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  #31  
Old January 20th, 2014, 04:14 PM
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Default Re: Question Papers for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam

The Jawaharlal Institute Of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research MBBS entrance exam pattern is:

The examination shall be conducted in ENGLISH medium only. All the questions will be in English language only.

The Entrance Examination will be of multiple choice type questions and each question will have four options. Out of the options, only one option is correct.

There will be total 200 in the subjects of English, Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology.

The Entrance test is of 150 minutes duration and the question paper consists of a total 200 questions

Physics: 40

Chemistry: 40

Botany: 40

Zoology: 40

English: 40

1 marks will be awarded for each correct answer. There is no negative marking for wrong attempt.

Question paper;
Here is the attachment of the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question paper:
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File Type: pdf JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question paper 1.pdf (1,013.9 KB, 141 views)
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  #32  
Old January 24th, 2014, 10:32 AM
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Default Previous year JIPMER Solved Question Papers

Here I am looking for the previous year solved question papers of JIPMER Entrance exam, Can you please provide me the same???
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  #33  
Old January 24th, 2014, 10:32 AM
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Default Previous Year JIPMER Unsolved Question Papers

Will you please share the previous year unsolved question papers of JIPMER Entrance Exam??
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  #34  
Old January 24th, 2014, 11:05 AM
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Default Re: Previous year JIPMER Solved Question Papers

As you are looking for the previous year solved question papers of JIPMER Entrance exam, so here I am sharing the same with you

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8

Ans. B

2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus

Ans. D

3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus

Ans. A

4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145

Ans. B

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver

Ans. C

6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus

Ans. D

7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch

Ans. A

8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand

Ans. B

9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior

Ans. A

10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus

Ans.

PHYSIOLOGY

11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin

Ans. B

12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive

Ans. B

13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin

Ans. A

14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin

Ans. A

15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body

Ans. C?

16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C

17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson

Ans. B?

19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide

Ans. A

20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

Ans.

BIOCHEMISTRY

21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase

Ans. A

22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation

Ans. B

23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7

Ans. B

24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate

Ans. B?

25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Ans. A

MICROBIOLOGY

26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes

Ans. A

27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans

Ans. B

28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi

Ans. B

29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV

Ans. A

30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Ans. A

31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin

Ans. A

32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Ans. C

33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges

Ans. B

34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY

35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron

Ans. B

36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium

Ans. A

37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis

Ans. D

38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B

39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen

Ans. C

PHARMACOLOGY

40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol

Ans. D

41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure

Ans. C

42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU

Ans. B

43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation

Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil

Ans. A

45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam

Ans. B

47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH

Ans. B

48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide

Ans. D

49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin

Ans. B

50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide

Ans. C

Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost for you
Attached Files
File Type: zip JIPMER Exam Solved Question Paper.zip (56.6 KB, 145 views)
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Last edited by Sashwat; January 24th, 2014 at 11:08 AM.
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  #35  
Old January 24th, 2014, 11:16 AM
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Default Re: Previous Year JIPMER Unsolved Question Papers

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER) conducts JIPMER MBBS Medical Entrance

Here I am sharing the Question paper of JIPMER MBBS Medical Entrance

The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively
(a) gas and liquid (b) liquid and gas
(c) solid and gas (d) solid and liquid

The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is
(a) Ba (b) Ag
(c) Rb (d) Pb

According 10 the first law of thermodynamics which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function?
(a) (b)
(c) (d) +

Which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?
(b)
(d)

The geometry of is
(a) planar hexagon (b) regular octahedron
(c) distorted octahedron (d) square bipyramid




Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
Attached Files
File Type: pdf JIPMER Entrance Exam Question paper.pdf (148.8 KB, 107 views)
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  #36  
Old January 27th, 2014, 11:35 AM
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Default JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Previous Years Paper

Give me information about paper pattern for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Examination??
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  #37  
Old January 28th, 2014, 09:29 AM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam Previous Years Paper

Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research, Puducherry (JIPMER) organized an entrance examination for admission in medical courses ..

Here I am giving you information about paper pattern for JIPMER MBBS Entrance Examination below

JIPMER MBBS Paper Pattern:
Duration: 2 hours 30 minutes
JIPMER Question Paper will consist of Objective type of questions as follows:
English- 50 questions
Physics - 50 questions
Chemistry - 50 questions
Biology 50 questions
Total - 200 questions
Total Marks - 200 x 1 = 200 marks

Books for paper::

JIPMER Pondicherry Medical Entrance Exam Previous Years' Solved Papers 01 Edition
(Paperback)
Author: RPH Editorial Board
Publisher: Ramesh Publishing House (2012)



JIPMER Medical Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research: 13 Years' Solved Papers (2000 - 2012)
(Paperback)
Author: Arihant Experts
Publisher: Arihant (2012)

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  #38  
Old January 30th, 2014, 05:44 PM
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Default Re: JIPMER MBBS entrance exam question papers

I am doing participate in the JIPMER MBBS entrance exam and I have need of its question paper so please tell me the procedure of doing download it question paper PDF File from net.[/QUOTE]
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  #39  
Old January 31st, 2014, 11:32 AM
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Default Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER

Will you please provide me the Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER????
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  #40  
Old February 4th, 2014, 05:39 PM
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Default Re: Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER

Yes sure, here I am providing you the Previous Year Question Papers of JIPMER, you can use this question paper in your studies and it will give you basic idea about the paper pattern.

