



155. Median incubation period means

A. Time for 50% cases to occur

B. Time between primary case and secondary case

C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity



Ans. A







156. In census literacy rate is assessed by

A.attended literacy classes for one year

B.ability to write signature

C.ability to read and write



Ans. C



157. Ringer lactate does not contain

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Chloride

D. Bicarbonate



Ans. D



158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many

days

A. 51

B. 61

C. 91

D. 71



Ans. C



ORTHOPEDICS



159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in

A. Osteo arthritis

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. peroneal spasm

D. congenital tarsal fusion



Ans. A



160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis



A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint

B. interroseous membrane ossification

C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body

D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint



Ans. D?



161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential

diagnosis of osteomyelitis

A.chondrosarcoma

B.Ewing's sarcoma

C.osteosarcoma



Ans. B



162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified

as

A.Type I

B.Type II

C.Type IIIA

D.Type IIIB



Ans. A?



163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is

A. standing

B. sitting

C. lying flat

D. lying on one side



Ans.









164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip

A.flexion adduction and internal rotation

B.flexion adduction and external rotation

C.flexion abduction and internal rotation

D.flexion abduction and external rotation



Ans. D



165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture

A.Sudek's osteodystrophy

B.Non Union

C.Shoulder stiffness

D.Malunion



Ans. B



166. Median nerve involvement is most common with

A. elbow dislocation

B. supracondylar fracture

C. lateral condyle fractrue

D. olecranon fracture



Ans. B



167. Earliest bone to ossify is

A. Clavicle

B. Tibia

C. Sternum

D. Ribs



Ans. A



ENT



168.Bezold's abscess is seen at

A.petrous tip

B.Mastoid tip

C.digastric triangle

D.subdurally



Ans. B



169. Which of the following is not a feature of

Rhinosporidiosis

A.Bleeding polyp

B.Russel bodies are seen

C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment

D.bleeding is present



Ans. B



170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is

seen is

A.rhinolalia clausa

B.rhinolalia aperta

C.hotpotato voice



Ans. A



171. Abductor of the vocal cord is

A.lateral cricoarytenoid

B.cricothyroid

C.posterior cricoarytenoid



Ans. C











172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares

in

A.Atrophic rhinitis

B.Rhinosporidiosis

C.Deviated nasal septum

D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate



Ans. C



173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease

A.vertigo

B.tinnitus

C.conductive deafness



Ans. C



174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital

deafness

A.delta wave

B.long QT

C.short PR interval



Ans. B



175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis

A.hearing better in louder conditions

B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal

C.tympanic membrane is normal

D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness



Ans. B



176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on

tympanic membrane is made on

A.anteroinferior quadrant

B.anterosuperior quadrant

C.posterosuperior quadrant

D.posteroinferior quadrant



Ans. A



177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor

paralysis

A.dyspnea on exertion

B.transient hoarseness

C.husky voice

D.inspiratory stridor



Ans. B



178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true

except

A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks

B.high frequency sensory hearing loss

C.spontaneous nystagmus is present

D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection



Ans. B



179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is

A.pneumothorax

B.surgical emphysema

C.injury to the large vessels

D.injury to esophagus



Ans. B















EYE



180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of

A.Infantile Gaucher's disease

B.Niemann Pick disease

C.Fabry's disease



Ans. B



181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated

by application of

A.Atropine

B.Pilocarpine

C.Timolol

D.Hydroxy amphetamine



Ans. D



182. Axial proptosis is caused by

A. blow out fracture of the orbit

B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit

C. frontal mucocele

D. optic glioma



Ans. D



183. Which of the following is used for treatment of

myopia

A. Nd YAG laser

B. Excimer laser

C. Argon laser

D. Hormium laser



Ans. B



184. Sun flower cataract is seen in

A.Blunt trauma

B.Diabetes

C.Chalcosis

D.Argyriosis



Ans. C



185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of

herpes keratitis

A. Superficial punctate keratitis

B. Dendritic ulcer

C. Geographic ulcer

D. Disciform keratitis



Ans. D



186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch

vein occlusion

A. Cystoid macular edema

B. Macular hemorrhage

C. Vitreous hemorrhage



Ans. A



187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint

A. Accomodative squint

B. Paralytic squint

C. Divergant squint

D. Congenital squint



Ans. A











188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in

A. hypermature cataract

B. immature cataract

C. lens subluxation

D. developmental cataract



Ans. C



189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of

A. Deschmet's membrane

B. epithelium

C. endothelium

D. stroma



Ans. A



190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is

A.dacryocystectomy

B.hydrostaticmassage

C.probing and syringing with antibiotics

D.dacryocystorhinostomy



Ans. B



191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of

A.CRVO

B.Incomplete CRAO

C.Incomplete CRVO

D.Hypertensive retinopathy



Ans. B



192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of

A. Digoxin

B. Amiodarone

C. Ethambutol



Ans. B?



PSYCHIATRY



193. Reversible dementia is a feature of

A.Alzheimer's disease

B.Pick's disease

C.Multiinfarct dementia

D.Hypothyroidism



Ans. D



194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression

A.altered sleep pattern

B.weight loss

C.guilt

D.decreased apettite



Ans. C?



195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of

schizophrenia

A.hebephrenic

B.catatonic

C.paranoid

D.simple



Ans. B



196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in

Schizophrenia

A.perceptional delusions

B.thought insertion

C.perceptional hallucinations



Ans. B

A I P P G

197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome



A.clear consciousness

B.inabiliity to learn new things

C.hallucinations

D.confabulation

Ans. C



198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the

following

A.Pyridoxine

B.Thiamine

C.Vitamin B12

D.Riboflavin



Ans. B



199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is

A.Psychoanalysis

B.Family therapy

C.Transaction analysis

D.Rapid emotive treatment and response



Ans.



200. deJavu phenomenon means

A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar

B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it



Ans. B





SKIN



201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma

virus

A.HPV 6-16

B.HPV 6-11

C.HPV 16-18

D.HPV 11-18



Ans. B



202. Herald patch is seen in

A.pityriasis rosea

B.lichen planus

C.DLE



Ans. A



203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma

A.Furuncle

B.Ecthyma

C.Pyoderma gangrenosum

D.Carbuncle



Ans. C



204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is

A.penicillin

B.ceftriaxone



Ans. B



205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by

A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes

B.Trichophyton rubrum

C.Microsporum audoni



Ans. C



206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects

A.webspace

B.face

C.genitalia

D.axilla



Ans. B



207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is

A.Lymphogranuloma venerium

B.Chancroid

C.Granuloma inguanale



Ans. C



208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except

A. SLE

B. Xeroderma pigmentosa

C. Poephyria cutanea tarda

D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum



Ans. D



ANAESTHESIA



209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit'

person following surgery

A.midazolam

B.propofol

C.alfentanyl

D.thiopentone



Ans. B



210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits

A.trichloroethylene

B.isoflurane

C.halothane

D.methoxyflurane



Ans. A



211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines

A.Halothane

B.Isoflurane

C.Enflurane



Ans. A



212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action

because

A.it is rapidly metabolized

B.it is rapidly redistributed



Ans. B





213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to

A.prevent gastric aspiration

B.prevent fetal depression

C.to decrease awareness



Ans. A



PEDIATRICS

all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)

214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except



A.there is always respiratory distress

B.steroids are not useful

C.ECMO may be useful



Ans. A



215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change

disease

A.65%

B.75%

C.85%

D.95%



Ans. D



216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex

A.24months

B.36months

C.30months

D.42months

Ans. A?



217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth

A.knee jerk

B.ankle jerk

C.biceps jerk

D.triceps jerk



Ans.





218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of

A.Kawasaki disease

B.Scarlet fever



Ans. A



219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated

immunity

A.protein energy malnutrition

B.zinc deficiency

C.selenium deficiency

D.iron deficiency



Ans. C



220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except

A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases

B.convulsion in 25% of cases

C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth

D.profuse vomiting



Ans. C



221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following

except

A.crawl upstairs

B.make a tower of 5 cubes

C.name familiar objects

D.point to familiar things



Ans. B



GYNAE & OBST.



222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with

leucorrhea

A.Chlamydia trachomatis

B.H.vaginalis

C.Trichomonas

D.Candida



Ans. A



223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree.

The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on

management

A.cesarian section

B.oxytocin drip

C.rupture of membranes

D.instillation of PG E2



Ans. A



224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in

A.subseptate uterus

B.uterus didelphys

C.hypoplastic uterus

D.unicornuate uterus



Ans. A

www.aippg.com

225. Osiander's sign means

A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix

B. Bluish colour change in the vagina

C.Softening of the cervix

D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in

between



Ans. A





226. Which of the following does not cross placenta

A.heparin

B.propranolol

C.warfarin



Ans. A



227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following

except

A.premature rupture of membrane

B.intrauterine infection

C.myasthenia gravis

D.renal failure



Ans. B



228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is

A.phenytoin

B.sodium valproate

C.carbamazepine

D.lamotrigene



Ans. D



229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure

in which period

A.16wks

B.24wks

C.20wks

D.28wks



Ans. D



230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for

A.colon

B.ovary



Ans. B



231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS

is

A. 0.2

B. 0.5

C. 0.7

D. 0.9



Ans.



232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is

A. XO

B. XX

C. XXY

D. XY



Ans. A



233. What is true about shoulder presentation

A. Ccord prolapse is common

B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common

C. Deep transverse arrest can occur

D. More common in primi



Ans.



234. Variable deceleration indicates

A.head compression

B.cord compression

C.fetal hypoxaemia

D.maternal sedation

Ans. B





235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true

A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy

B. sex discordance can occur rarely

C. always monochorionic

D. more common following ovulation induction



Ans. C



236. The placenta is formed from

A.decidua basalis

B.decidua vera

C.chorion levae

D.decidua capsularis



Ans. A



237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy



A.50-60

B.60-70

C.70-80

D.80-90



Ans. B



238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one

in

A. 100

B. 200

C. 500

D. 1000



Ans. B

239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention

A.Anterior

B.Posterior

C.Submucous

D.Subserous



Ans. A



240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except

A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio

B. Nile blue sulfate test

C. Nitrazine paper test

D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid



Ans. C



241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the

first thing that you will do

A. USG

B. NST

C. Review the menstrual history once more

D. X-ray abdomen



Ans. C



242. First trimester USG is not indicated in

A.Hydramnios

B.Hyper emesis gravidarum



Ans. A



243. Parkland formula for burns is for

A.Ringer lactate

B.glucose saline

C.Normal saline



Ans. A



244. Paracusis willisi is seen in

A.stapedial fixation

B.ASOM



Ans. A



245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is

A.Gartner's cyst

B.endometriotic cyst

C.Inclusion cyst



Ans. A



RADIOLOGY



246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation

A.skin

B.muscle

C.bone marrow

D.intestine



Ans. B



247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in

A. Candidiasis

B. Aspergillosis

C. Sporotrichosis

D. Cryptococcosis



Ans. A

248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is

A.Becqueral

B.Gray

C.Stewart

D.Roentgen



Ans. B



249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal

necrotizing enterocolitis

A. Gas in the portal system

B. Gas in the intestinal wall

C. Pneumoperitoneum

D. Air fluid levels



Ans. B



250. Sign of contour is seen in

A. Ulcerative colitis

B. duedonal atrisia

C. Chron's disease
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  #41  
Old February 12th, 2014, 01:08 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2013
Posts: 30,670
Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

As you required the entrance exam question papers of
JIPMER MBBS here I providing the some question of this paper with answer as following:-
JIPMER 2000

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin

Ans. D

52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin

Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia

Ans. B

54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa

Ans. B

55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days

Ans. D

56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C

57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin

Ans. B

58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium

Ans. A

59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone

Ans. A

60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP

Ans. D

61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin

Ans. A



FORENSIC MEDICINE

62. Which of the following is most useful for sex determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia

Ans. C

63. Which of the following is diagnostic of drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages

Ans. A

64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide

Ans. B

65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge

Ans. B

MEDICINE

66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray

Ans. B

67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract

Ans. A

68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy

Ans. C

69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion

Ans. A




70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom

Ans. C

71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation

Ans.

