Previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT - 2018-2019 StudyChaCha

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Old May 27th, 2014, 11:43 AM
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Default Previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT

Can you please give me the previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT as it is very urgent for me?
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Old June 4th, 2014, 01:24 PM
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Default Re: Previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT

As you want to get the previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT so here is the information of the same for you:

1. In a certain examination there are three papers and it is necessary for a candidate to get 36%
of the total marks to pass. In one paper a candidate obtained 62 out of 120 and in the second
paper he obtained 35 out of 150. To just qualify for pass he must obtain out of 180 in the 3rd
paper.
(a) 35 (b) 45 © 55 (d) 65
2. A book-seller allows a discount of 10% on the advertised price of a book. A book costs Rs
600 and he wants to make a profit of 20%. He must mark the price of the book as:
(a) Rs 700 (b) Rs 800 © Rs 660 (d) Rs 720
3. A pot full of water weighs 9.5 kg. When half-filled with water the pot weighs 5.5 kg. The
weight of the empty pot is (in kg):
(a) 4 (b) 1.5 © 2 (d) 3.5
4. A shopkeeper bought pens at the rate of 12 pens for Rs 150 and sold them at the rate of 10
pens for Rs 130. The number of pens he should sell to earn a net profit of Rs 20 is:
(a) 10 (b) 20 © 30 (d) 40
5. A train passes a platform 90 metres long in 30 seconds and a man standing on the platform in
15 seconds. The speed of the train is (in m/sec):
(a) 3 (b) 6 © 2 (d) 5
6. Five numbers are arranged in order. The average of the first four numbers is 26 and the
average of the last four numbers is 23. The difference of the first and the last number is:
(a) 3 (b) 15 © 12 (d) 10
7. 20 men working 8 hours per day can complete a piece of work in 21 days. The number of
hours per day must 48 men work to complete the same job in 7 days is:
(a) 10 hrs (b) 8 hrs © 12 hrs (d) 6 hrs

8. A number of boys raised Rs 180.50 by subscription among themselves, each boy subscribing
as many 25 pieces at twice the number of boys. The number of boys is:
(a) 21 (b) 17 © 19 (d) 23
9. Of the four numbers p, q, r, s, the ratio of the first number to the second is 2: 3, that of the
second to the third is 5: 6 and that of the third to the fourth is 8: 9. The continued ratio of
the four numbers is:
(a) 40 : 60 : 72 : 81 (b) 4 : 6 : 7 : 8 © 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (d) 42 : 65 : 70 : 91
10. A fort has provisions for 420 soldiers for 70 days. After 10 days 210 more soldiers enter the
fort. The remaining food will last for:
(a) 30 days (b) 25 days © 35 days (d) 40 days
11. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. Both the pipes being opened,
when the cistern is empty. The time when the first pipe must be turned off so that the cistern
may be filled in 18 minutes, in all is:
(a) After 10 min (b) After 6 min © After 8 min (d) After 12 min
12. The time taken to travel from one place to another at the rate of 3 km/hr is 1 hour less than
that taken to travel same distance at the rate of 2.5 km/hr. the distance between the places is:
(a) 14 km (b) 16 km © 15 km (d) 20 km
13. 20 men working 8 hrs a day can complete a work in 18 days. Then 16 men working 9 hrs a
day can complete it in:
(a) 20 days (b) 60 days © 12 days (d) 16 days
14. The population of a town was 2, 00000. If the number of males increased by 10% and the
number of females decreased by 6%, the total population would have remained unchanged.
The number of males is:
(a) 80,000 (b) 72,000 © 75,000 (d) 90,000
15. If oranges be bought at the rate of 20 for a rupee, the number of oranges which must be sold
for a rupee to gain 25% is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 © 18 (d) 16
16. A person had deposited Rs 2500 in a bank on Ist January and withdrew Rs 1000 from the
bank at the end of 9 months. If the rate of interest is 4% p.a., then the total interest payable
to him at the end of the year is:
(a) Rs 80 (b) Rs 84 © Rs 105 (d) Rs 90
17. A certain sum is invested at simple interest p.a. It amounts to Rs 520 and Rs 568 after 5 and
7 years respectively. The original sum is:
(a) Rs 400 (b) Rs 350 © Rs 360 (d) Rs 380