1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of

A. T10

B. T12

C. T6

D. T8
Ans. B



2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal

A. Pudendal nerve

B. Internal pudendal artery

C. Internal pudendal vein

D. Nerve to obturator internus



Ans. D
3. All the following are general visceral efferent

except

A. Nucleus ambiguous

B. Dorsal nucleus of

vagus



C. Salivatory nucleus





D. Edinger Westphal nucleus



Ans. A



4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___

degrees

A. 115

B. 125

C. 135

D. 145



Ans. B



5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ

A. Spleen

B. Lymphnode

C. Bonemarrow

D. Liver



Ans. C



6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle

A. Hyoglossus

B. Palatoglossus

C. Myelohyoid

D. Genioglossus



Ans. D



7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis

except

A. Narrow subpubic angle

B. Short concave sacrum

C. Divergent side walls

D. Wide sciatic notch



Ans. A



8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect

A. Extensors of fingers and wrist

B. Flexors of fingers and wrist

C. Small muscles of hand



Ans. B



9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies

A. levator scapulae and rhomboids

B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus

C. lattismus dorsi

D. serratus anterior



Ans. A



10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is

brought about by

A. Popliteus

B. gastrocnemius

C. vastus medialis

D. adductor magnus



Ans.



PHYSIOLOGY



11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as

A. Dissolved CO2

B. HCO3-

C. Carboxy haemoglobin

D. Carbamino haemoglobin



Ans. B



12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the

following type

A. autosomal dominant

B. autosomal recessive

C. x-linked dominant

D. x-linked recessive



Ans. B



13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed

by

A. actin

B. myosin

C. tropomyosin

D. calmodulin



Ans. A



14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in

A. Brain

B. Heart

C. Skin



Ans. A



15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult

is

A. free fatty acids

B. amino acids

C. glucose

D. ketone body



Ans. C?



16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on

hypothalamus

A. smell

B. fine touch

C. hearing

D. vision

Ans. C



17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the

following is seen

A. uncoupling of phosphorylation

B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain

C. inhibition of phosphorylation

D. generation of ATP

Ans.

18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated

by

A. Pavlov

B. Skinner

C. Freud

D. Watson



Ans. B?



19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be

A. Nitric oxide



Ans. A



20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled

by

A. Anterior corticospinal tract

B. Lateral corticospinal tract

C. Tectospinal

D. Vestibulospinal



Ans.



BIOCHEMISTRY



21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which

enzyme

A. Lysyl hydroxylase

B. Lysyl oxidase

C. Procollagen peptidase



Ans. A



22. Okazaki pieces are seen in

A. DNA repair

B. DNA replication

C. Transcription

D. Translation



Ans. B



23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located

on

A. Long arm of chromosome 6

B. Short arm of chromosome 6

C. Long arm of chromosome 7

D. Short arm of chromosome 7



Ans. B



24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged

starvation

A. Aceto acetate

B. B-hydroxy buryrate

C. acetone

D. alpha ketoglutarate



Ans. B?



