Model question papers of Manipal medical entrance exam - 2017-2018 StudyChaCha

Go Back   2017-2018 StudyChaCha > StudyChaCha Discussion Forum > General Topics




  #1  
Old April 30th, 2014, 06:52 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Model question papers of Manipal medical entrance exam

Can you please give me the Manipal Pre Medical Test previous year question papers as it is very urgent for me?
Reply With Quote
  #2  
Old May 1st, 2014, 06:42 PM
Sashwat's Avatar
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Jun 2011
Posts: 35,928
Default Re: Model question papers of Manipal medical entrance exam

As you want to get the Manipal Pre Medical Test previous year question papers so here is the information of the same for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:






For more detailed information I am uploading a PDF files which are free to download:

Contact Details:
Manipal Institute Of Technology
Manipal Dr, Eshwar Nagar,
Manipal,
Karnataka 576104 ‎
India

Map Location:
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
Reply With Quote
Sponsored Links






















  #3  
Old January 25th, 2015, 10:29 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Posts: 31,703
Default Re: Model question papers of Manipal medical entrance exam

As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the Manipal medical entrance exam.

Paper detail:
Paper : Chemistry
Solved paper.

Questions: 100

1. The final product of the reaction HC = CH + 2HCI →→→will be :
(1) CH2CI-CH2CI (2) CH2=CHCI
(3) CH3CHCI2 (4) CHCI=CHC
2. Which of the following is amphoteric :
(1) GeO2 (2) CO2
(3) PbO2 (4) All same
3. CH3COOC5H11 is obtained by :
(1) C5H11OH + CH3COOH
(2) C5H11CH2OH = HCOOH
(3) C2H5OH = C5H11OH
(4) (CH3)3 ĖC-COOH = C5H11OH
4. 5 amp. current is passes through a dry cell for 2 hours. The value of produced electric
current will be :
(1) 36 x 108 C (2) 3.6 x 108 C
(3) 36 x 104 C (4) 3.6 x 104 C
5. Which of the following statement is false for tranis-1, 2-dichloro ethane :
(1) chlorine atoms are nearer to each other
(2) total nos of bonds are six
(3) free rotation of C=C is possible
(4) none of these
6. Orthouitropnenol is a A;
(1) Lewis base (2) Lewis acid
(3) 1 and 2 (4) nither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the following shows cistrans isomerism :
(1) CH3-C-Br=C-C12
(2) CH3-CH=Ch2
(3) C1-CH=CH-CH3
(4) (CH3)2-C=CH-C1
8. Glycine works in a reaction as :
(1) Acid (2) Base (3) both 1 and 2 (4) none of these
9. The true statement for 2-chlrobutane and 3- chlrobutane is :
(1) First is more reactive than second
(2) Second is more reactive than first
(3) Chlorine atom in both are of different type
(4) One name is wrong, both are same
10. The magnetic moment of an ion having 4 unpaired electrons is :
(1) 3.9 B.M. (2) 2.8 B.M. (3) 1.7 B.M. (4) 4.9 B.M.
11. O-F bond in OF2 compound is formed by the overlapping of following orbitals :
(1) sp2-2p (2) sp3-2p (3) sp3-2s (4) sp-2p
12. The structure of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is :
(1) square planner (2) angular (3) linear (4) tetrahedral
13. The no. of structural isomers of heptane is :
(1) equal to pentane (2) less than hexane
(3) more than pentane (4) less than pentane
14. Which of the following hydroxide is soluble in NH4OH :
(1) Sb(OH)3 (2) Bi(OH)3 (3) Fe(OH)3 (4) none of above
15. Which of the following differs from others :
(1) Pd (2) CO (3) Ni (4) Rb
16. The structure of phorone is :
(1) (CH3)2C(OH)C13
(2) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH=C(CH3)2
(3) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH3
(4) none of above
17. Which of the following is strongest electrolyte :
(1) C12H12O11
(2) H2O
(3) CH3COOH
(4) HI
18. Which of the following statement is true :
(1) O2
2- is diamagnetic
(2) O2
+ is paramagnetic
(3) No is diamagnetic
(4) He2
+ is less stable than He2
19. For which of the following elements the quantum nos are 3, 2, 0, + Ĺ :
(1) K (2) CO (3) Ne (4) C1
20. The coordination nos. of Na+ and C1- in NaCI are respectively :
(1) 6, 6 (2) 4, 6 (3) 6, 8 (4) 8, 8
21. In comparision of Cu and Ag :
(1) Cu is easily oxidized in comparision with Ag.
(2) Ag is easily oxidized in comparision with Cu
(3) Both oxidizes simultaneously
(4) Do not oxidizes
22. Molarity of 200 ml. of 18.25 N NaOH will be :
(1) 32.5 M (2) 91.25 M (3) 2.28 M (4) 22.8 M
23. In Haberís process if temperature is increased :
(1) Reaction stops
(2) There is no effect
(3) Yield of NH3 decreases
(4) Yield of NH3 increases
24. Empirical formula of alkane, alkene and alkyne is :
(1) equal to cyclopean
(2) equal to each other
(3) all are different
(4) none of these
25. CF2C12 is used as :
(1) Anaesthic (2) Polymer (3) Refrigerant (4) Antipyretic
26. The weight of carbon atom is :
(1) 1.9 x 10-23 (2) 12 gm (3) 6 gm (4) 6.02 gm. X 1023 gm.
27. The pH of 10-8 M HCI is :
(1) less than 7 (2) less than 6 (3) 8 (4) 7
28. Which of the following statement is true :
(1) C6H6 does not show resonance
(2) CO2does not show resonance
(3) Both do not show resonance
(4) CO2and C6H6 show resonating structures
29. In which of the following compound >C=0 group is not present :
(1) Alkane (2) Aldehyde (3) Acids (4) Ketone
30. The mole fraction of acetone in a solution of 2.8 mole acetone and 8.2 mole of CHC13 will be :
(1) 0.540 (2) 0.241 (3) 0.254 (4) 0.524
31. Which of the following element has high ionization potential :
(1) Ne (2) Be (3) Li (4) O
32. Which of the following has highest boiling point :
(1) HI (2) HC1 (3) HF (4) HBr
33. The dry ice is :
(1) Solid H2O (2) Solid CO2 (3) Solid & Dry H2O (4) none of above