18. A vessel has 2 pipes attached to it, one to supply and one to draw off. The supply-pipe can
fill the vessel in 40 minutes, and the waste-pipe can empty it in an hour. The supply-pipe and
the waste-pipe are kept open in alternate minutes; time in which the vessel will be filled is:
(a) 3 hrs 55 min (b) 4 hr © 3 hr 50 min (d) 3 hr 45 min
19. A man swimming in a stream which flows 1.5 km per hour finds that in a given time he can
swim twice as far with the stream as he can against it. The rate at which he swims is:
(a) 4.5 km per hour (b) 4 km per hour © 3 km per hour (d) 3.5 km per hour
20. In a kilometer race, A gives B a start of 30 metres, and beats him by 20 metres. If A runs the
kilometre in 5 minutes, the time that B will take to run the same distance is:
(a) 5, 5/19 min (b) 5, 5/17 min © 5, 5/13 min (d) 5, 5/18 min
21. When flour is Rs 40 a quintal, 16 men can be fed for 5 days at a cost of Rs 32; the time for
which 12 men can be fed at a cost of Rs 42, when flour is Rs 35 a quintal is:
(a) 12 days (b) 8 days © 9 days (d) 10 days
22. Rs 873 is divided among A, B, C, so that their shares are in the proportion of 2, 3 and 4, A’s
share is:
(a) Rs 194 (b) Rs 291 © Rs 388 (d) Rs 210
23. 42 Litres of adulterated milk contain milk and water in the ratio 4: 3. The amount of water
which must be added to it in order that the resulting mixture may contain milk and water in
the ratio 4: 5 is:
(a) 15 litres (b) 10 litres © 12 litres (d) 8 litres
24. A shop-keeper sells onions at Rs 24, Rs 30 and Rs 42 a kilogram, selling the different kinds
in quantities proportional to 1: 1: 3. If the total quantity sold be 60 kg, the average price
obtained for each kg is:
(a) Rs 36 (b) Rs 38 © Rs 30 (d) Rs 32
25. A piece of cloth is sold for Rs. 85.80 at a profit of 30%. If it had been sold at Rs 7.50 per
metre, the profit would have been Rs 16.50. the length of the piece is:
(a) 11 metres (b) 9 metres © 12 metres (d) 10 metres
Qs. 26-28. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered
I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answers the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
(1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.

(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. How many sisters does P have?
I. T & V are only sisters of D. II. D is brother of P.
27. How is ‘over’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Over and again’ written as ‘Ka ja ha’ in that code language.
II. ‘Come and go’ is written as ‘ja pa na’ in that code language.
28. Who is to the immediate right of Mohan when Mohan, Salil, Bhushan, Suresh and jayesh are
sitting around a circle facing at the centre?
I. Salil is third to the left of Mohan. II. Bhushan is between Salil and Jayesh.
Qs. 29-33. In each of the questions below there are three statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.
29. STATEMENTS: 1. All dogs are birds 2. Some birds are trees. 3. No house is tree
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some houses are dogs. II. Some birds are dogs. III. Some trees are dogs.
(1) Only I follows. (2) Only III follows. (3) Only II follows.
(4) Only II and III follows. (5) None of these.
30. STATEMENTS: 1. All goats are tigers. 2. Some tigers are horses.
3. All horses are jackals.
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some jackals are tigers. II. Some jackals are goats.
III. Some horses are goats.
(1) None follows. (2) Only I follows. (3) Only I & II follow.
(4) Only II and III follow. (5) All follow.
31. STATEMENTS: 1. Some pens are tables. 2. All tables are inks. 3. Some inks are apples.
CONCLUSIONS: I. some apples are pens. II. Some apples are tables.
III. Some inks are pens.
(1) None follows. (2) Only I follows. (3) Only II follows
(4) Only II follows (5) None of these.