25. cAMP is degraded by

A. Phosphodiesterase

B. Phosphokinase

C. Phosphatase

D. Xanthine oxidase



Ans. A



MICROBIOLOGY



26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through

A. pili

B. fimbriae

C. flagella

D. mesosomes



Ans. A



27. Which of the following organism is capsulated



A. Histoplasma capsulatum

B. Cryptococcus neoformans

C. Candida albicans



Ans. B



28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of

A. Schistosoma japonicum

B. Schistosoma mansoni

C. Schistosoma haematobium

D. Schistosoma mekongi



Ans. B



29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus

A. HTLV-1

B. HPV

C. EBV

D. HBV



Ans. A



30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement

pathway

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgD



Ans. A



31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway

A. Immune complex

B. Lipopolysaccharide

C. Exotoxin



Ans. A



32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV



Ans. C



33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is

A. Lung

B. Meninges



Ans. B



34. All are true about streptococcal infections except

A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years

B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs

C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces

D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs

Ans. D

PATHOLOGY



35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease

A. increased TIBC

B. increased serum iron

C. increased serum ferritin

D. increased bone marrow iron



Ans. B



36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha

A. lymphocyte

B. fibroblast

C. macrophage

D. endothelium



Ans. A



37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include

A. periportal inflammation

B. portal fibrosis

C. bridging necrosis

D. cholestasis



Ans. D



38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by

A. Type I pneumocytes

B. Type II pneumocytes

Ans. B



39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except

A. Increased fibrin degradation products

B. Decreased platelets

C. Increased fibrinogen



Ans. C



PHARMACOLOGY



40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist

A. Acebutolol

B. Atenolol

C.Metoprolol

D.Bisoprolol



Ans. D



41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following

except

A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis

B. Elderly hypertensive

C. Diabetic microalbuminuria

D. Severe renal failure



Ans. C



42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug

A. bleomycin

B. doxorubicin

C. 5 FU



Ans. B



43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed

with

A. Naloxone

B. Theophylline

C. Artificial ventillation



Ans. A

44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid

hemorrhage is

A. Nimodipine

B. Diltiazem

C. Verapamil



Ans. A



45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with

A. alpha methyldopa

B. phenylbutazone

C. INH



Ans. B



46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile

seizures

A. sodium valproate

B. carbamazepine

C. phenobarbitone

D. diazepam



Ans. B



47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic

A. Rifampicin

B. Ethambutol

C. Pyrazinamide

D. INH



Ans. B



48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism

A. Ethambutol

B. Lithium

C. Amiodarone

D. Pyrazinamide



Ans. D



49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of

A. Growth hormone

B. Prolactin



Ans. B



50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent

A. Doxapram

B. Nikethamide

C. Doxacurium

D. Propylbutamide



Ans. C



51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic

infections

A. penicillin

B. clindamycin

C. chloramphenicol

D. gentamycin



Ans. D



52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in

pregnancy

A. Doxycyclin

B. Erythromycin

C. Mirepenam

D. Tetracyclin



Ans. B

53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of

A. petit mal epilepsy

B. type 2 diabetes mellitus

C. hyperlipidaemia



Ans. B



54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant

A. guanabenz

B. guanadrel

C. clonidine

D. alpha methyl dopa



Ans. B



55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in

A. 26days

B. 36days

C. 46days

D. 56days



Ans. D



56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to

A. Increase effect

B. decrease side effects

C. decrease abuse

D. enhance absorption

Ans. C



57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs

A. Lithium

B. L-Dopa

C. Digoxin

D. Phenytoin



Ans. B



58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine

esterase

A. Mivacurium

B. Atracurium



Ans. A



59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of

A. Phenytoin

B. Diazepam

C. Clonazepam

D. Phenobarbitone



Ans. A



60. Which of the following is prothrombotic

A. Thrombomodulin

B. PGI2

C. Heparin

D. ADP



Ans. D



61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by

A. Erythromycin

B. vitaminK

C. Theophyllin



Ans. A







FORENSIC MEDICINE



62. Which of the following is most useful for sex

determination

A. Skull

B. femur

C. pelvis

D. tibia



Ans. C



63. Which of the following is diagnostic of

drowning

A. froth in the nostrils

B. cutis anserina

C. water in the stomach

D. mud in the respiratory passages



Ans. A



64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of

A.copper sulphate

B.phenol

C.organophosphorus

D.cyanide



Ans. B



65. Leading questions are not permitted in

A.cross examination

B.examination in chief

C.questions by the judge



Ans. B



MEDICINE



66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by

A.CT

B.Angiography

C.MRI

D.X-ray



Ans. B



67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with

A.Fresh Frozen Plasma

B.Cryo precipitate

C.Whole blood

D.Buffy coat extract



Ans. A



68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in

A. Cardiac tamponade

B. Aortic regurgitation

C. dilated cardiomyopathy

D. restrictive cardiomyopathy



Ans. C



69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in

treadmill test

A. flat ST depression

B. upsloping ST depression

C. ventricular tachycardia

D. T wave inversion



Ans. A









70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased

sweating. What is the best next step

A.lytic cocktail

B.atropine

C.antevenom



Ans. C



71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature

of

A.variceal sclerotherapy

B.coronary artery bypass

C.peritoneal dialysis

D.radiation



Ans.



72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is

A.Clofazimine

B.Chloroquin

C.Thalidomide

D.Steroids



Ans. C



73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except

A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present

B.LMN in upper limb

C.UMN in lower limb

D.no sensory involvement



Ans. A



74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of

A.Multiple sclerosis

B.Parkinsonism

C.Alzheimer's disease



Ans. C



75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of



A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome

B.Rotor syndrome

C.Gilbert's syndrome

D.primary biliary cirrhosis



Ans. C



76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is

A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

B.Klinefelter's syndrome

C.Testicular feminization



Ans. A



77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of

hypokalemia

A.tall T waves

B.U waves

C.flat ST segment



Ans. A



78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is

A.Multiple myeloma

B.NHL

C.Lukaemia

D.multiple secondaries



Ans. D?