72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids

Ans. C

73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement

Ans. A

74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease

Ans. C

75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of
A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis

Ans. C

76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization

Ans. A

77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment

Ans. A

78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries

Ans. D?

79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV

Ans. B

80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia

Ans. A?

81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI

Ans. C

82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency

Ans. D

83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest

Ans. D

84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.

Ans. B

85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein

Ans. C

86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the following conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma

Ans. B

87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma

Ans. B

88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max

Ans. A

89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-penia
A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count

Ans. A

90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common

Ans. B


91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis

Ans. C

92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day

Ans. B


93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity

Ans. A?

94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease

Ans. B

95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures

Ans. B






96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic

Ans. A

97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis

Ans.

98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the following except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis

Ans.

99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease

Ans. B

100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar

Ans. B

101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to start reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex

Ans. C

102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis

Ans. A


103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms

Ans. C

104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/dl
B.130mg/dl
C.160mg/dl
D.190mg/dl

Ans. A
SURGERY

105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney

Ans. B

106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm

Ans. A

107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation

Ans. C?

108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal

Ans. A

109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved

Ans. D

110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis

Ans. B

111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia

Ans. C

112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma

Ans. C

113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma

Ans. B

114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use

Ans. B

115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test

Ans. B

116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis

Ans. C

117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas

Ans. C


119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops

Ans. C

120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base

Ans. B


121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation

Ans. A

122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein

Ans. C

123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel

Ans. C

124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG

Ans. B

125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast

Ans. C

126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs

Ans.

127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%

Ans. A

PSM

128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80

Ans. B
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129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India is
A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is
A. 1mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg

Ans. B

131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control

Ans. A

132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio

Ans. D

133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm

Ans. B

134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq

Ans. B

135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is included is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs

Ans. B?

136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate

Ans. B

137. Which of the following is true about Botulism
A.high fever
B.brisk reflexes
C.salivation
D.sore throat

Ans. D





138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height 1.5m
A.19
B.20
C.21
D.18

Ans.B

139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water
A. Copper sulphate
B. Pottassium permanganate
C. Hypochlorite
D. Bleaching powder

Ans. A

140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonoides

Ans. B

141. The WHO criteria for TB control means
A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%

Ans. A

142. Validity of a screening test includes all except
A.sensitivity
B.specificity
C.repeatability
D.accuracy

Ans. C

143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted
A. Entameba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Leishmania brasiliensis

Ans. D

144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent maternal mortality is
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12

Ans. A

145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO
A.vision less than 3/60

Ans. A

146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life
A.Hib
B.Hepatitis B
C.DPT

Ans. B



147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus
A. 7days
B. 10days
C. 14days
D. 18days

Ans. A

148. PQLI does not include
A.Infant Mortality rate
B.Gross national Product
C.Litreacy rate
D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.

Ans. B

149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also of the living standard of a community
A.IMR
B.PNMR
C.MMR

Ans. A

150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance
A. U test
B. t-test

Ans. B

151.All are components of Primary Health Care except
A.providing essential drugs
B.supplementary nutrition
C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments
D.prevention of locally endemic diseases

Ans. B


152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula
A.x-`x/s
B.(x-`x)2/s

Ans. A

153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy is
A. 1yr
B. 2yrs
C. 6months
D. 9months

Ans. B

154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of
A. Strength of association
B. Possibility
C. Dose response

Ans. A

155. Median incubation period means
A. Time for 50% cases to occur
B. Time between primary case and secondary case
C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity

Ans. A



156. In census literacy rate is assessed by
A.attended literacy classes for one year
B.ability to write signature
C.ability to read and write

Ans. C

157. Ringer lactate does not contain
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate

Ans. D

158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many days
A. 51
B. 61
C. 91
D. 71

Ans. C

ORTHOPEDICS

159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
A. Osteo arthritis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. peroneal spasm
D. congenital tarsal fusion

Ans. A

160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis
A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
B. interroseous membrane ossification
C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body
D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint

Ans. D?

161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential diagnosis of osteomyelitis
A.chondrosarcoma
B.Ewing's sarcoma
C.osteosarcoma

Ans. B

162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified as
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB

Ans. A?

163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is
A. standing
B. sitting
C. lying flat
D. lying on one side

Ans.




164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip
A.flexion adduction and internal rotation
B.flexion adduction and external rotation
C.flexion abduction and internal rotation
D.flexion abduction and external rotation

Ans. D

165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture
A.Sudek's osteodystrophy
B.Non Union
C.Shoulder stiffness
D.Malunion

Ans. B

166. Median nerve involvement is most common with
A. elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture
C. lateral condyle fractrue
D. olecranon fracture

Ans. B

167. Earliest bone to ossify is
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. Ribs

Ans. A

ENT

168.Bezold's abscess is seen at
A.petrous tip
B.Mastoid tip
C.digastric triangle
D.subdurally

Ans. B

169. Which of the following is not a feature of Rhinosporidiosis
A.Bleeding polyp
B.Russel bodies are seen
C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment
D.bleeding is present

Ans. B

170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is seen is
A.rhinolalia clausa
B.rhinolalia aperta
C.hotpotato voice

Ans. A

171. Abductor of the vocal cord is
A.lateral cricoarytenoid
B.cricothyroid
C.posterior cricoarytenoid

Ans. C





172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares in
A.Atrophic rhinitis
B.Rhinosporidiosis
C.Deviated nasal septum
D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate

Ans. C

173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease
A.vertigo
B.tinnitus
C.conductive deafness

Ans. C

174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital deafness
A.delta wave
B.long QT
C.short PR interval

Ans. B

175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis
A.hearing better in louder conditions
B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal
C.tympanic membrane is normal
D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness

Ans. B

176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on tympanic membrane is made on
A.anteroinferior quadrant
B.anterosuperior quadrant
C.posterosuperior quadrant
D.posteroinferior quadrant

Ans. A

177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis
A.dyspnea on exertion
B.transient hoarseness
C.husky voice
D.inspiratory stridor

Ans. B

178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true except
A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks
B.high frequency sensory hearing loss
C.spontaneous nystagmus is present
D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection

Ans. B

179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is
A.pneumothorax
B.surgical emphysema
C.injury to the large vessels
D.injury to esophagus

Ans. B







EYE

180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of
A.Infantile Gaucher's disease
B.Niemann Pick disease
C.Fabry's disease

Ans. B

181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated by application of
A.Atropine
B.Pilocarpine
C.Timolol
D.Hydroxy amphetamine

Ans. D

182. Axial proptosis is caused by
A. blow out fracture of the orbit
B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit
C. frontal mucocele
D. optic glioma

Ans. D

183. Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia
A. Nd YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Hormium laser

Ans. B

184. Sun flower cataract is seen in
A.Blunt trauma
B.Diabetes
C.Chalcosis
D.Argyriosis

Ans. C

185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of herpes keratitis
A. Superficial punctate keratitis
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Geographic ulcer
D. Disciform keratitis

Ans. D

186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch vein occlusion
A. Cystoid macular edema
B. Macular hemorrhage
C. Vitreous hemorrhage

Ans. A

187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint
A. Accomodative squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Divergant squint
D. Congenital squint

Ans. A





188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in
A. hypermature cataract
B. immature cataract
C. lens subluxation
D. developmental cataract

Ans. C

189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of
A. Deschmet's membrane
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. stroma

Ans. A

190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is
A.dacryocystectomy
B.hydrostaticmassage
C.probing and syringing with antibiotics
D.dacryocystorhinostomy

Ans. B

191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of
A.CRVO
B.Incomplete CRAO
C.Incomplete CRVO
D.Hypertensive retinopathy

Ans. B

192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Ethambutol

Ans. B?

PSYCHIATRY

193. Reversible dementia is a feature of
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.Pick's disease
C.Multiinfarct dementia
D.Hypothyroidism

Ans. D

194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression
A.altered sleep pattern
B.weight loss
C.guilt
D.decreased apettite

Ans. C?

195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of schizophrenia
A.hebephrenic
B.catatonic
C.paranoid
D.simple

Ans. B

196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in Schizophrenia
A.perceptional delusions
B.thought insertion
C.perceptional hallucinations

Ans. B
A I P P G
197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome
A.clear consciousness
B.inabiliity to learn new things
C.hallucinations
D.confabulation
Ans. C

198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the following
A.Pyridoxine
B.Thiamine
C.Vitamin B12
D.Riboflavin

Ans. B

199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is
A.Psychoanalysis
B.Family therapy
C.Transaction analysis
D.Rapid emotive treatment and response

Ans.

200. deJavu phenomenon means
A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar
B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it

Ans. B


SKIN

201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma virus
A.HPV 6-16
B.HPV 6-11
C.HPV 16-18
D.HPV 11-18

Ans. B

202. Herald patch is seen in
A.pityriasis rosea
B.lichen planus
C.DLE

Ans. A

203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma
A.Furuncle
B.Ecthyma
C.Pyoderma gangrenosum
D.Carbuncle

Ans. C

204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is
A.penicillin
B.ceftriaxone

Ans. B

205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by
A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes
B.Trichophyton rubrum
C.Microsporum audoni

Ans. C

206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
A.webspace
B.face
C.genitalia
D.axilla

Ans. B

207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is
A.Lymphogranuloma venerium
B.Chancroid
C.Granuloma inguanale

Ans. C

208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except
A. SLE
B. Xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Poephyria cutanea tarda
D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

Ans. D

ANAESTHESIA

209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit' person following surgery
A.midazolam
B.propofol
C.alfentanyl
D.thiopentone

Ans. B

210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits
A.trichloroethylene
B.isoflurane
C.halothane
D.methoxyflurane

Ans. A

211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines
A.Halothane
B.Isoflurane
C.Enflurane

Ans. A

212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action because
A.it is rapidly metabolized
B.it is rapidly redistributed

Ans. B


213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to
A.prevent gastric aspiration
B.prevent fetal depression
C.to decrease awareness

Ans. A

PEDIATRICS
all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)
214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except
A.there is always respiratory distress
B.steroids are not useful
C.ECMO may be useful

Ans. A

215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change disease
A.65%
B.75%
C.85%
D.95%

Ans. D

216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex
A.24months
B.36months
C.30months
D.42months
Ans. A?