32. STATEMENTS: 1. All fruits are vegetables. 2. All pens are vegetables.
3. All vegetables are rains.
CONCLUSIONS: I. All fruits are rains. II. All pens are rains.
III. Some rains are vegetables.
(1) None follows. (2) Only I and II follow. (3) Only II & III follow.
(4) Only I and III follows. (5) All follow.
33. STATEMENTS: 1. Some flowers are skies. 2. Some skies are rooms.
3. Some rooms are windows.
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some windows are skies. II. Some rooms are flowers.
III. No sky is window.
(1) Only I follows. (2) Only either I or II follows. (3) Only either II or III
follows (4) Only either I or III follows. (5) None of these.
Qs. 34-38. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to
distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments
are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’
arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly
related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You
have to decide which of the argument a ‘strong’ argument is and which a ‘weak’
argument is.
Give answer:
(1) If only argument I is strong. (2) If only argument II is strong. (3) If either I or II is
strong. (4) If neither I nor II is strong. (5) If both I and II are strong.
34. Should there be a complete ban on import of food grains by India?
ARGUMENTS:
1. Yes, India produces enough food grains and does not need to import which may adversely
affect the Indian farmers’ interest.
II. No, India should always keep the option of import open to tackle any future abnormal food
situation.
35. Should the parliamentary elections in India be held every three years as against five years at
present?

ARGUMENTS:
I. No, the elected representatives will not have enough time to settle and concentrate on
developmental activities.
II. Yes, this will help the voters to change nonperforming representatives without much delay.
36. Should there be a complete ban on use of animals in the entertainment
industry?
ARGUMENTS:
I. No, instead industry may be encouraged to use animals with proper care
II. Yes, animals used in entertainment industry are treated badly and hence should be
37. Should there be a common syllabus and pattern of evaluation for all the corresponding
subjects of all the universities in India?
ARGUMENTS:
I. Yes, this will make the degrees awarded by the Universities comparable for offering
jobs.
II. No, this will adversely affect the development of education in India.
38. Should all the farmers in India be provided free electricity for agricultural activities?
ARGUMENTS
I. Yes, many developed countries provide lot of subsidies to the farmers to encourage them to
engage in agricultural activities.
II. No, many rich farmers will be unduly benefited at the cost of exchequers money.
Qs. 39-43. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions give below:
Following are the criteria for short listing candidates for calling for interview for
Management Trainees in an organization:
The candidates must-
(i) Not be less than 21 years and more than 28 years as on 1.11.04.
(ii) Have secured at least 60 per cent marks in graduation.
(iii) Have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the preliminary selection examination.
(iv) Have secured at least 55 per cent marks in the final selection examination.
(v) Be ready to join work immediately after the interview.
In the case of a candidate who fulfils all other criteria EXCEPT_____

(A) at (iv) above but has secured more than 75 per cent marks in preliminary selection
examination his/her case is to be referred to Deputy General Manager.
(B) at (ii) above but has secured at least 65 per cent marks in post graduation, his/her case is to
be referred to General Manager.
In each of the questions below is given the information of one candidate. You have to study
the information provided with reference to the conditions given above and decide whether the
candidate is to be called for interview or some other course of action as stated below is to be
taken. You are not to assume other than the information provided in each question. All these
cases are given to you as on 1.11.2004.
Now read the information provided in each question and decide which of the following
courses of actions is to be taken with regard to each candidate and mark your answer:
(1) If the candidate is to be called for Interview.
(2) If the case is to be referred to General Manager.
(3) If the candidate is not to be called for interview.
(4) If the data provided are not sufficient to take a decision.
(5) If the case is to be referred to Deputy General Manager.
39. Neelam Srivastava has secured 75 per cent marks in the preliminary selection examination.
She was 22 years old as on 5th December, 2000. She has secured 65 per cent and 60 per cent
marks in the final selection examination and in graduation respectively. She is ready to join
immediately after the interview.
40. John D’Costa has secured 54 per cent marks in the final selection examination after obtaining
80 per cent marks in both graduation and preliminary selection examination. He is ready to
join work immediately after the interview. He was 22 years old as on 4th August, 2001.
41. Subhash Malhotra was 26 years old as on 9th September 2002. He has secured 75 per cent
marks each in graduation, preliminary selection examination and the final selection examination.
He is ready to join work immediately after the interview.
42. Rahul Biswas was born on 21st January, 1977. He is ready to join work immediately after the
interview. He has recurred 70 per cent marks in all the graduation, preliminary and final
selection examination.
43. Sudha Nagpal has secured 75 per cent and 65 per cent marks in graduation and preliminary
selection examination. She is ready to join immediately after interview. She stood third in
the final selection examination. She was born on 2nd July, 1981.
Qs. 44-46: In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the