79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick

injury

A.HIV

B.Hepatitis B

C.Hepatitis C

D.CMV



Ans. B



80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except

A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma

B.AML

C.ALL

D.Aplastic anemia



Ans. A?



81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis

A.FTA-ABS

B.TPHA

C.IgM-FTA ABS

D.TPI



Ans. C



82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in

A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia

B.Kawasaki's disease

C.Guillen Barrie syndrome

D.Selective IgA deficiency



Ans. D



83.Grade 1 lymphedema means

A.pitting edema up to the ankle

B.pitting edema up to the knee

C.non-pitting edema

D.edema disappearing after overnight rest



Ans. D



84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is

A.defective absorption

B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility

C.primary mucosal disease.



Ans. B



85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through

A.femoral vein

B.saphenous vein

C.subclavian vein



Ans. C



86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the

following conditions

A.Alzheimer's disease

B.senile cardiac amyloidosis

C.medullary carcinoma thyroid

D.multiple myeloma



Ans. B



87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of

A.sarcoidosis

B.silicosis

C.lymphoma



Ans. B



88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor

gene

A.N myc

B.Rb

C.p53

D.Mad-max



Ans. A



89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-
penia

A.bleeding time

B.clotting time

C.platelet count



Ans. A



90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true

A.the language defect progresses with age

b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of

cases

C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation

D.seizures are common



Ans. B





91. Macula cerulea is seen in

A.Pediculosis humanis corporis

B.Pediculosis capitis

C.Phthiris pubis



Ans. C



92. Lyonization occurs usually at

A.9th day

B.16th day

C.28th day

D.36th day



Ans. B





93. Localized tetanus is due to

A.large gaping wound

B.atypical strains of bacteria

C.abnormally long incubation period

D.partial immunity



Ans. A?



94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in

A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease

B.Neurofibromatosis

C.Sturge Weber syndrome

D.Bournville's disease



Ans. B



95. CMV does not cause

A.intracranial calcification

B.congenital heart disease

C.mental retardation

D.seizures



Ans. B













96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except

A.Irondeficiency anemia

B.bloody diarrhea

C.pulmonary hemosiderosis

D.intestinal colic



Ans. A



97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of

A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy

B.hypotonic CP

C.choreo athetotic CP

D.Myasthenia gravis



Ans.



98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the

following except

A.mental retardation

B.hypoglycemia

C.low hairline

D.micropenis



Ans.



99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except

A.analgesic nephropathy

B.hydronephrosis

C.acute pyelonephritis

D.sickle cell disease



Ans. B



100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen

in

A.Yaws

B.Pinta

C.Leprosy

D.Kala azar



Ans. B
101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to

start reperfusion is

A.streptokinase

B.urokinase

C.tissue plasminogen activator

D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex



Ans. C



102. Iliac horns are seen in

A.Nail patella syndrome

B.ankylossing spondylitis



Ans. A





103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is

A.multiple

B.pontine

C.severe symptoms



Ans. C



104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level

A.100mg/dl

B.130mg/dl

C.160mg/dl

D.190mg/dl



Ans. A

SURGERY



105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in

A.Poly cystic kidney disease

B.Horse Shoe Kidney

C.Hydronephrosis

D.Ectopic kidney



Ans. B



106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with

A.Armillifer

B.Loa Loa

C.Cysticercus cellulosae

D.Guinea worm



Ans. A



107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with

A.Radiotherapy

B.Chemotherapy

C.Surgery

D.Laser ablation



Ans. C?