217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth
A.knee jerk
B.ankle jerk
C.biceps jerk
D.triceps jerk

Ans.


218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of
A.Kawasaki disease
B.Scarlet fever

Ans. A

219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated immunity
A.protein energy malnutrition
B.zinc deficiency
C.selenium deficiency
D.iron deficiency

Ans. C

220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except
A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases
B.convulsion in 25% of cases
C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth
D.profuse vomiting

Ans. C

221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following except
A.crawl upstairs
B.make a tower of 5 cubes
C.name familiar objects
D.point to familiar things

Ans. B

GYNAE & OBST.

222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with leucorrhea
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.H.vaginalis
C.Trichomonas
D.Candida

Ans. A

223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree. The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on management
A.cesarian section
B.oxytocin drip
C.rupture of membranes
D.instillation of PG E2

Ans. A

224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in
A.subseptate uterus
B.uterus didelphys
C.hypoplastic uterus
D.unicornuate uterus

Ans. A
www.aippg.com
225. Osiander's sign means
A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix
B. Bluish colour change in the vagina
C.Softening of the cervix
D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in between

Ans. A


226. Which of the following does not cross placenta
A.heparin
B.propranolol
C.warfarin

Ans. A

227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following except
A.premature rupture of membrane
B.intrauterine infection
C.myasthenia gravis
D.renal failure

Ans. B

228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is
A.phenytoin
B.sodium valproate
C.carbamazepine
D.lamotrigene

Ans. D

229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure in which period
A.16wks
B.24wks
C.20wks
D.28wks

Ans. D

230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for
A.colon
B.ovary

Ans. B

231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS is
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9

Ans.

232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is
A. XO
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XY

Ans. A

233. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Ccord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primi

Ans.

234. Variable deceleration indicates
A.head compression
B.cord compression
C.fetal hypoxaemia
D.maternal sedation
Ans. B


235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true
A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy
B. sex discordance can occur rarely
C. always monochorionic
D. more common following ovulation induction

Ans. C

236. The placenta is formed from
A.decidua basalis
B.decidua vera
C.chorion levae
D.decidua capsularis

Ans. A

237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy
A.50-60
B.60-70
C.70-80
D.80-90

Ans. B

238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one in
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

Ans. B
239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention
A.Anterior
B.Posterior
C.Submucous
D.Subserous

Ans. A

240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except
A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
B. Nile blue sulfate test
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid

Ans. C

241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the first thing that you will do
A. USG
B. NST
C. Review the menstrual history once more
D. X-ray abdomen

Ans. C

242. First trimester USG is not indicated in
A.Hydramnios
B.Hyper emesis gravidarum

Ans. A

243. Parkland formula for burns is for
A.Ringer lactate
B.glucose saline
C.Normal saline

Ans. A

244. Paracusis willisi is seen in
A.stapedial fixation
B.ASOM

Ans. A

245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is
A.Gartner's cyst
B.endometriotic cyst
C.Inclusion cyst

Ans. A

RADIOLOGY

246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation
A.skin
B.muscle
C.bone marrow
D.intestine

Ans. B

247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis

Ans. A
248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is
A.Becqueral
B.Gray
C.Stewart
D.Roentgen

Ans. B

249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis
A. Gas in the portal system
B. Gas in the intestinal wall
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Air fluid levels

Ans. B

250. Sign of contour is seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. duedonal atrisia
C. Chron's disease
__________________
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  #42  
Old March 29th, 2014, 06:19 PM
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Default JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Previous year question papers

Here I am looking for the previous year question papers of JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam, can you please provide me the same???
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  #43  
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Default JIPMER MBBS exam Model question papers

I am looking for the JIPMER MBBS exam Model question papers, kindly provide me the same…………
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  #44  
Old March 31st, 2014, 06:30 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Previous year question papers

Jawaharlal Institute of Post-Graduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) conducts entrance exam for Admission to M.B.B.S course of JIPMER Puducherry Institutions.

As you are looking for the previous year question papers of JIPMER- MBBS Entrance exam, so here I am sharing the same with you

JIPMER 2000

ANATOMY

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angleformed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin

Ans. D

52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin

Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia

Ans. B

54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa

Ans. B

55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days

Ans. D

56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C

57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin

Ans. B

58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium

Ans. A

59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone

Ans. A

60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP

Ans. D

61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin

Ans. A



FORENSIC MEDICINE

62. Which of the following is most useful for sex determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia

Ans. C

63. Which of the following is diagnostic of drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages

Ans. A

64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide

Ans. B

65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge

Ans. B

MEDICINE

66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray

Ans. B

67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract

Ans. A

68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy

Ans. C

69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion

Ans. A




70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom

Ans. C

71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation

Ans.

72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids

Ans. C

73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement

Ans. A

74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease

Ans. C

75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of
A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis

Ans. C

76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization

Ans. A

77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment

Ans. A

78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries

Ans. D?

79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV

Ans. B

80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia

Ans. A?

81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI

Ans. C

82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency

Ans. D

83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest

Ans. D

84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.

Ans. B

85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein

Ans. C

86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the following conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma

Ans. B

87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma

Ans. B

88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max

Ans. A

89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-penia
A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count

Ans. A

90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common

Ans. B


91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis

Ans. C

92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day

Ans. B


93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity

Ans. A?

94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease

Ans. B

95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures

Ans. B






96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic

Ans. A

97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis

Ans.

98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the following except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis

Ans.

99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease

Ans. B

100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar

Ans. B

101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to start reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex

Ans. C

102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis

Ans. A


103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms

Ans. C

104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/dl
B.130mg/dl
C.160mg/dl
D.190mg/dl

Ans. A
SURGERY

105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney

Ans. B

106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm

Ans. A

107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation

Ans. C?

108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal

Ans. A

109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved

Ans. D

110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis

Ans. B

111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia

Ans. C

112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma

Ans. C

113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma

Ans. B

114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use

Ans. B

115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test

Ans. B

116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis

Ans. C

117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas

Ans. C


119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops

Ans. C

120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base

Ans. B


121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation

Ans. A

122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein

Ans. C

123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel

Ans. C

124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG

Ans. B

125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast

Ans. C

126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs

Ans.

127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%

Ans. A

PSM

128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80

Ans. B
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129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India is
A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is
A. 1mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg

Ans. B

131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control

Ans. A

132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio

Ans. D

133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm

Ans. B

134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq

Ans. B

135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is included is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs

Ans. B?

136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate

Ans. B

137. Which of the following is true about Botulism
A.high fever
B.brisk reflexes
C.salivation
D.sore throat

Ans. D





138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height 1.5m
A.19
B.20
C.21
D.18

Ans.B

139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water
A. Copper sulphate
B. Pottassium permanganate
C. Hypochlorite
D. Bleaching powder

Ans. A

140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except
A. Culex
B. Anopheles
C. Aedes
D. Mansonoides

Ans. B

141. The WHO criteria for TB control means
A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%

Ans. A

142. Validity of a screening test includes all except
A.sensitivity
B.specificity
C.repeatability
D.accuracy

Ans. C

143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted
A. Entameba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Leishmania brasiliensis

Ans. D

144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent maternal mortality is
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12

Ans. A

145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO
A.vision less than 3/60

Ans. A

146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life
A.Hib
B.Hepatitis B
C.DPT

Ans. B



147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus
A. 7days
B. 10days
C. 14days
D. 18days

Ans. A

148. PQLI does not include
A.Infant Mortality rate
B.Gross national Product
C.Litreacy rate
D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.

Ans. B

149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also of the living standard of a community
A.IMR
B.PNMR
C.MMR

Ans. A

150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance
A. U test
B. t-test

Ans. B

151.All are components of Primary Health Care except
A.providing essential drugs
B.supplementary nutrition
C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments
D.prevention of locally endemic diseases

Ans. B


152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula
A.x-`x/s
B.(x-`x)2/s

Ans. A

153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy is
A. 1yr
B. 2yrs
C. 6months
D. 9months

Ans. B

154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of
A. Strength of association
B. Possibility
C. Dose response

Ans. A

155. Median incubation period means
A. Time for 50% cases to occur
B. Time between primary case and secondary case
C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity

Ans. A



156. In census literacy rate is assessed by
A.attended literacy classes for one year
B.ability to write signature
C.ability to read and write

Ans. C

157. Ringer lactate does not contain
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate

Ans. D

158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many days
A. 51
B. 61
C. 91
D. 71

Ans. C

ORTHOPEDICS

159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
A. Osteo arthritis
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. peroneal spasm
D. congenital tarsal fusion

Ans. A

160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis
A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
B. interroseous membrane ossification
C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body
D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint

Ans. D?

161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential diagnosis of osteomyelitis
A.chondrosarcoma
B.Ewing's sarcoma
C.osteosarcoma

Ans. B

162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified as
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB

Ans. A?

163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is
A. standing
B. sitting
C. lying flat
D. lying on one side

Ans.




164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip
A.flexion adduction and internal rotation
B.flexion adduction and external rotation
C.flexion abduction and internal rotation
D.flexion abduction and external rotation

Ans. D

165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture
A.Sudek's osteodystrophy
B.Non Union
C.Shoulder stiffness
D.Malunion

Ans. B

166. Median nerve involvement is most common with
A. elbow dislocation
B. supracondylar fracture
C. lateral condyle fractrue
D. olecranon fracture

Ans. B

167. Earliest bone to ossify is
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Sternum
D. Ribs

Ans. A

ENT

168.Bezold's abscess is seen at
A.petrous tip
B.Mastoid tip
C.digastric triangle
D.subdurally

Ans. B

169. Which of the following is not a feature of Rhinosporidiosis
A.Bleeding polyp
B.Russel bodies are seen
C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment
D.bleeding is present

Ans. B

170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is seen is
A.rhinolalia clausa
B.rhinolalia aperta
C.hotpotato voice

Ans. A

171. Abductor of the vocal cord is
A.lateral cricoarytenoid
B.cricothyroid
C.posterior cricoarytenoid

Ans. C





172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares in
A.Atrophic rhinitis
B.Rhinosporidiosis
C.Deviated nasal septum
D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate

Ans. C

173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease
A.vertigo
B.tinnitus
C.conductive deafness

Ans. C

174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital deafness
A.delta wave
B.long QT
C.short PR interval

Ans. B

175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis
A.hearing better in louder conditions
B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal
C.tympanic membrane is normal
D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness

Ans. B

176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on tympanic membrane is made on
A.anteroinferior quadrant
B.anterosuperior quadrant
C.posterosuperior quadrant
D.posteroinferior quadrant

Ans. A

177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis
A.dyspnea on exertion
B.transient hoarseness
C.husky voice
D.inspiratory stridor