basis of the information given in the statement, you have to answer everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically
follow(s) for pursuing.
Now read the statement given in each of the following questions and and the two courses of
action given below it. Find out which of the courses of actions logically follows from the given
statement and answer accordingly. Mark answer:
(1) If only course of action I follows
(2) If only course of action II follows
(3) If either I or II follows
(4) If neither I or II follows
(5) If both I or II follow
STATEMENT:
44. The groundwater in the locality has been found to contain high level of arsenic making it
dangerous to drink.
Course of Action:
I. The people living in the area should be shifted to another area to avoid catastrophic situation.
II. The government should make arrangements for supply of safe drinking water.
STATEMENT:
45. A severe storm is likely to hit the city during the next forty eight hours.
Course of Action:
I. The administration should advise all the business and educational establishments to close
down for two days.
II. The administration should activate its disaster management program to tackle any
possible emergency situation.
STATEMENT:
46. As stated in a recent census report the female to male ratio is alarmingly low.
Course of Action:
I. The government should conduct another census to verify the results.
II. The government should immediately issue orders to all the departments to encourage people
to improve the ratio.
Qs. 47-50: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, T, M, J, V, R, W are seven friends studying in a college. Three of them are in B.Sc. and
two each are in B.A. and B.Com. Each of them has a favourite colour from Blue, Red, Yellow,

White, Black, Violet and Brown, not necessarily in the same order. None of them studying in
B.Sc. likes either Red or Black. M is in B.A. and likes Blue. R is in B.Com. and likes Brown. J
is in B.Sc. and likes Yellow. P who does not like Red is in the same discipline of R, and T is in
the same discipline of M. V does not like Violet.
47. Which colour does T like?
(1) Black (2) Blue (3) White (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these
48. Which colour does P like?
(1) Black (2) Violet (3) Red (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these
49. Which of the following group is in B. Sc.?
(1) MVW (2) JPW (3) JVT (4) VPW (5) None of these
50. What is the colour combination of those who are in B.Sc.?
(1) Yellow, Black, Violet (2) Yellow, Brown, Violet (3) Violet, Black, Brown
(4) Yellow, White, Violet (5) None of these.
Directions (Q. Nos.51-55): In questions given below, choose the word opposite in meaning
to the underlined word.
51. Magnanimous
(1) Small (2) selfish (3) naïve (4) generous
52. Counterfeit
(1) Standardized (2) duplicate (3) original (4) discordant
53. Perseverance
(1) Persistence (2) resolution (3) reluctance (4) instability
54. Obsolete
(1) Rare (2) recent (3) useless (4) conducive
55. Morbid
(1) Healthy (2) pleasant (3) frugal (4) chaste
Directions (Q. Nos.56-60): The following questions consist of fragments of a sentence.
The first fragment (1) and the last fragment (6) are in order. The other four fragments are
jumbled up and are designated as P, Q, R and S. Find out the correct sequence of these
from the given alternatives.

56. 1.How man
P. will never be known
Q. learnt to use fire
R. no written records
S. since there are
6. Which go back four lakh years.
(1) QPSR (2) PQSR (3) QSRP (4) SRPQ
57. 1. The photographers
P. annoyed because they
Q. were thoroughly
R. were not allowed
S. to take photos
6. of the blast at the ammunition dump.
(1) SQPR (2) QPSR (3) QPRS (4) SRQP
58. 1. The continually increasing
P. is uncomfortable
Q. amount of noise
R. and what is more important
S. in our cities
6. It can affect our health.
(1) PQRS (2) QSPR (3) QPSR (4) SQRP
59. 1. It is now generally accepted
P. robots will take over
Q. specially jobs
R. that in future
S. many of our tasks
6. of a repetitive nature.
(1) RSPQ (2) SPQR (3) PSRQ (4) RPSQ
60. 1.Vladimir Putin won
P. in power as well as indicating a continuity
Q. in march, consolidating his position
R. in the presidential election
S. a resounding victory
6. in Russia’s domestic and foreign politics.
(1) QRSP (2) SQRP (3) SRQP (4) RSQP
Directions (Q.Nos. 61-65): Read the following passage and answer the questions given after
it.