108. Commonest type of hypospadias is

A.glandular

B.penile

C.coronal

D.scrotal



Ans. A



109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis

Obliterans

A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years

B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs

C.there is associated phlebitis

D.femoral artery is involved



Ans. D



110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed

Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of

treatment

A.Diverticulectomy

B.leave it alone

C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump

D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis



Ans. B



111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be

due to

A.pulmonary embolism

B.pulmonary contusion

C.hemothorax

D.pneumonia



Ans. C



112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple

is

A.Duct ectasia

B.Duct carcinoma

C.Duct papilloma



Ans. C



113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have

more

A.malignant change

B.fistula formation

C.bleeding per rectum

D.cholangio carcinoma



Ans. B



114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis

except

A.Usually follows a viral infection

B.There is increased radio iodine uptake

C.Initial hyperthyroid state

D.Anti thyroids are of no use



Ans. B



115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in

varicose veins

A. Trendelenberg test

B. Fegan's test

C. Morissey's test

D. Homan's test



Ans. B



116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in

A.multiple septic emboli

B.multiple small peripheral emboli

C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated

D.Ileo femoral thrombosis



Ans. C



117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread

A.Warthin's tumor

B.adenoid cystic carcinoma

C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma

D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma



Ans. B

118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following

carcinoma

A.stomach

B.gall bladder

C.colon

D.pancreas



Ans. C





119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from

congenital mega colon is

A.Delayed evacuation of barium

B.Air fluid levels

C.Presence of a transition zone

D.Dilated bowel loops



Ans. C



120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer

A.Sloping edge

B. Undermined edge

C. Serous discharge

D. Reddish base



Ans. B





121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula

A. fistulectomy

B. seton repair

C. proximal colostomy

D. anal dilatation



Ans. A



122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is

A. PTFE

B. Dacron

C. Autologous vein



Ans. C



123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is

A. elevation of the limb

B. proximal tourniquet

C. direct pressure

D. ligation of the bleeding vessel



Ans. C



124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is

A. Retrograde cystourethrogram

B. MCU

C. IVP

D. USG



Ans. B



125. Most virus associated malignancy is

A. Carcinoma cervix

B. Burkitt's lymphoma

C. Carcinoma Breast



Ans. C



126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is

A. <10yrs

B. 20-40yrs

C. 40-60yrs

D. >60yrs



Ans.



127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much

percentage

A. 45%

B. 55%

C. 60%

D. 65%



Ans. A



PSM



128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate

of

A. 50

B. 60

C. 70

D. 80



Ans. B

discuss questions at message board at aippg.com

129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India

is

A.Culex tritaneorhyncus

B.Anopheles

Ans. A

130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is



A. 1mg

B. 0.5mg

C. 0.2 mg

D. 0.7mg



Ans. B



131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study

A.incidence can be calculated

B.it is from effect to cause

C.it is inexpensive

D.shorter time than case control



Ans. A



132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health

regulations

A. plague

B. yellow fever

C. cholera

D. polio



Ans. D



133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter

is

A. 0.1 -0.2 mm

B. 0.2-0.3 mm

C. 0.3-0.4 mm

D. 0.4-0.5 mm



Ans. B



134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS

solution

A. 10meq

B. 20meq

C. 30meq

D. 40meq



Ans. B



135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is

included is below

A. 5yrs

B. 12yrs

C. 8yrs

D. 16yrs



Ans. B?



136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance

now

A. ABER

B. Infant parasite rate

C. Annual parasite incidence

D. Slide positivity rate



Ans. B



137. Which of the following is true about Botulism

A.high fever

B.brisk reflexes

C.salivation

D.sore throat



Ans. D











138. What is the BMI(body mass index) of a male with weight 45kg and height

1.5m

A.19

B.20

C.21

D.18



Ans.B



139. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water

A. Copper sulphate

B. Pottassium permanganate

C. Hypochlorite

D. Bleaching powder



Ans. A



140. Chikungunya virus is transmitted by all the following mosquitoes except

A. Culex

B. Anopheles

C. Aedes

D. Mansonoides



Ans. B



141. The WHO criteria for TB control means

A.Incidence of infection in cheldren less than 5yrs is <1%



Ans. A



142. Validity of a screening test includes all except

A.sensitivity

B.specificity

C.repeatability

D.accuracy



Ans. C



143.Which of the following is not sexually transmitted

A. Entameba histolytica

B. Giardia lamblia

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Leishmania brasiliensis



Ans. D



144. According to WHO the minimum number of antenatal visits to prevent

maternal mortality is

A.3

B.6

C.9

D.12



Ans. A



145. What is the definition of blindness according to WHO

A.vision less than 3/60



Ans. A



146. Which of the following is not a priority vaccine for the first year of life

A.Hib

B.Hepatitis B

C.DPT



Ans. B







147. What is the incubation period of vaccine strain of measles virus

A. 7days

B. 10days

C. 14days

D. 18days



Ans. A



148. PQLI does not include

A.Infant Mortality rate

B.Gross national Product

C.Litreacy rate

D.Life expectancy at 1 year of age.



Ans. B



149. Which of the following rates is not only an indicator of mortality but also

of the living standard of a community

A.IMR

B.PNMR

C.MMR



Ans. A



150. Which of the following is a parametric test of significance

A. U test

B. t-test



Ans. B



151.All are components of Primary Health Care except

A.providing essential drugs

B.supplementary nutrition

C.treatment of locally endemic diseases and minor ailments

D.prevention of locally endemic diseases



Ans. B





152. Standard Normal deviate is given by the formula



A.x-`x/s

B.(x-`x)2/s



Ans. A



153. The minimum period of treatment for multibacillary leprosy

is

A. 1yr

B. 2yrs

C. 6months

D. 9months



Ans. B



154. Relative risk is assessed on the basis of

A. Strength of association

B. Possibility

C. Dose response



Ans. A



155. Median incubation period means

A. Time for 50% cases to occur

B. Time between primary case and secondary case

C. Time between onset of infection and period of maximum infectivity



Ans. A







156. In census literacy rate is assessed by

A.attended literacy classes for one year

B.ability to write signature

C.ability to read and write



Ans. C



157. Ringer lactate does not contain

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Chloride

D. Bicarbonate



Ans. D



158. Sickness benefit in ESI is for how many

days

A. 51

B. 61

C. 91

D. 71



Ans. C



ORTHOPEDICS



159. Rigid flat foot is not seen in

A. Osteo arthritis

B. rheumatoid arthritis

C. peroneal spasm

D. congenital tarsal fusion



Ans. A



160. What is the diagnostic radiological finding in skeletal flurosis



A. sclerosis of sacroiliac joint

B. interroseous membrane ossification

C. osteosclerosis of vertebral body

D. osssification of ligaments of knee joint



Ans. D?