Ans. B

178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true except
A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks
B.high frequency sensory hearing loss
C.spontaneous nystagmus is present
D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection

Ans. B

179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is
A.pneumothorax
B.surgical emphysema
C.injury to the large vessels
D.injury to esophagus

Ans. B







EYE

180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of
A.Infantile Gaucher's disease
B.Niemann Pick disease
C.Fabry's disease

Ans. B

181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated by application of
A.Atropine
B.Pilocarpine
C.Timolol
D.Hydroxy amphetamine

Ans. D

182. Axial proptosis is caused by
A. blow out fracture of the orbit
B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit
C. frontal mucocele
D. optic glioma

Ans. D

183. Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia
A. Nd YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Hormium laser

Ans. B

184. Sun flower cataract is seen in
A.Blunt trauma
B.Diabetes
C.Chalcosis
D.Argyriosis

Ans. C

185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of herpes keratitis
A. Superficial punctate keratitis
B. Dendritic ulcer
C. Geographic ulcer
D. Disciform keratitis

Ans. D

186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch vein occlusion
A. Cystoid macular edema
B. Macular hemorrhage
C. Vitreous hemorrhage

Ans. A

187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint
A. Accomodative squint
B. Paralytic squint
C. Divergant squint
D. Congenital squint

Ans. A





188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in
A. hypermature cataract
B. immature cataract
C. lens subluxation
D. developmental cataract

Ans. C

189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of
A. Deschmet's membrane
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. stroma

Ans. A

190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is
A.dacryocystectomy
B.hydrostaticmassage
C.probing and syringing with antibiotics
D.dacryocystorhinostomy

Ans. B

191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of
A.CRVO
B.Incomplete CRAO
C.Incomplete CRVO
D.Hypertensive retinopathy

Ans. B

192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of
A. Digoxin
B. Amiodarone
C. Ethambutol

Ans. B?

PSYCHIATRY

193. Reversible dementia is a feature of
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.Pick's disease
C.Multiinfarct dementia
D.Hypothyroidism

Ans. D

194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression
A.altered sleep pattern
B.weight loss
C.guilt
D.decreased apettite

Ans. C?

195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of schizophrenia
A.hebephrenic
B.catatonic
C.paranoid
D.simple

Ans. B

196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in Schizophrenia
A.perceptional delusions
B.thought insertion
C.perceptional hallucinations

Ans. B
A I P P G
197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome
A.clear consciousness
B.inabiliity to learn new things
C.hallucinations
D.confabulation
Ans. C

198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the following
A.Pyridoxine
B.Thiamine
C.Vitamin B12
D.Riboflavin

Ans. B

199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is
A.Psychoanalysis
B.Family therapy
C.Transaction analysis
D.Rapid emotive treatment and response

Ans.

200. deJavu phenomenon means
A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar
B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it

Ans. B


SKIN

201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma virus
A.HPV 6-16
B.HPV 6-11
C.HPV 16-18
D.HPV 11-18

Ans. B

202. Herald patch is seen in
A.pityriasis rosea
B.lichen planus
C.DLE

Ans. A

203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma
A.Furuncle
B.Ecthyma
C.Pyoderma gangrenosum
D.Carbuncle

Ans. C

204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is
A.penicillin
B.ceftriaxone

Ans. B

205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by
A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes
B.Trichophyton rubrum
C.Microsporum audoni

Ans. C

206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
A.webspace
B.face
C.genitalia
D.axilla

Ans. B

207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is
A.Lymphogranuloma venerium
B.Chancroid
C.Granuloma inguanale

Ans. C

208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except
A. SLE
B. Xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Poephyria cutanea tarda
D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

Ans. D

ANAESTHESIA

209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit' person following surgery
A.midazolam
B.propofol
C.alfentanyl
D.thiopentone

Ans. B

210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits
A.trichloroethylene
B.isoflurane
C.halothane
D.methoxyflurane

Ans. A

211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines
A.Halothane
B.Isoflurane
C.Enflurane

Ans. A

212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action because
A.it is rapidly metabolized
B.it is rapidly redistributed

Ans. B


213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to
A.prevent gastric aspiration
B.prevent fetal depression
C.to decrease awareness

Ans. A

PEDIATRICS
all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)
214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except
A.there is always respiratory distress
B.steroids are not useful
C.ECMO may be useful

Ans. A

215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change disease
A.65%
B.75%
C.85%
D.95%

Ans. D

216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex
A.24months
B.36months
C.30months
D.42months
Ans. A?

217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth
A.knee jerk
B.ankle jerk
C.biceps jerk
D.triceps jerk

Ans.


218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of
A.Kawasaki disease
B.Scarlet fever

Ans. A

219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated immunity
A.protein energy malnutrition
B.zinc deficiency
C.selenium deficiency
D.iron deficiency

Ans. C

220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except
A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases
B.convulsion in 25% of cases
C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth
D.profuse vomiting

Ans. C

221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following except
A.crawl upstairs
B.make a tower of 5 cubes
C.name familiar objects
D.point to familiar things

Ans. B

GYNAE & OBST.

222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with leucorrhea
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.H.vaginalis
C.Trichomonas
D.Candida

Ans. A

223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree. The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on management
A.cesarian section
B.oxytocin drip
C.rupture of membranes
D.instillation of PG E2

Ans. A

224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in
A.subseptate uterus
B.uterus didelphys
C.hypoplastic uterus
D.unicornuate uterus

Ans. A
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225. Osiander's sign means
A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix
B. Bluish colour change in the vagina
C.Softening of the cervix
D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in between

Ans. A


226. Which of the following does not cross placenta
A.heparin
B.propranolol
C.warfarin

Ans. A

227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following except
A.premature rupture of membrane
B.intrauterine infection
C.myasthenia gravis
D.renal failure

Ans. B

228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is
A.phenytoin
B.sodium valproate
C.carbamazepine
D.lamotrigene

Ans. D

229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure in which period
A.16wks
B.24wks
C.20wks
D.28wks

Ans. D

230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for
A.colon
B.ovary

Ans. B

231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS is
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 0.9

Ans.

232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is
A. XO
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XY

Ans. A

233. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Ccord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primi

Ans.

234. Variable deceleration indicates
A.head compression
B.cord compression
C.fetal hypoxaemia
D.maternal sedation
Ans. B


235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true
A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy
B. sex discordance can occur rarely
C. always monochorionic
D. more common following ovulation induction

Ans. C

236. The placenta is formed from
A.decidua basalis
B.decidua vera
C.chorion levae
D.decidua capsularis

Ans. A

237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy
A.50-60
B.60-70
C.70-80
D.80-90

Ans. B

238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one in
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

Ans. B
239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention
A.Anterior
B.Posterior
C.Submucous
D.Subserous

Ans. A

240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except
A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
B. Nile blue sulfate test
C. Nitrazine paper test
D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid

Ans. C

241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the first thing that you will do
A. USG
B. NST
C. Review the menstrual history once more
D. X-ray abdomen

Ans. C

242. First trimester USG is not indicated in
A.Hydramnios
B.Hyper emesis gravidarum

Ans. A

243. Parkland formula for burns is for
A.Ringer lactate
B.glucose saline
C.Normal saline

Ans. A

244. Paracusis willisi is seen in
A.stapedial fixation
B.ASOM

Ans. A

245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is
A.Gartner's cyst
B.endometriotic cyst
C.Inclusion cyst

Ans. A

RADIOLOGY

246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation
A.skin
B.muscle
C.bone marrow
D.intestine

Ans. B

247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in
A. Candidiasis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis

Ans. A
248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is
A.Becqueral
B.Gray
C.Stewart
D.Roentgen

Ans. B

249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis
A. Gas in the portal system
B. Gas in the intestinal wall
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Air fluid levels

Ans. B

250. Sign of contour is seen in
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. duedonal atrisia
C. Chron's disease




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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS exam Model question papers

As you are looking for the JIPMER MBBS exam Model question paper, here I am providing you the JIPMER MBBS exam Model question papers.

1)Vocalis Muscle is a part of
a)Thyroarytenoid
b)Cricoarytenoid
c)Transverse arytenoid
d)Posterior cricoarytenoid

2)Sumatriptan is contraindicated in
a)Asthma
b)DM
c)Coronary artery disease
d)peripheral vascular disease
3)Non granular fungal disease is
a)Cryptococcus
b)Blastomycosis
c)Candida
d)

4)All following are true of seminiferous tubules except
a)Sertoli cells
b)Leydig cells
c)spermatid
d)Spermatogonia

5)Sub-poena is a
a)Legal
b)medicolegal
c)Medical
d)first info report

6)Refsum disease is due to defect in enzyme
a)Phytanic acid oxidase
b)
c)
d)

7)Skin supplied over the angle of mandible and parotid area is by
a)Greater auricular
b)posterior auricular
c)auriculotemporal
d)facial

8)Adductor pollicis is supplied by
a)Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
b)deep branch of ulnar nerve
c)radial nerve d)median nerve

9)Ring Scotoma is seen in
a)Retinitis Pigmentosa
b)
c)
d)

10) In a patient, highest visual morbidity is seen in
a)Nuclear cataract
b)Intumescent cataract
c)Posterior subcapsular
d)

11)Klumpke paralysis is
a)C5,C6
B)C6,C7
C)C8,T1
D)T1,T2

12)For the treatment of a patient with after cataract which laser is used
a)LASIC
b)YAG
c)excimer
d)Argon

13)Most malignant breast tumor of the following is
a)inflammatory carcinoma
b)Mucinous carcinoma
c)Colloid carcinoma
d)Paget's` disease of breast.

14)Full thickness graft means:
a)Only epidermis
b)epidermis and superficial dermis
c)epidermis + whole dermis
d)epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue

15)A 50yr old woman weighing 50kg and having almost complete burns comes to burns ward. According to Parklands formula ,the amt. of fluid for resuscitation in 24hrs.
a)5L
b)10L
c)12L
d)14L

16)Investigation of choice for DVT is
a)Duplex
b)Venogram
c)MRI
c)radioisotope scan

17)After closed reduction of supracondylar fracture of humerus, flexion greater than 90 degree causes disappearance of radial pulse. The next line of management is
a)Conservative
b)Exploration for arterial rupture
c)Keep elbow at 90 in cast
d)Open reduction & internal fixation.