Every profession on trade, every art, and every science has its technical vocabulary, the
function of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary
English, and partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects, or jargons,
are necessary in technical discussion of any kind. Being universally understood by the devotees
of the particular science or art, they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they
save time, for it is much more economical to name a proves than to describe it. Thousands of
these technical terms are very properly included in every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they
are rather on the outskirts of the English language than actually within its borders.
Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In
trades and handicrafts and other vocations, such as farming and fishing, that have occupied great
numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. It consists largely of
native words, or of borrowed words that have worked themselves into the very fiber of our
language. Hence, though highly technical in many particulars, these vocabularies are more
familiar in sound, and more generally understood, than most other technicalities.
The special dialects of law, medicine, divinity, and philosophy have also, in their older strata,
become pretty familiar to cultivated persons, and have contributed much to the popular
vocabulary. Yet, every vocation still possesses a large body of technical terms that remain
essentially foreign, even to educated speech. And the proportion has been much increased in the
last fifty years, particularly in the various departments of natural and political science and in the
mechanic arts. Here new terms are coined with the greatest freedom and abandoned with
indifference when they have served their turn.
Most of the new coinages are confined to special discussions and seldom get into general
literature or conversation. Yet, no profession is nowadays, as all professions once were, a closed
guild. The lawyer, the physician, the man of science, and the cleric associates freely with his
fellow creatures, and does not meet them in a merely professional way. Furthermore, what is
called popular science makes everybody acquainted with modern views and recent discoveries.
Any important experiment, though made in a remote or provincial laboratory, is at once reported
in the newspapers, and everybody is soon talking about it as in the case of the Roentgen rays and
wireless telegraphy. Thus, our common speech is always taking up new technical terms and
making them commonplace.
61. Which of the following is not an advantage of jargon?
(1) It enables experts to talk to one another. (2) It is more precise than ordinary language.
(3) It economizes money. (4) It enlarges the vocabulary in a dictionary.
62. By saying that professions are no longer ‘closed guilds’, the author means that:
(1) it is easier to become a professional today.
(2) there is more intercourse between professional and others.
(3) popular science has revealed its secrets to the world.
(4) anything can be easily understood by anyone in a profession.

63. If the author desires to study a new field, he would
(1) get in touch with a dictionary expert.
(2) find it an impossible task.
(3) pay attention to the technical vocabulary of that field.
(4) try to learn how to coin new words.
64. The vocabulary of vocations like farming and fishing has got in the “fiber of English
Language” mainly because
(1) It consists of borrowed words.
(2) It consists of native words.
(3) It is used by large number of men.
(4) It is very very old.
65. The passage implies that:
(1) The English language is constantly becoming larger and larger
(2) The words of English language keep changing their meaning
(3) One needs expert guidance to understand the English language
(4) To learn English Language one must learn a particular profession.
Directions (Q.Nos. 66-70): Each of the following questions consists of a sentence in which
four words or phrases are underlined. These are marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4.
Identify the one that is not acceptable in standard written English.
66. Although a doctor may be able to diagnose (1) a problem perfect. (2) he still may not be able
to (3) find a drug to which (4) a patient will respond.
67. For the first time in the history of the country the person, which (1) was recommended (2) by
the President to replace (3) a retiring (4) justice of Supreme Court, is a woman.
68. Despite of (1) the pills which (2) are available in the market, many people still (3) have
trouble sleeping. (4)
69. There are (1) twenty varieties of wild roses all of which have (2) prickly stems, small leaves,
and large flowers which (3) usually smell sweetly (4).
70. Whoever (1) inspected this (2) music system should have put (3) their (4) identification
number on the box.
Directions (Q.Nos.71-75): Fill in the blank in the following sentences by sleeping the appropriate
word from the given choices.
71. To reach the arrangement, each side had to____ by giving up some of its demands.
(1) compliment (2) compensate (3) compromise (4) comply