161.Which of the following childhood disorders is a common differential

diagnosis of osteomyelitis

A.chondrosarcoma

B.Ewing's sarcoma

C.osteosarcoma



Ans. B



162. A segmental compound fracture of tibia with 1 cm skin wound is classified

as

A.Type I

B.Type II

C.Type IIIA

D.Type IIIB



Ans. A?



163. Minimum intradiscal pressure in vertebral column is seen when a person is

A. standing

B. sitting

C. lying flat

D. lying on one side



Ans.









164. What is the position of lower limb in anterior dislocation of hip

A.flexion adduction and internal rotation

B.flexion adduction and external rotation

C.flexion abduction and internal rotation

D.flexion abduction and external rotation



Ans. D



165.Which of the following is not a complication of Colle's fracture

A.Sudek's osteodystrophy

B.Non Union

C.Shoulder stiffness

D.Malunion



Ans. B



166. Median nerve involvement is most common with

A. elbow dislocation

B. supracondylar fracture

C. lateral condyle fractrue

D. olecranon fracture



Ans. B



167. Earliest bone to ossify is

A. Clavicle

B. Tibia

C. Sternum

D. Ribs



Ans. A



ENT



168.Bezold's abscess is seen at

A.petrous tip

B.Mastoid tip

C.digastric triangle

D.subdurally



Ans. B



169. Which of the following is not a feature of

Rhinosporidiosis

A.Bleeding polyp

B.Russel bodies are seen

C.Oral Dapsone is useful in treatment

D.bleeding is present



Ans. B



170. In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids the voice abnormality that is

seen is

A.rhinolalia clausa

B.rhinolalia aperta

C.hotpotato voice



Ans. A



171. Abductor of the vocal cord is

A.lateral cricoarytenoid

B.cricothyroid

C.posterior cricoarytenoid



Ans. C











172. Cottel's test is used to test the patency of the nares

in

A.Atrophic rhinitis

B.Rhinosporidiosis

C.Deviated nasal septum

D.Hypertrophied inferior turbinate



Ans. C



173. Which of the following is not seen in Menier's disease

A.vertigo

B.tinnitus

C.conductive deafness



Ans. C



174. Which of the following ECG finding is associated with congenital

deafness

A.delta wave

B.long QT

C.short PR interval



Ans. B



175. Which among the following is not true about otosclerosis

A.hearing better in louder conditions

B.Eustachian tube is always abnormal

C.tympanic membrane is normal

D.bilateral progressive conductive deafness



Ans. B



176. For Grommet tube insertion in serous otitis media, the incision on

tympanic membrane is made on

A.anteroinferior quadrant

B.anterosuperior quadrant

C.posterosuperior quadrant

D.posteroinferior quadrant



Ans. A



177. What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor

paralysis

A.dyspnea on exertion

B.transient hoarseness

C.husky voice

D.inspiratory stridor



Ans. B



178. Regarding acute vestibular neuronitis all are true

except

A.tinnitus and vertigo developing over 1-2 weeks

B.high frequency sensory hearing loss

C.spontaneous nystagmus is present

D.usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection



Ans. B



179. Most common complication of tracheostomy is

A.pneumothorax

B.surgical emphysema

C.injury to the large vessels

D.injury to esophagus



Ans. B















EYE



180. Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of

A.Infantile Gaucher's disease

B.Niemann Pick disease

C.Fabry's disease



Ans. B



181. Preganglionic and post ganglionic Horner's syndrome are differentiated

by application of

A.Atropine

B.Pilocarpine

C.Timolol

D.Hydroxy amphetamine



Ans. D



182. Axial proptosis is caused by

A. blow out fracture of the orbit

B. maxillary tumor invading the orbit

C. frontal mucocele

D. optic glioma



Ans. D



183. Which of the following is used for treatment of

myopia

A. Nd YAG laser

B. Excimer laser

C. Argon laser

D. Hormium laser



Ans. B



184. Sun flower cataract is seen in

A.Blunt trauma

B.Diabetes

C.Chalcosis

D.Argyriosis



Ans. C



185. Steroid may be used in the treatment of which of the following type of

herpes keratitis

A. Superficial punctate keratitis

B. Dendritic ulcer

C. Geographic ulcer

D. Disciform keratitis



Ans. D



186. Which of the following is the cause of blindness in partial retinal branch

vein occlusion

A. Cystoid macular edema

B. Macular hemorrhage

C. Vitreous hemorrhage



Ans. A



187. Miotics are useful in which type of squint

A. Accomodative squint

B. Paralytic squint

C. Divergant squint