18)Open reduction & fixation does all except
a)consolidation
b)Stability
c)better function
d)Better alignment

19) In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF
a)Kuntshner nail
b)Austin Moore pine
c)K. wire
d)Smith Peterson nail

20)Soap Bubble appearance is seen
a)Giant cell tumor
b)osteoclastoma
c)
d)

21)Snow storm appearance on CXR is seen in
a)anthracosis
b)asbestosis
c)Silicosis
d)Bagassosis

22)Housemaid Knee is inflammation of
a)prepatellar bursa
b)Suprapatellar bursa
c)Infrapatellar bursa
d)anserine bursa

23) Height increase in adolescent/year is
a)8.5 cm
b)9.5
c)10.5
d)13.5

24)Patient with genotype XO will have following phenotype except
a)Tall stature
b)Broad Chest
c)Webbed neck
d)Lymphedema

25)treatment of carcinoma thyroid using radioactive iodine is
a) I131
b) I125
c) I133

26) solitary nodule of thyroid in a male aged 40yr from a non-endemic area would most likely have
a)MNG
b)papillary ca Thyroid
c)follicular ca
d)

27)In assessment of gestational age of a neonate the following all seen except
a)Breast bud
b)Ocular
c)Genitalia
d)scrotal skin

28)On USG, the appendix is seen, it is most likely due to
a)Retrocecal appendix
b)Acute appendicitis
d)preileal appendix

29)Vesicular lesion is seen in
a)Primary syphilis
b)secondary syphilis
c)tertiary syphilis
d)congenital syphilis

30)In villous adenoma of rectum which of the following is seen
a) Hypokalemia
b)Hyperkalemia
c)hypochloremic alkalosis
d)

31)The best view on X-ray to view pituitary fossa is
a)lateral skull X-ray
b)Towne's view
c)schuller's view
d)

32)Supratendinitis calcification is due to deposition of
a)Ca2+ pyrophosphate
b) Ca2+ hydroxyapatite
c)Ca2+ oxalate
d)

33) all the following are beta-blockers except
a)Esmolol
b)sotalol
c) celiprolol
d)bambuterol

34)Unpleasant dreams and hallucinations occur after which anesthesia
a)Ketamine
b)Halothane
c)thiopentone
d)

35)Longest acting antihistamine is
a)Cetrizine
b)Astemizole
c)terfenadine
d)acrivastive

36) The most common carcinoma of sinuses is
a) squamous cell carcinoma
b) adeno carcinoma
c) transitional cell carcinoma
d)

38) All are specific to TB except
a) Epituberculosis
b) Phlycten
c) Erythema nodosum
d) lupus vulgaris

39) The following macrolides are used for toxoplasmosis except
a) Erythromycin
b) clarithromycin
c) Azithromycin
d) spiramycin

40) Following are third generation cephalosporins except
a) cefuroxime
b) ceftriaxone
c) ceftazidime
d) cefotaxime

41) The mechanism of action of cephalosporin is
a) interferes with cell wall synthesis
b) inhibition of DNA gyrase
c)
d)

42) Evidence of ovulation has occurred is all except
a) 10 mm graffian follicles on USG**
b) progesterone > 5ng/ml
c) corpus luteum
d) Biphasic increase in temperature

43) Objective evidence of hearing loss is all except
a) pure tone audiometry
b) BAER
c) otoacoustic emission
d)

44) Vestibular anus is
a) imperforate anus
b) high anorectal
c) low anorectal
d) mid anorectal

45) Brawny swelling below the angle of mandible likely diagnosis is
a) Vincent's angina
b) Ludwig's angina
c) ranula
d) hydrocele of neck

46) Apraxia is
a) normal sensory system, normal motor system, abnormal cerebellar system
b) normal sensory system, abnormal motor system, normal cerebellar system
c) abnormal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system
d) normal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system

47) Alexythymia is
a) inability to express ones own emotion
b)
c)
d)

48) Akathesia is
a)
b) a state motor or verbal restlessness
c) cogwheel rigidity
d)

49)infantile autism is seen in
a) dysthymic personality
b) personality disorder
b) paranoid personality
d) behavioral disorder

50) In pulmonary embolism, the receptor involving causing reflex hyperventilation is
a) J-receptor
b) slow adapting receptor
c) fast adapting receptor
d) Irritant receptors

51) Cazt** channel defect is seen in
a) hypokalemic periodic paralysis
b) hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
c) paramyotonia congenita
d)

52) Which is not an aldolase
a) glucose
b) Mannose
c) fructose
d) starch

53) Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is
a) GABA
b) Glycine
c) glutamate
d) Aspartate

54) Enlarged adenoid causes the following complications except
a) CSOM
b) maxillary sinusitis
c)
d)

55) In an elderly hypertension patient with arteriosclerosis renin level in blood will be
a) high
b) low
c) normal
d) not related to HT

56) A patient comes with recurrent abdominal pain, and urinary examination reveals Ehrlich aldehyde test (+) for urobilonogens. The diagnosis is
a) porphyria
b) renal calculi
c) cholelithiasis
d)

57) In urticaria pigmentosa, the cell most commonly seen in skin on microscopy is
a) Mast cell
b) Langerhan's cell
c) Langhan's cell
d)

58)lagopathalmos is seen in
a) leprosy
b) syphilis
c) peripheral neuritis
d) HZV infection

59) Topical steroids is used in
a) Interstitial keratitis
b) bacterial keratitis
c) pendrotic
d) herpetic

60) An elderly male with dry skin and fissuring scaly skin is likely to have
a) nummular eczema
b) venous eczema
c) asteatotic eczema
d)

61) In myasthenia gravis, true is
a) antibody is present against nicotinic receptor
b) decreased Acetylcholine release
c) decreased no of receptors
d) end organ resistance

62) Insulin sensitivity increases on following treat except
a) metformin
b) acarbose
c) exercise
d) fasting

63) All the following are anticonvulsants except
a) lamotrigine
b) methyl phenytoline
c) vigabatrin
d) topiramate

64) Side effect of valvular heart disease is seen with
a) fenfluramine
b) methylphenidate
c) amphetamine
d)

65) Side effect of acute pancreatitis is due to following anti HIV drugs
a) lamivudine
b) zidovudine
c) didanosine
d)

66) "milk spots" on the omentum consists of
a) macrophage
b) neutrophils
c) lymphocyte
d)

67) longest acting muscle relaxant is
a) pancuronium
b) mivacurium
c) vecuronium
d)

68)Genital prolapse in a female can be due to all except
a) Ascites
b)complete perineal tear
c) chronic cough
d)

69) Tubal patency test is done by which test?
a) sion test
b) frei's test
c) bonney's test
d) three swab test

70) cells are most susceptible to radiation in which phase
a) M phase
b) G2 phase
c) G1 phase
d) S phase
Ans. Ref:

71) end product of ?- hydroxylation is
a) Acetyl CoA + propionyl CoA
b) Acetyl CoA + succinyl CoA
c) Acetyl CoA +
d) Acetyl CoA + malonyl CoA

72) Morrison pouch is
a) subphrenic space
b) posterior to lateral lobe of liver
c) lesser sac

73) hemoptysis in mitral stenosis is due to
a) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
b) Pulmonary arterial hypertension + left atrial hypertension
c) Left ventricular pressure
d)

74) In massive pericardial effusion all are seen except a) on fluoroscopy less prominent vascular marking
b) CT ratio >0.5
c) CP angles acute
d) Plethoric pulmonary fields

75) single plate coated with ammonium***** is present in all except
a) X-ray
b) MMR
c) CT scan
d) USG film

76)Best view on x-ray to view bilateral auditory oscines /Eustachian tubes? is
a) occipito frontal
b) fronto occipital
c) submento vertical
d)

77) best view for pituitary fossa on x-ray is
a) lateral skull x-ray
b)
c) sella view
d)

78) Gram negative antigen is injected in a rabbit after 2 weeks****question not complete****
a) schwartzmann reaction- ans
b) Schultz-dale phenomenon
c) P-K-reaction
d)

79) The most common cause of spasm of psoas in childhood is
a) trauma
b) tuberculosis psoas
c) acute appendicitis
d) pyogenic psoas abscess

80) which leucotriene is the adhesion factor for the neutrophil on the cell surface to attach endothelium
a) B4
b) C4
c)D4
d) E4

81) In the following conditions, bone matrix is reduced except
a) osteoporosis
b) osteomalacia
c) hyperparathyroidism
d) osteopetrosis
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82) which one is FAD dependent reaction
a) succinyl CoA fumarate
b)
c) d)

83) which of the following is formed by the intestinal mucosal cells on absorption of dietary lipids
a) chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) HDL
d) LDL

84) high risk factor for coronary artery diseases are all except
a) low homocysteine level
b) cholesterol > 250 mg
c)
d)

85) In osteomalacia, all the following seen except
a) looser zones
b) high alkaline phosphate levels
c)
d)

86) In a patient with solitary nodule of thyroid, investigation of choice is
a) FNAC
b) USG
c) CT
d) Radioisotope scan

87) how many double bonds are present in arachidonic acid?
a) One
b) two
c) Three
d) Four

88) In elective tracheostomy, incision is taken on
a) cricothyroid membrane
b) C1 & C2
c) c2 & c4
d)

89) Autoinduction of biotransformation and action as a hormone is seen in
a) carbamazepine
b) cimetidine
c) corticosteroid.

90) G-6-P-D inheritance is
a) X-linked - recessive
b) autosomal dominant
c) autosomal recessive
d) x linked dominant

91) oral hairy leucoplakia & whitish plaque on the tongue and palate seen gives clue to most likely diagnosis of
a) HIV infection
b) HTLV - 1
c) infectious mononucleosis
d)

92) most common organism causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is
a) staphylococcus
b)
c) salmonella
d) streptococcus

93) symblepharon is caused by
a) diphtheria
b) gonococci
c) chlamydia
d) opthalmia neonatorum

94) jargon aphasia is seen in
a) wenicke's
b) broca's aphasia
c) conduction aphasia

95) In koraskoff psychosis seen is
a) global deterioration intelligence
b) impaired recall & new ability to learn
c)
d)

96) multiple calcification in the brain or cystic calcification in the brain or comma shaped calcification seen in
a) CMV
b) neurocysticercosis
c) tuberous sclerosis
d) toxoplasmosis

97)On CT scan, all are seen as hypodense area except
a) cerebral hemorrhage
b) glioblastoma
c) cerebral edema
d) cerebral infarct

98) hypertensive bleed mostly occurs in
a)putamen
b) pons
c) cortex
d) thalamus

99) back-wash ileitis is seen in
a) crohn's diseases
b) ulcerative colitis
c)
d)

100) leukemoid reaction type 2 in leprosy is due to
a) type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c)type III hypersensitivity
d) type IV hypersensitivity

101) systematic desensitization as form of therapy is done in
a) phobia
b) obsessive compulsive disorder
c)
d)

102) morbid jealousy is seen in
a) alcoholism
b) persons who are isolated from society
c)
d)

103) respiratory alkalosis is seen in
a) duodenal obstruction
b) early salicylism
c) diarrhea
d)

104) dopamine is highest in
a)striatum
b) cerebellum
c) caudate
d)

105) IL-1 & TNF ? causes
a) increasing capillary permeability
c) acute phase reactants
b) chemotaxis
d) activate endothelium

106) thimble pitting nails are seen in
a) psoriasis
b) tinea versicolor
c)lichen planus
d)tuberculosis

107) Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except
a) lepromatous leprosy
b) borderline borderline
c) tuberculoid
d) neuritic

108) which of the following is type IV hyper sensitivity
a)
b)
c)
d) contact dermatitis

109) Pressure necrosis which causes venous flow to stop during endotracheal intubation occurs at
a) 20 - 30 mm Hg
b) 15 - 20 mm Hg
c) 30-40 mm Hg
d) 16 -15 mm Hg