72. He found the ______of his factory job difficult to bear.
(1) monopoly (2) malpractice (3) magnanimity (4) monotony
73. She is a well known environmentalist. She_______any kind of cruelty to animals.
(1) abhors (2) acquits (3) accedes (4) abides
74. A large number of trees______ themselves by seeds.
(1) promulgate (2) pronounce (3) propagate (4) prostrate
75. One can trace her _____back to King Charles I.
(1) linen (2) lineage (3) lineament (4) lining
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80): For each of the underlined words four alternatives are given.
Choose the word which comes closest in meaning to the given word.
76. Vindictive
(1) triumphant (2) strategic (3) revengeful (4) demonstrative
77. Feign
(1) condemn (2) condone (3) attend (4) pretend
78. Tranquil
(1) disturbed (2) usual (unruffled) (3) calm (4) unquiet
79. Wane
(1) diminish (2) humble (3) pale (4) proud
80. Candid
(1) sweets (2) angry (3) kind (4) honest
81. Name the promoter of the newly launched lifestyle channel ‘Trendz’:
(a) Star Plus (b) Zee Telefilm © Sony (d) Star
82. Name the language which has been included as the 19th language in the VIIIth schedule
of Indian Constitution:
(a) Santhali (b) Bodo © Maithali (d) Awadhi
83. Gegong Apang, the new Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh, is the Leader of newly formed
party. Name the party.
(a) Congress United (b) United Democratic Front © National Democratic Alliance
(d) Arunanchal Democratic Front
84. Name the bank which has started “orange savings account” for its customers:

(a) Andhra bank (b) ING Bank © ING Vysya Bank (d) oriental bank of India
85. Name the chief executive officer of ‘iGATE Global’, a US-based company which has struck
a cash ideal to buy out the GMR group’s 51 per cent stake in Quintant Services, a Bangalore
based company:
(a) Indira Nooyi (b) Rodriges Sarkar © Anil Ambani (d) Phaneesh Murthy
86. Name the organization which has pioneered ‘Traditional Knowledge Digital Library’ (TKDL)
to protect India’s traditional knowledge.
(a) Dhirubhai ambani Group (b) Ministry of Science and Technology © Tata Group
(d) IIM, Lucknow
87. Name the first under-water post office that was recently inaugurated:
(a) Vanuatu (b) Postjal © Jalmdak (d) Archipelopost
88. Felix Baunngartner became the first human to fly across the English Channel without the
benefit of an aircraft. Name the country to which he belongs.
(a) Ireland (b) Australia © Austria (d) Germany
89. Name the brand which is being endorsed by the film star Saif Ali Khan:
(a) Coke (b) Maxima © Raymond (d) Wills
90. Name the company which boasts of the punch line ‘Growth is life’.
(a) Tata Indicom (b) Infosys © The Financial Express (d) The times of India
91. Name the Company which is not associated with recording of music industry:
(a) EMI Group (b) BMG © Universal (d) Sony
92. Name the first hotel to be awarded Greentech Safety Award for 2002-2003:
(a) Hotel Maurya Sheraton (b) Hotel Park Inn © Hotel Hyatt Regency
(d) Hotel Taj Coromandal
93. Name the country with which Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited has formed a fully-owned
subsidiary:
(a) UK (b) USA © Russia (d) Sri Lanka and China
94. Name the book written by American writer Valarie martin, who won the Orange Fiction
Prize of the UK:
(a) Citizen Kane (b) Citizen Soldiers © Property (d) Life of Pi
95. Name the organisation with which Punjab national Bank and the Vijaya Bank have signed an
memorandum of understanding to work jointly in Life Insurance Sector:
(a) Principal Financial Services Inc, USA (b) Federal Financial Services, UK
© Canavo-de Financial Org, France (d) Global Financial Inc, UK

96. Which company owns the brand ‘Ponds’?
(a) HLL (b) Ranbaxy © Sun Cosmetics (d) Pantaloons
97. What does SEZ stand for?
(a) Specific Economic Zones (b) Special Economic Zones
© Supreme Economic Zones (d) Systematic Economic Zones
98. Which company owns brand name ‘Lycra’?
(a) Du Pont (b) JC Penny © Arvind Textiles (d) Madura Garments
99. What does AEPC stand for?
(a) Apparel Economic Production Committee
(b) Apparel Export Production Committee
© Apparel Export Promotion Council
(d) Apparel Economic Procurement Committee
100. Who was the co-founder of Apparel brand Color Plus?
(a) Kailash Bhatia (b) Kishore Biyani © S Kumar (d) Rajat Jain