D. Congenital squint



Ans. A











188. Extra capsular extraction of lens is not possible in

A. hypermature cataract

B. immature cataract

C. lens subluxation

D. developmental cataract



Ans. C



189. KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of

A. Deschmet's membrane

B. epithelium

C. endothelium

D. stroma



Ans. A



190. Treatment of congenital dacryocystitis is

A.dacryocystectomy

B.hydrostaticmassage

C.probing and syringing with antibiotics

D.dacryocystorhinostomy



Ans. B



191.Cattle truck appearance on fundus examination is a feature of

A.CRVO

B.Incomplete CRAO

C.Incomplete CRVO

D.Hypertensive retinopathy



Ans. B



192.Whorled keratopathy is seen with the use of

A. Digoxin

B. Amiodarone

C. Ethambutol



Ans. B?



PSYCHIATRY



193. Reversible dementia is a feature of

A.Alzheimer's disease

B.Pick's disease

C.Multiinfarct dementia

D.Hypothyroidism



Ans. D



194. Which of the following is not a classical symptom of depression

A.altered sleep pattern

B.weight loss

C.guilt

D.decreased apettite



Ans. C?



195. Psychomotor symptoms are associated with which type of

schizophrenia

A.hebephrenic

B.catatonic

C.paranoid

D.simple



Ans. B



196. Which of the following is a first rank symptom in

Schizophrenia

A.perceptional delusions

B.thought insertion

C.perceptional hallucinations



Ans. B

A I P P G

197. Which of the following is not seen in Korsakoff's syndrome



A.clear consciousness

B.inabiliity to learn new things

C.hallucinations

D.confabulation

Ans. C



198. Wernicke Korsakoff's syndrome is due to the deficiency of which of the

following

A.Pyridoxine

B.Thiamine

C.Vitamin B12

D.Riboflavin



Ans. B



199. The type of treatment which can be used for mental retardation is

A.Psychoanalysis

B.Family therapy

C.Transaction analysis

D.Rapid emotive treatment and response



Ans.



200. deJavu phenomenon means

A.feeling that familiar things look unfamiliar

B.individual feels that he knows the surroundings even though he is new to it



Ans. B





SKIN



201. Condyloma accuminatum is produced by which type of papilloma

virus

A.HPV 6-16

B.HPV 6-11

C.HPV 16-18

D.HPV 11-18



Ans. B



202. Herald patch is seen in

A.pityriasis rosea

B.lichen planus

C.DLE



Ans. A



203. Which of the following is not a pyoderma

A.Furuncle

B.Ecthyma

C.Pyoderma gangrenosum

D.Carbuncle



Ans. C



204.Treatment of choice for disseminated gonococcal infection is

A.penicillin

B.ceftriaxone



Ans. B



205. Epidemic tenia capitis is caused by

A.Trichopyton mentagrophytes

B.Trichophyton rubrum

C.Microsporum audoni



Ans. C



206. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects

A.webspace

B.face

C.genitalia

D.axilla



Ans. B



207. A smear from a genital lesion shows Donovan bodies. The diagnosis is

A.Lymphogranuloma venerium

B.Chancroid

C.Granuloma inguanale



Ans. C



208. Photosensitivity is seen in all except

A. SLE

B. Xeroderma pigmentosa

C. Poephyria cutanea tarda

D. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum



Ans. D



ANAESTHESIA



209. Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a 'street-fit'

person following surgery

A.midazolam

B.propofol

C.alfentanyl

D.thiopentone



Ans. B



210. Which of the following reacts with Soda lime in anaesthetic circuits

A.trichloroethylene

B.isoflurane

C.halothane

D.methoxyflurane



Ans. A



211. Which of the following anesthetics sensitizes the heart to catecholamines

A.Halothane

B.Isoflurane

C.Enflurane



Ans. A



212. Thiopentone sodium has a short duration of action

because

A.it is rapidly metabolized

B.it is rapidly redistributed



Ans. B





213. In emergency caesarian section rapid induction of anesthesia is done to

A.prevent gastric aspiration

B.prevent fetal depression

C.to decrease awareness



Ans. A



PEDIATRICS

all india pre pg inc (A I P P G)

214. In meconium aspiration syndrome all of the following are true except



A.there is always respiratory distress

B.steroids are not useful

C.ECMO may be useful



Ans. A



215. What is the percentage of steroid responders in a case of Minimal Change

disease

A.65%

B.75%

C.85%

D.95%



Ans. D



216. At what age a child is able to state correctly his name and sex

A.24months

B.36months

C.30months

D.42months

Ans. A?



217. Which of the following reflexes is present at birth

A.knee jerk

B.ankle jerk

C.biceps jerk

D.triceps jerk



Ans.