110) diagnosis of mucopolysacharridoses can be done by examination of
a) cornea
b) skin
c) bone
d) face

111) cadaveric position of vocal cords occurs in
a) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
b) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy + superior laryngeal nerve palsy
c)
d)

112) most common site of pelvic abscess is in
a) ishiorectal fossa
b) perianal
c)
d)

113) most important sensory organ in the ampulla is
a) organ of corti
b) macula
c)otolithi
d) crista

114) carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to
a)mean blood pressure
b) diastolic blood pressure
c) systolic blood pressure
d) Pulse pressure

115) the following are derived from endoderm except
a) liver
b) kidney
c) pancreas
d)urinary bladder

116)human placenta is
a) hemochorial
b) endothen - esdothelima
c) chorio - endothelial
d)

117)In malaria acquired by transfusion, the infective form is
a) sporozoites
b) shistozoites
c) gametocytes
d) merozoites

118) inhibition of prolactin is caused by
a) dopamine
b) dobutamine
c)
d)

119) In after coming, head best forceps used for delivery is
a) piper's forceps
b) kielland's forceps
c) wrigley' forceps
d)

120) longest diameter of the skull is
a) suboccipital bregmatic
b) occipital frontal
c) bitemporal
d) biparietal

121)bishop score is used to evaluate
a) cervix status
b) uterine contraction
c) fetal well being
d)

122) the management of eclampsia includes all except
a) control of convulsion
b) prolongation of pregnancy
c) control of BP
d) delivery of fetus

123) The most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in developing countries is
a) pressure necrosis of urethra during obstructed labor
b) forceps delivery
c)
d)

124) shoulder dystocia occurs in delivery of fetus with
a) anencephaly
b) hydrocephalus
c) fetal ascites
d)

125) benign prost hyperplasia occur in the
a) periurethral transitional zone
b) cortex
c) posterior lobe
d)

126) tetany is seen in all except
a) hypoparathyroidism
b) full strength milk given in neonate
c)
d)

127) benign intracranial hypertension is seen in all except
a) hypertvitaminosis A
b) steroid therapy
c) OCP
d)

128) the most common breech presentation in a nulliparous woman is
a) frank breech
b) complete breech
c) footling
d)

129) In supra condylar fracture, the x-ray view of which helps in the next line of management
a) baumman's angle
b) cobb's angle
c) cowen's angle
d)
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130) calculate the pearl index if 6 pregnancy occurs in 1200 females practicing contraception for 1 year
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 24

131) In minilap procedure, the most common method successfully used is
a) uchida
b) pomeroy's
c)irving's
d)

132) deep transverse arrest occurs in
a) android
b) anthropoid
c) gynecoid
d) flat pelvis

133) false positive rinne's test occur in
a) unilateral conductive deafness
b) unilateral sensory neural deafness
c) bilateral conductive deafness
d) bilateral sensory neural deafness

134) A nulliparous female aged 30 years develops IInd degree UV prolapse. The operative procedure done is
a) cervicopexy
b)LeForte
c)Manchester

135) following are true of hemorrhoids except
a) they are arteriolar dilatations
b) they are common causes of painless bleeding
c) they cannot be per rectally palpated

136) waves on EEG during NREM period of sleep is
a) alpha
b) beta
c) delta
d) theta

137) following is true of hormone leptin except
a) it is found in increased levels in obese
b) it's site of action is hypothalmus
c) it is produced by adipose all
d) it increases appetite.

138) function of brown fat is
a) glycogenosis
b) gluconeogenesis
c)
d) thermogenesis

139) The most common cause for stridor in the early day of life is
a) laryngomalacia
b)esophago- tracheal fistula
c) laryngeal stenosis
d)

140) commonest sources of lead to cause increased blood level is from
a) air
b) lead paints
c) water
d)

141) The incisura of arterial pulse corresponds with
a)S1
b) S2
c) opening snap
4) S3

142) the one organism which is responsible for coronary artery disease
a) chlamydia
b) klebsiella
c) E coli
d) mycoplasma

143) to build a genome library using digested chromosome into fragments, the enzyme used is
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA restriction endonuclease
d)

144) all the following are suggestive of urethral injury except
a) blood at meatus
b) haematoma of scrotum
c) high prostate on PR
d) blood in rectum

145) to assess the refraction state of eye, the investigation done is
a) USG - Bscan
b) retinoscopy
c) binoculoscopy
d) opthalmoscopy

146) which of the following has the worst prognosis
a) rolandic epilepsy
b) versive epilepsy
c) absence epilepsy
d)
Ans. Ref:
147) which of the following has worst prognoses in carcinoma lung
a) squamous cell carcinoma
b) large cell carcinoma
c) small cell carcinoma
d)adenocarcinoma

148) Herbert's pit is seen in
a) vernal conjunctivitis
b) atopic conjunctivitis
c) gonococcal conjunctivitis
d)chlamydial conjunctivitis

149) the amount of rads required for treatment of oropharyngeal carcinoma is
a) 3000 - 4000 rads
b) 4000- 5000 rads
c) 5000 - 6000
d) 6000 - 7000

150) prolonged ST segment with T wave seen in
a) hypokalemia
b) hyperkalemia
c) hypomagnesemia
d) hypocalcemia

151) In a meconium aspirated baby following are investigations. pO2=50, pCO2=60 & blood pH=7.1. the next line of management of giving I V infusion to correct this condition is
a) NAHCO3 solution
b) ringer lactate
c) CPAP
d) endotracheal intubation & IPPV

152) which of the following hormones increase during sleep
a) insulin
b) ACTH
c) GH
d) melatonin

153) bromocriptine is used to suppress prolactin
a) acts as agonist to dopamine receptors
b)
c)
d)

154) in chronic folliculitis the treatment of choice is
a)
b)
c) cloxacillin
d) vancomycin
Ans. Ref:
155) on X-ray calcification of breast is seen. Likely cause is
a) chronic breast abscess
b) tuberculosis of breast
c) periductal carcinoma
d)

156) epidermolysis bullosa is due to
a) autoimmune disease
b) atopic disease
c) infective agent
d) genetic fragility of skin

157) A child suffering from marasmus was given high protein diet. The metabolic change likely is
a) hyperargininemia
b) hyperammonemia
c) hyperlysinemia
d) hypernatremia.

158) the ORS fluid used for a marasmic child lacks in (racemol)
a) amino acids
b) sodium
c) copper
d) magnesium

159) which of the following cell has both T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte function
a) plasma cell
b) T- lymphoblast cell
c)B-lymphoblast cell
d) NK cell

160) salmonella osteomyelitis occurs in
a) sickle cell d
b) beta thalassemia
c) sideroblastic anemia
d)

161) following are louse borne disease
a) endemic typhus
b) KFD
c) lyme's disease
d)

162) the treatment of choice in angiofibroma is a 12 year old boy is
a) radio treatment
b) chemo treatment
c) embolisation of inferior palatine artery
d) surgery
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163) A young women, 30 yrs old complains of pain in the left knee joint which increases after exercise since 4 months. An x-ray shows eccentric bone cyst. The likely diagnosis is
a) aneurysmal bone cyst
b) unicameral bone cyst
c)
d)

164) The term family size in demographic parlance means
a) the total number of children a women has borne at a point of time
b) the total number of children of couples
c) the total number of children by women borne in a female between 15- 45 yrs
Ans. Ref:
165) the approximate magnitude of completed family size from demographic point view is given by
a) TFR
b) GFR
c)NRR

166) the following should be done for prophylaxis of rabies in a 1 year old child except
a) wash the wound with soap & water
b) give HDCV in the buttock
c) HDCV should not be given to HIV pt
d)

167) all the following are examples of health promotion except
a) stop smoking
b) regular exercise
c) chemoprophylaxis

168) one of the following helps deliver baby in a community
a) health assistant female
b) anganwadi worker
c) health supervisor
d) village health guide

169) Least recurrence of peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in
a) selective vagotomy
b) TV + GJ
c) Pure gastroenterostomy
d) TV+ antrectomy

170) CABG has successful outcome and prognosis if done in
a) double vessel obstruction
b) left coronary artery obstruction without left ventricular dysfunction
c) single vessel obstruction

171) anteversion of uterus is due to following ligament
a) uterosacral ligament
b) mackenrod's ligament
c)
d)

172) osteochondroma is a disease of
a)metaphysis
b) diaphysis
c) epiphysis
d) periosteum

173) the characteristic symptom of dysmenorrhea , menorrhagia, recurrent abdominal pain and infertility is suggestive of
a) endometriosis
b) ectopic
c) endometritis
d)

174) testicular seminoma, secretes
a) ? -FP
b) CEA
c) B-HCG
d)

175) the concentration of HbA1c in blood is
a) 4-6%
b) 6-8%
c) 8-9%
d)

176) which of the following is contraindicated in early pregnancy
a) heparin
b) phenytoin
c) chlor****
d) penicillin

177) action potential is transmitted to myofibrils via
a) terminal cisterns
b) T- Tubules
c) longitudinal
d) sarcomere

178) humidification of O2 is required in
a) nasopharyngeal intubation
b) nasal prong
c) nasal catheter
d) face mask

179) meconium plug syndrome occurs in
a) meconium ileus
b) hirschsprung's disease
c) ileo-colic pouch
d)

180) the cause of endemic ascites is
a) BOAA
b) Sanguinarine
c) Pyrozzilodine alkaloids
d)

181) earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency is
a) conjunctival xerosis
b) corneal xerosis
c) bitot's spot
d)nightblindness

182) Pinta is caused by
a) T pertenue
b) T pallidum
c) T carateum
d) Borrelia burgdorferi.