ANSWERS OF DREAMZ INSTITUTE SAMPLE PAPER OF
GAT- MASTER OF FASHION TECHNOLOGY (MANAGEMENT)
1. (d) 37. (1) 73. (1)
2. (b) 38. (1) 74. (3)
3. (b) 39. (1) 75. (2)
4. (d) 40. (5) 76. (3)
5. (b) 41. (3) 77. (4)
6. © 42. (1) 78. (3)
7. (a) 43. (4) 79. (1)
8. © 44. (2) 80. (4)
9. (a) 45. (5) 81. (b)
10. (d) 46. (2) 82. (b)
11. © 47. (5) 83. (b)
12. © 48. (1) 84. ©
13. (a) 49. (5) 85. (d)
14. © 50. (4) 86. (b)
15. (d) 51. (2) 87. (a)
16. (d) 52. (3) 88. (b)
17. (a) 53. (4) 89. (b)
18. (b) 54. (2) 90. (a)
19. (a) 55. (1) 91. (d)
20. (a) 56. (1) 92. (a)
21. (d) 57. (3) 93. (b)
22. (a) 58. (2) 94. ©
23. © 59. (4) 95. (a)
24. (a) 60. (3) 96. (a)
25. (a) 61. (3) 97. (b)
26. (5) 62. (2) 98. (a)
27. (4) 63. (3) 99. ©
28. (5) 64. (3) 100. (a)
29. (3) 65. (2)
30. (2) 66. (2) ‘perfectly’
31. (4) 67. (1) ‘who’
32. (5) 68. (1) ‘despite’
33. (4) 69. (4) ‘sweet’
34. (5) 70. (4) ‘his’
35. (1) 71. (3)
36. (2) 72. (4)
37. (2)

Contact Details:
National Institute of Fashion Technology
DA IICT Rd,
Infocity,
Gandhinagar,
Gujarat 382421 ‎
India

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  #3  
Old October 10th, 2015, 04:51 PM
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Default Re: Previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT

Can you provide me previous year question paper of Fashion Management course of NIFT (National Institute of Fashion Technology) as I need it for preparation of the exam?
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  #4  
Old October 10th, 2015, 04:53 PM
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Join Date: Dec 2011
Posts: 14,245
Default Re: Previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT

The previous year question paper of Fashion Management course of NIFT (National Institute of Fashion Technology) as you need it for preparation of the exam is as follows:

Previous year question paper for Fashion Management of NIFT
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.




1. Sunit is more talkative than*


2. any boy in the class because*


3. he is not afraid of the teacher*


4. since he is his brother*




Question 2 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. Lawyers these days can practice*


2. civil law, criminal law*


3. or the law of the Constitution*


4. or all of them together*




Question 3 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. She was wearing a wig that was*


2. far more attractive than*


3. the other women who had*


4. their natural hair*




Question 4 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. The only persons in the theatre*


2. on that stormy night*


3. were the staff of the theatre*


4. and me





Question 5 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. After finding the problem*


2. the mechanic cleaned the carburetor*


3. started the engine*


4. and found it working smoothly*




Question 6 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. If one reads the newspaper regularly*


2. you will be surprised at the improvement*


3. in your overall reading skills*


4. from day to day*




Question 7 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. She was as pretty*


2. if not prettier than



3. any other girl who had come*


4. to participate in the meeting





Question 8 of 100*
The average of 6 numbers is 19. The average of 5 of these is 20. What is the sixth number?*



1. 24*


2. 38*


3. 119*


4. 14*




Question 9 of 100*

Two poles of heights 35 m and 20 m stand on a plane surface. If the distance between their feet is 20 m, what is the distance between their tops?




1. 50 m*


2. 25 m*


3. 40 m*


4. 55 m*




Question 10 of 100*
of of of a number is 8. What is the number?*



1. 72*


2. 68*


3. 84*


4. 70*




Question 11 of 100*
If 3x = , x = ?*



1. 3*


2. 9*


3. – 3*


4. ? 9*




Question 12 of 100*

25% of a number is greater than the other number by 5. If sum of the numbers is 70, what is the ratio of the larger number to the smaller number?




1. 6 : 1*


2. 3 : 1*


3. 5 : 1*


4. 4 : 1*





Question 13 of 100*

The third proportional of (X2 – Y2) and (x – y) is ________.




1.*


2.*


3. (x + y)2*


4. x3 ? y3*




Question 14 of 100*
A sum of Rs. 1560 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C in the proportion of : : . What is the share of A?*



1. Rs.780*


2. Rs.640*


3. Rs.720*


4. Rs.840*




Question 15 of 100*
Which of the following is the smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves the remainders as 12, 17, 27 and 32 respectively?*



1. 1200*


2. 1400*


3. 1408*


4. 1392*




Question 16 of 100*

The floor of the rectangular room of size 10 m (length) x 8.5 m (width) x 8.5 m (height) is to be carpeted so as to leave a margin of 1.25 m from all sides. What would be the area of the carpet required?