218. Swollen cherry red lip with strawberry tongue is a feature of

A.Kawasaki disease

B.Scarlet fever



Ans. A



219. Which of the following will not lead to decrease in cell mediated

immunity

A.protein energy malnutrition

B.zinc deficiency

C.selenium deficiency

D.iron deficiency



Ans. C



220. In Phenylketonuria all are true except

A.EEG abnormality in 50% of cases

B.convulsion in 25% of cases

C.Blood is drawn for testing immediately after birth

D.profuse vomiting



Ans. C



221. A 15 month old child is able to do all the following

except

A.crawl upstairs

B.make a tower of 5 cubes

C.name familiar objects

D.point to familiar things



Ans. B



GYNAE & OBST.



222. Which of the following is the commonest cause of urethritis with

leucorrhea

A.Chlamydia trachomatis

B.H.vaginalis

C.Trichomonas

D.Candida



Ans. A



223. A pregnant women presents with a placenta praevia of a major degree.

The fetus is malformeD. Which of the following will be the best line on

management

A.cesarian section

B.oxytocin drip

C.rupture of membranes

D.instillation of PG E2



Ans. A



224. Transverse lie is most likely to occur in

A.subseptate uterus

B.uterus didelphys

C.hypoplastic uterus

D.unicornuate uterus



Ans. A

www.aippg.com

225. Osiander's sign means

A. Pulsation in the lateral vaginal fornix

B. Bluish colour change in the vagina

C.Softening of the cervix

D.On bimanual palpation the fingers can be approximated as if nothing is in

between



Ans. A





226. Which of the following does not cross placenta

A.heparin

B.propranolol

C.warfarin



Ans. A



227. Magnesium sulfate as an uterine relaxant is contraindicated in following

except

A.premature rupture of membrane

B.intrauterine infection

C.myasthenia gravis

D.renal failure



Ans. B



228. Anti epileptic agent given in pregnancy is

A.phenytoin

B.sodium valproate

C.carbamazepine

D.lamotrigene



Ans. D



229. A pregnant woman with Mitral stenosis is most likely to undergo failure

in which period

A.16wks

B.24wks

C.20wks

D.28wks



Ans. D



230. CA-125 is the tumor marker for

A.colon

B.ovary



Ans. B



231. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS

is

A. 0.2

B. 0.5

C. 0.7

D. 0.9



Ans.



232. Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is

A. XO

B. XX

C. XXY

D. XY



Ans. A



233. What is true about shoulder presentation

A. Ccord prolapse is common

B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common

C. Deep transverse arrest can occur

D. More common in primi



Ans.



234. Variable deceleration indicates

A.head compression

B.cord compression

C.fetal hypoxaemia

D.maternal sedation

Ans. B





235. Regarding monozygotic twins which of the following is not true

A. USG is more useful in the first half of pregnancy

B. sex discordance can occur rarely

C. always monochorionic

D. more common following ovulation induction



Ans. C



236. The placenta is formed from

A.decidua basalis

B.decidua vera

C.chorion levae

D.decidua capsularis



Ans. A



237. The level of hCG is maximum during which day of pregnancy



A.50-60

B.60-70

C.70-80

D.80-90



Ans. B



238. Failure rate of tubal sterilization is one

in

A. 100

B. 200

C. 500

D. 1000



Ans. B

239. Which cervical fibroid is most likely to cause urinary retention

A.Anterior

B.Posterior

C.Submucous

D.Subserous



Ans. A



240. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except

A. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio

B. Nile blue sulfate test

C. Nitrazine paper test

D. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid



Ans. C



241. If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the

first thing that you will do

A. USG

B. NST

C. Review the menstrual history once more

D. X-ray abdomen



Ans. C



242. First trimester USG is not indicated in

A.Hydramnios

B.Hyper emesis gravidarum



Ans. A



243. Parkland formula for burns is for

A.Ringer lactate

B.glucose saline

C.Normal saline



Ans. A



244. Paracusis willisi is seen in

A.stapedial fixation

B.ASOM



Ans. A



245. Mesonephric duct remnant seen in anterolateral vaginal wall is

A.Gartner's cyst

B.endometriotic cyst

C.Inclusion cyst



Ans. A



RADIOLOGY



246. Which among the following is least likely to be affected by radiation

A.skin

B.muscle

C.bone marrow

D.intestine



Ans. B



247. Bull's eye lesion in ultrasonography is seen in

A. Candidiasis

B. Aspergillosis

C. Sporotrichosis

D. Cryptococcosis



Ans. A

248. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is

A.Becqueral

B.Gray

C.Stewart

D.Roentgen



Ans. B



249. Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal

necrotizing enterocolitis

A. Gas in the portal system

B. Gas in the intestinal wall

C. Pneumoperitoneum

D. Air fluid levels



Ans. B



250. Sign of contour is seen in

A. Ulcerative colitis

B. duedonal atrisia

C. Chron's disease
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