183) all the following cause priapism except
a) trauma
b) Beta thalassemia
c) sickle cell disease
d) leriche syndrome

184) iridectomy is done in which type of glaucoma is
a)
c) angle closure
b)
d) open glaucoma

185) yellow fever is not present in India because of all except
a) the virus is absent
b) the vector mosquito culex vishnui
c) atmospheric condition is suitable

186) phage typing is useful in classification of all except
a) staphylococcus
b) streptococcus
c) cholera
d) salmonella

187)in a patient with strikingly abnormal behavior , the most likely diagnosis is
a) paranoid schizophrenia
b) catatonic schizophrenia
c) hebephrenic schizophrenia
d)

188)the revised national TB program uses one of the following for diagnosis of TB
a) sputum AFB
b) CXR
c) clinical examination
d) PCR

189) following are true of rubella except
a) IP: 14-21days
b) rosy red spots on palate
c) encephalitis

190) Acrodynia occurs in
a) mercury poisoning
b) arsenic poisoning
c) lead poisoning
d)

191) hydrotherapy is done in
a) impotence
b) infertility
c) febrile convulsion
d)

192) hemodialysis is useful in all except
a) salicylate poisoning
b) methyl alcohol poisoning
c) digitalis
d) barbiturate

193) proliferation of mesangial cell & perimesangial on microscopy is seen in
a) lg A nephropathy
b) lipoid nephrosis
c) membranoproliferative disease
d) membranous glomerulonephritis

194) point prevalence of a chronic disease is studied best by
a) case control study
b) cross sectional study
c) historical cohort
d) cohort

195) reversible cataract is seen in which of following
a) galactosemia
b) hypoparathyroidism
c) diabetes mellitus
d)

196) De quervain's thyroiditis is due to all except
a) it is due to virus
b) antibodies against follicular cells
c) it is self limited granulomatous thyroiditis

197)partial prothromboplastin time is prolonged in all except
a) protein C deficiency
b) protein S deficiency
c) antithrombin III deficiency
d) factor V deficiency

198) which of the following has least t1/2
a) norepinephrine
b) adrenaline
c) renin
d)

199) the treatment of primary ovarian failure is
a) FSH
b) GnRH
c)LH
d)estrogen progesterone
200)LDL cholesterol in blood recommended to prevent coronary artery disease is
a)130mg/dl
b)160mg/dl
c)100mg/dl
d)180mg/dl
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  #46  
Old April 2nd, 2014, 11:46 AM
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Default JIPMER previous years MBBS entrance solved question papers

can you give me question paper for JIPMER MBBS entrance examination ??
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  #47  
Old April 2nd, 2014, 01:24 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Posts: 20,072
Default Re: JIPMER previous years MBBS entrance solved question papers

here I am giving you question paper for JIPMER MBBS entrance examination:
IPMER Question Paper
1) Levosimandan - sensiting calcium to tropomyosin.................
2) supracondylar fracture humerus?????
median
3) Waldeyer fascia
4) antibody a/w IgA nephropathy is against? Cd 71
gA nephropathy overexpresses 1- cd51 2-cd61 3-cd71 4-cd81
5) S 100-neuroendocrine
6) miyagawa body????lgv
7) primary action of chemoreceptors? a.mild tachycardia, vasodilation b.bradycardia,vasoconstriction c.tachycardia ,
vasoconstriction d.bradycardia, vasodilation
8) origin fro ecto and mesoderm??????
Adrenals?
9) anal sphincter???? circular
10) spinothalmic tract?????
11) ossification at 2 month????lunate scaphoid????? ANS capitate
12) congenital glaucome?sx?goniotomy?trabaculoplasty? ....
13) electrical synapse?gap junction ans
14) norepinphrine acxts by reducing camp in alfa 2recptors?
15) pop diadvantage?irregular bleed
16) iodine 131 half life 8 days
17) non ketotic hypoglycemis a/e galactosemia fructose intolerance hyperinsulinemia??
18) induseum griseum?
induseum griseum is a vestige of hippocampal development. supracallosal gyrus (induseum griseum; gyrus epicallosus) consists of a
thin layer of grey matter in contact with the dorsal surface of the corpus callosum and continuous laterally with the grey matter of
the cingulate gyrus
19) *flipped LDH isoenzymes occur in: a)myositis b)myocardial infarction c)grave's disease d)?myasthenia gravis
Ans MI
20) *55yr old woman had postmenopausal bleeding, she underwent hysterectomy. histopatholgy showed endometrioid type of
endometrial carcinoma. what would have led to this type of cancer: a)adenomyosis b)multiparity c)excess estrogens d)??OCPs
21) *wilm"s tumor gene WT1 is located on chromosome??
11q 13
22) *which is a photochromogen: a)mycobacterium gordonae b)mycobacterium kansasii ans c)mycobacterium schleii
d)mycobacterium marinum
23) *thiamine deficiency shows: a)reduced RBC trasketolase b)?
24) * according to WHO International Health regulations, area around ports and airports free of mosquitoes should be: a)
100metres b)200m c)300m d)400m

25) *mycobacterium simiae is a: a)photochromogen b)scotochromogen c)rapid-grower d)non-photpchromogen
26) *ELISA for virulence marker antigen(VMA) is done to detect virulence in : a)atypical mycobacteria b)hemophilus influenzae
c)?strptococuus pyogenes
E coli
27)type 2 rta a/e lowe cystinuria
28) thyroid peroxidaSE does a/e release of thyroglobulin into the colloid?
29) c/i in liver failure? spironolactone?
Ans carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
30) iucd a/e?reduces fertility after removal?
31) estrogen a/e? reduces fsh,secreted by theca causes lh suerge,
32) theirsch graft?partial thickness
33) post ethmoid sinus opens into superior meatus!
34) epoophoran upper part of wolfian duct
35) uterine axis is at internal os
36) vpm nucleus of thamlamus?medial lemniscus/lat lemniscus?trigeminal nucleus(ANS)?
37) g2b/3a?glanzmans?
Bernard Soulier
38) a/e are a part of hypopharynx ?post cricoid?pyriform sinus
Epiglottis
39) glottic cancer with fixed chords stage 3
40) recurrent apnea bradycardia and syncope? cong heart block?
Pertusis
41) most common nerve involved with ophthalmic, mandibular, ,axillary as d option???????????? V1
42) eale's disease cause...wat type of blindness ?????????????????????/
Sudden painless
43) famciclovir is the prodrug of penciclovor
44) sagittal suture closure -scaphocephaly.

45) aliskiren- direct renin inhibitor
46) hyperchloremic acidosis- ureterosigmoiostomy
47) *resection of adjacent bowel is usually necessary during resection of: a)chylolymphatic cyst b)enterogenous cyst ANS c)simple
cyst d)? mesenteric cyst
48) *intussusection is caused by; a)submucuos dermoid (ANS) b)subserous dermoid c)?
49) lyre sign?- glomus tympanicum jugulare acoustic carotid body tumor
Ans carotid body tumor
50) gutzman test done in puberphonia
51) adverse effects of beta blocker a/e bron constriction ,rebound tachy, ortho hypotension,poor response to hypoglycemia
Ans it is used in ortho hypotension
52) cerebral salt wasting a/e hypovolemia
53) hypertonic hyponatremia?mannitol
54) a/e true abt cystic fibrosis early hyperglycemia,res trac infection common, majority males with infertility, chloride >70meq
55) mesalamine used for Ulcer colitis alzheimer ? UC
56) treatment of soft tissue sarcoma ? wide excicion
57) pinch purpura? primary amyloidosis
58) amyloid deposits commonly in? renal vessels
59) Emphysematous cholecystitis caused by- clostridium welchii
60) Malignant pustule- anthrax
61) Most common melanoma- supfl spreading
62) about ear a/e oval window transmits sound to perilymph??
63) Aortic opening.- at T12
64) reid index in chronic bronchitis
65) ochronosis is seen in chronic poisoning wid..?? Carbolic acid
66) small cell Ca lung..dna of d necrotic cells get deposited on vessels-a]psammoma body b]azzopardy effect c]button collar lesion
ANS b
67) lowest court 2 giv imprisonment less den 10 yrs..a]Chief judicial magistrate B] additional session judge C]assistant session judge

Dchief metroploitan,,
68) aconite poisoning not a symptom- hypertension. hypotension is usually seen
69) Parotid gland is supplied by- a) Otic ganglion
70) allowed fluoride level in water? <1.5 mg/dL ?
71) particle size inhaled in lung <5 microns
72) radiation dose absorbed in SI unit Gray
73) ab. To gm csf , Alveolar proteinosis
-
74) socialy learned behaviour??????????????????
culture is learned behavior which is socialy acquired
75) icds program under 1 ministry of H & FW 2 MINISTRY OF EDUCATION 3 MINISTRY OF SOCIAL WELFERE 4 MINISTRY OF
H R D
At present Ministry of Women and Child Development which until 2006 was under Ministry of H RD (started when HRD was under
Ministry of social justice)
76) 1-Nephrotic syndrome asso. witha)
P. vivax b) p. malariae (ans) c) P. f. d) P. ovale
77) brunner glands n duodenam
78) Sreening test correctly define TRUE NEGATIVE 1. SENSITIVITY 2 POSITIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE 3 SPECIFICITY 4
NEGATIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE
79) Tardive Ulnar palsy: Cubitus varus Cubitus valgus genu valgum genu varum
80) lead poisoning inorganic which is not a symptom insomnia
81) time period b/w primary case and secondary case median incubation period serial interval generation time ??
82) seizure caused by a/e cycloserine, clozapine tramodol propofol
All increase seizure threshold!!!! Clinically, maybe propofol… 
83) post anesthesia minitoring? pain ambullation nausea drinking
Ans ambulation
84) least elimination half life? propofol thiopentone midazolam
85) all routes preferred in ? fentanyl
86) alveolar hge in a/e idiopathic pulmanory fibrosis , pul cpillaritis?

87) self esteem narcissist
88) dimorphic? histoplasma
89) endolymph? Scala media
90) diarrhoea is sen ? metformin
91) serum albumin gradien<1.1 ? nephritic
92) all r transudate except? uremia svc syndrome
93) fatty liver in pregnancy a/e? fatal
94) turner syndrome?
95) pri amenorrhea with n karyotype? Mullerian agenesis
96) x linked a/e rett
97) most common symptom in fibroadenosis? pain
[snip]) ant colporraphy with perinnnioraphy?
99) g6pd deficiency?
100) hereditary spherocytosis? Spherocytes wikll disappear after splenectomy
101) hemolytic anemia? Low LDH
102) sickle cell anemia? Aplastic crisis spleen
103) oxaluria? glycine
104) chronic liver disease poor prognosis? inc alfa feto protein
Inc PT
105) placental trophoblastic?
106) partial mole? a/e diploid
107) hydati mole a/e? cyto trophoblast predominant
108) c/i in placenta previa a/e speculum exam
109) ocp protect against al/e ? cervical ca
110) type 2 muscla fibre?
111) Zoonotic asso with agricultural workers a/e Dracunculus leptospirosis Qfever ?? Tetanus
112) MEDIAN NERVE SUPPLY A/E 1 ADDUCTOR POLLICIS BREVIS 2 FLEXOR PLLICIS BREVIS 3 OPPONENS POLIS 4

ABDUCTOR POLLICIS BREVIS
113) sympathetic vasodilator fibers ?
a) arises from frontal lobe
114) decreased basophils in cushings
115) dehydration in children is due to al/e less basal fluid requirements?
116) undescenden testis cannot descend after? 4 months , 6, 8 months
117) glut 5 is fructose transporter. a/e ANS GLUT 2 in neurons (it is GLUT 3)
118) a/e about phenobarbitone hypoglycemia ?
119) c/i antiepileptic in child treated with ketogenic diet ? valproate
120) 4. False about amiodarone? A. Bradycardia and heart block B. Drug of choice for atrial fibrillation C. High incidence of torsa
des pointes D. Dose related pulmonary toxicity is the most important adverse effect answer C. Katzung 11th ed, p240-241
121) 6. Anticraving drug used in alcohol dependence? Answer C. Naltrexone
122) True about Sporothricosis are all EXCEPT A. Spread along lymphatics B. Drug of choice is Potassium iodide C. Medlar body D.
Caused by S.schenckii answer C. Chakraborthy p631
123) Thayer martin media for? Answer- Neisseria
124) 12.Streptococcal capsule is made up of? A. Hyaluronic acid B. Polysaccharide C. Polypeptide D...... Answer- A
125) 13. Streptococcus pyogenes experiment by Griffith is? A. Lysogenic conversion B. Transduction C. Transformation D.
Conjugation answer- C. Chakroborthy p79
126) 14.Contaminant in home canned vegetables and smoked fish? A. Staph B. Cl.botulinum C. Salmonella D. B.cereus answer- B.
Harrison17th p901
127) 15.In Africa Children, which is the most common type of kaposi sarcoma? A. Classical type B. Lymphadenopathic type C.
Hodgkin ds D. AIDS asso type answer-B. Wikipedia
128) 16. Periportal fibrosis caused by? A. S.japonicum B. S.mansoni C. S.hematobium D. S.mekongi answer- A. Paniker p116
129) 17.Primary amebic encephalitis? Answer- nagleria fowleri
130) . Chromosomal breakage a/e Duchenne
131) 19. Guarneri bodies? Answer- pox virus
132) 21. Number of bacilli per field for diagnosing Hansen's ds is? A. 10 per field B. 10^2 C. 10^3 D. 10^4 Answer- A? Chakraborthy
p410
133) Xeroderma pigmentosa nucleotide excision repair
134) autonomous hyperplsaia in? fibromatosis
135) 5.touton giant cells? Xanthomas!