1. 45 sq.m.*


2. 40 sq.m*


3. 60 sq.m*


4. 90 sq.m*




Question 17 of 100*

6 examiners working 5 hours a day can check 750 answer books in 8 days. At the same rate of checking, in what period of time can 4 examiners examine 800 answer books, working 8 hours a day?




1. 4 days*


2. 8 days*


3. 9 days*


4. 12 days*




Question 18 of 100*

Two railway stations A and B are 300 km apart. In what time will two trains, starting from the opposite ends and travelling towards each other with equal speeds, meet each other?




1. 4 hrs*


2. 1 hr.*


3. 2 hrs*


4. Cannot be determined*




Question 19 of 100*
A sailor travels in a boat 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns back to the same point in 1 hour. What is the speed of the boat in still water?*



1. 6 kmph*


2. 12 kmph*


3. 9 kmph*


4. 10 kmph*




Question 20 of 100*

The average age of a couple was 26 years at the time of their marriage. After 11 years of marriage, the
average age of the family with 3 children becomes 19 years. What is the average age of the children?*



1. 8yrs*


2. 6 yrs*


3. 7 yrs*


4. 11 yrs*




Question 21 of 100*
Milk and water are mixed in the ratio 4 : 1 to form solution A and in the ratio of 3 : 2 to form solution B. A man takes equal quantities of solutions A and B and mixes them together. What is the ratio of quantities of milk to that of water in the mixture so formed ?*



1. 7 : 3*


2. 1 : 1*


3. 3 : 7*


4. 3 : 2*




Question 22 of 100*
What is the ratio of side of a square to the radius of a circle, both with equal perimeters?*



1. 1 : II*


2. 2 : II*


3. II : 1*


4. II : 2*




Question 23 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. There is only the plantain*


2. and one apple in the refrigerator*


3. so let us go to the market*


4. and buy some more fruits*




Question 24 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. Like his brother who did not wear his helmet*


2. and was injured in the accident*


3. Rajan was always careful*


4. and wore his helmet without fail*




Question 25 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. It is futile to discuss this further*


2. since neither him nor you*


3. is going to agree*


4. with the other on this issue*




Question 26 of 100*

Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).*







I have seen (A) as bed or worse scenes of (B) disorder at the English fair (C) than in (D) any other fair.*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*




Question 27 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).*
This is the third (A) communication we have (B) sent and(C) we are very surprised that we have received (D) no answer*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*




Question 28 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).
The officers are (A) now (B) perfectly happy fishing, boating, shooting, (C) playing cricket and (D) other sport.*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*




Question 29 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).


While in conversation(A) with a high ranking military officer (B) he told me that (C) at the head-quarters*
nothing (D) was known*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*




Question 30 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D)

(A) The fear of an (B) impending invasion has more to do (C) than even the debasing of the coinage with the (D) financial difficulties*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*




Question 31 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
The patient was cheered --- by the news that she was likely to be discharged in a day or two.*



1. on*


2. up*


3. out*


4. down*




Question 32 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
The thieves had driven ten miles before the police caught – them*



1. on with*


2. upon*


3. up to*


4. up with*




Question 33 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
As soon as the visitors dishonest purpose was discovered, he was --- the door*



1. show with*


2. shown to*


3. shown*


4. shown out of*




Question 34 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
As soon as my attention was --- the dangerous state of the staircase, I got it repaired.*



1. drawn for*


2. drawn upon*


3. drawn near*


4. drawn to





Question 35 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence.
---- pompous, he was an entertaining companion*



1. Before*


2. Never*


3. Though*


4. Despite





Question 36 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
Esteem*



1. veneration*


2. revere*


3. mighty*


4. disdain





Question 37 of 100*

Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
Eternal*



1. permanent*


2. perpetual*


3. transitory*


4. active*




Question 38 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word


Eulogistic




1. pretty*


2. critical*


3. brief*


4. stern*




Question 39 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word
Euphonious*



1. strident*


2. lethargic*


3. literary*


4. significant*


Question 40 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word
Evitable*



1. unavoidable*


2. eatable*


3. half-baked*


4. crisp*
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