136) transplacental carcinogenesis? Vaginal adeocarcinoma
137) which drug dosage should be decreased with concomitant administration of allopurinol mercaptopurine ?? ?? ??
138) criggler najar syndrome
Defect in conjugation
139) Type of lens wit minimum post subcapsular calcification. . A PMMA B Hydrophilic
acrylic c hydrophobic acrylic (ans?) d crystalline lens
140) Lesch nyhan syndrome HGPPT
141) substrate level phosphorylation
142) classical liver lobule –around central vein
143) red cells stored in blood bank? Low Na
144) less total ant pituitary hormone
145) mech not that gr8 for T cells -phagocytosis
146) antibiotic act on protein synthesis : erythromycin
147) T helper 1- CMI
148) myagalia ??
149) minimal alveolar conc of anesthetic agent is potency
150) glycopeptide antibiotic vancomycin
151) metaplasia from? Stem cells??
152) neonatal sepsis org Gr D strp (agalactae)
153) endocopes disinfected with guteraldehyde
154) weil disease L interrogans
155) most common world wide zoonotic / brucella anthrax rabies leptospirosis
ANS brucella

156) subclavian steal syn ?first part of sub clavian artery blocked
157) maximum protein binding? morphine fentanyl sulfentan
Sufentanil
158) Benefit of screening procedure in? colon cancer
159) GVHR monitor a/e skin liver lung intestine
Ans liver
160) mesangial contraction by? histamine bradykinin,nitric oxide,
161) specimen required for cytogenetic study in macerated fetus? WBC RBC fibroblast from achilles, fibroblast from skin fascia
162) early symptom in rectal cancer? constipation, diahorrea n constipation, bleeding, pain
163) common skeletal manifestation in NF1? sphenoid dysplasia,scoliosis,pseudoarthrosis,thinning of long bones
164) early symptom in TB hip? loss of joint space,collapsed head, osteopenia
165) cause for ganglion degenaration of tendon sheath
166) monteggia fracture...
167) haemangioblastoma of cerebellum and retina-von hippel landau
168) kobner phenomenon present n vitiligo,lichev planus,psoriasis not n dermatitis herpetiformis
169) fatty liver in alc d/t
170) A/E TRUE ABOUT DELIRIUM 1 NO DIRUNAL VARIATION 2 ACUTE IN ONSET 3 ? 4?
171) strawberry gum in wegener
172) herat boarder formed by A/E IN PA View 1 RA 2 RV 3 LV 4 AORTIC ARCH
173)eyelas infestation with pediculosis capitis pediculosis humanis pthris pubis
174) KANVAL SIGN IS SEEN IN 1 TENDON SHATHS INFLAMTION 2 ? 3? 4?
175) during outbreak of an epidemic first thing to do: confirmation of diagnosis confirmation of the epidemic ?? ??
176) malondialdehyde lipid peroxidation
177) method in which whole of body organs removed for dissection? virchow ghon
ANS letulle??

178) disposal of sharp instruments in which colour bag? Blue/ transparent
179) which among is saturated fatty acid? Palmitic acid
180) most essential fatty acid linoliec acid aracadonic acid linolenic acid eicosapentanoic acid
181) Not true abt mitochondrial diabetes: early hyperglycemia asso with weight gain ??? ??
182) paranasal sinus not present at birth.i think ans frontal sinus
183) Miculiz cell & Russel Body seen in 1 Rhinospordiosis 2 Rhinosclerosis 3? 4 ?
184) a person died of menigooencephalitis. autopsy shows gelainous fluid, cystic spaces, organism has capsule and is round, which
stain will it take: Mucicarmine alicial blue giemsa prussian blue
185) Subclinical infection is seen in JE
186) osteomalasia x ray finding
Loosers zone
187) marketing of a drug after which pahse of drug trial
1 PHASE 1
2 PHASE 2
3 PHASE3 ans
4 PHASE 4
188) 3 Sign of COA
189) nephelometry uses light scattering property
190) regarding Transfusion Associiated Lung Injury FALSE is:
anti-HLA antibodies
seen in multiigravid/parous women
leucocytes in pulmonary circulation
causes noncardiogenic pul.edema
All seem to be true
191) which is not community acquired pneumonia: Acinetobacter baumanii mycopllasma staph areus H.influenzae
Ans a
192) which is not an epiigenetic modification: poly A tailing Splicing dna methylation histone acetylation
193) Pulmonary plethora a/e TAPVC TOF ?? ??
194) Hypoxemia in Asthma is due to: V/Q mismatch Shunt hypoventilation ??
195) pH of a soln having 1x10 power -9 Hydrogen ions 12 9 4 3
Ans9
196) Vol of fluid to repaced in a 10kg child of obvious dehydration in first 4 hours 500ml 750ANS 1200 1000
197) Lacunar infarcts a/e: loss of consciousness hemisensory loss clumpsy hand can be seen hemiparesis or??

198) which is only filtered into renal tubules DTPA DMSA MAG3 EC
Ans dtpa
199)Tc Labellled RBC are used for a/e GI bleed LV function ?? ?? Ans hepatoblastoma
200) how many PERMANENT teeth at 8years............16,20,24
Ans 12
201) Radiolucent stones: uric acid cysteine sruvite calcium oxalate
Ans uric acid >> cysteine
202) which substance is least lost in urine: albumin haemoglobin myoglobin ??
Albumin (<150mg/24hrs normally)
203) maximum no of oocytes -20 weeks
204) cranial end of wolffian –epoopharon
205)true about spastic diplegia upper limbs only hemiparesis of upper an lower limb upper limb>lower limb lower limbs only
206)according to safe strategy WHO recommends the use of _____ for the control of trachoma azithromycin tetracycline ?? ??
207) features of achondroplasia a/e: trident hand acro-chondrolysis tombstone iliac bones ??
Acral osteolysis
208) non contraceptives use of ocp r all ex-ca cervix
209) impending uterine rupture a/e;peritoneal pregnancy
210)Seen in ARDS a/e PaO2:fio2 Ans PCWP<18
211)) ultrashort acting neuromuscular blocking agen suxametonium vecuronium
Ans sux
212) suxamethonium resistance seen in: mysthenia gravis lambert eaton myasthenic syndrome polymyositiis dermatomyositis or
duchenne muscular dysrtrophy or??
213) false abt ear chorda tympani passes on the inner surface of pars tensa pars flaccide is in between the malleolar folds tympanic
membrane makes 55 degree angulation with meatus amplification function is mainly due to lever action of ear ossicles
214) antibiotics are given in this type of psoriasis guttate pustular impetigo herpetiformis ??
215) regarding transfusion associated ANAPHYLACTIC reactions False is
differentr from allergy
seen in IgG deficient individuals
washed blood products prevents it
216) single most important predictor for CAD
Increased LDL
217) True about PET scan
single photon peak at 511 kev
dual photon peak at 511 kev ans
10 times more sensitive than gamma cameras
Lead collimators are used
218) Rbc protoporphyrin inc in iron def anemia
219) regarding 'affect' in psychiatric interview not true is:
it has objective component

has subjective component
a cross-sectional manifestation of emotion
persistant tone of feeling for a period of time ANS This is mood, not affect
220) drug bound to alpha 1 acid glycoprotein all except
lignocaine
disopyramide
quinidine
propranolol
All are basic drugs and hence I expect all to be bound to alpha glyco!
221)ovarian cause of hirsutism
a. pcos
222) Insulin dependent glucose transport occurs in all except
skeletal muscle
heart ans
liver
adipocytes
223) fetal bleed: vasa previa
224) one can increase inspiratory airway pressure by
decreasing PEEP
increasing PIP ANS
decreasing inspiratory:expiratory time ratio
225) which is not true about indication of exchange transfusion
1 cord bilirubin> 4mg%
2 cord hb < 10mg %
3 rate of bilirubin increase is > 0.5mg%
4 total bilirubin 10 mg/dL Ans
226) human milk as compare to cow milk has more
1 fat
2 protien
3 lactose
4 ?
227) rmp ca- 130
228) false regarding bronchiecteasis
dry type is seen in apices
mucolytic has proven action in relief of secretions
antibiotics are indicated during exacerbations
229) retinal breaks are seen in the following type of retinal degeneration
snowflake degeneration
lattice degeneration(ans)
230) contraindicated in a diabetic
ray amputation
symes amputation
transmetatarsal amputation
below ankle amputation
231) migratory thrombophlebitis is not seen in
ca colon
ca pancreas
ca prostate
ca lung ANS
232) a patient with prolonged aptt, underwent a surgery without any bleeding
complication... which factor is deficient
V ans?

VII
XII
X
233) Pin index
234) heparin release- lip lipase
235) crosses bbb- physostigmine
236) buspirone a/e sedative
237) Interstitial nephritis is C/B
1 methicillin ans
2 cloxacillin
3 amoxycillin
238) Neural cells expt- Ependymal phagocytosis
239) sertoli cell secretsans-
androgen binding protien
240) MM- IL 6
241) 30 years male SUDDEN Backache with right sided radiculopathy IN ABILITY TO PASS URINE ETC..-LUMBAR CANL
STENOSIS/CAUDA EQUINA SYN/?
242) spiramycin toxoplasmosis
243) Coagulation necrosis: 4 days after MI
244) venous air embolism during surg seen with
supine
sitting ans
prone
lateral position
245) catII TBansdefaulter
246) weaning mode of ventilation a/e Pressure control
247) LAP decreased in CML
248) paronyhia best treatment. Partial nail removal/nail removal/ lifting of eponychium
249) Acute Tubular Necrosis/ SIADH causes eu volumic Hyponatremia




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  #48  
Old April 4th, 2014, 05:46 PM
vijay baskar
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

sir ,please send me the 2013 jipmer mbbs entrance q paper

emal id:vijaymithun28@gmail.com
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  #49  
Old April 5th, 2014, 02:52 PM
durga shri
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Default hello sir

I am searching for previous year question papers of jipmer. please tell me how to find it.
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  #50  
Old April 18th, 2014, 11:01 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2014
Posts: 1
Default jipmer ques paper

i need some previous year question papers
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