34. For the reaction 2A ←C + D the value of equilibrium constant is 1 x 10-3 . If [C] = 1.2 x 10-3 M,
[D] = 3.8 x 10-6 M the value of [A] will be :
(1) 5.2 x 10-6 M (2) 3.6 x 10-9 M
(3) 2.1 x 10-3 M (4) 4.8 x 10-12 M
35. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule :
(1) PCI3 (2) SF6 (3) SO2 (4) OF2
36. Mustard gas is found from :
(1) C2H4 & H2SO4 (2) C2H4 & H2S
(3) C2H4 & S2C12 (4) C2H4 & CH3SH
37. The most reactive metal is :
(1) Li (2) Au (3) F (4) Pt
38. Which of the following has highest melting point :
(1) C4H10 (2) C3H8 (3) C2H6 (4) CH4
39. Which of the following is not a metal :
(1) Au (2) Hg (3) Ag (4) none of these
40. In which of the following there is strong bond :
(1) C=C (2) C-C (3) C≡C (4) all same
41. The shape and size of 2p, 3p, 4p and 5p orbital are :
(1) only equal in d block
(2) equal in s block and different in p block
(3) different
(4) equal
42. Malachite is a ore of :
(1) Cu (2) Au (3) Ag (4) Mg
43. If the ionization constant of CH3COOH is 1.8 x 105, the degree of ionization of 0.01 M
CH3COOh will be :
(1) 1.8 x 10-7 (2) 1.8 (3) 4.2 x 10-2 (4) 42.4 x 10-5
44. If the price of Nac1 sugar are 2 and 14 rupees per kg. then the price of 1 mole NaC1 and 1
mole sugar will be :
(1) 7 Rs. (2) different (3) equal (4) 28 Rs.
45. In which of the following there are minimum nos. of molecule :
(1) 2 gm. H2 (2) 8 gm. O2 (3) 16 gm. CO2 (4) 4 gm. N2
46. In which of the following central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals :
(1) SbH3 (2) NH3 (3) PH3 (4) +CH3
47. Which of the following is paramagnetic :
(1) C (2) CN- (3) O2
- (4) NO+
48. Present atomic weight scale depends upon :
(1) C1-35.5 (2) O-16 (3) C-12 (4) H-1
49. C3H8 on combustion gives CO2 and H2O. The required volume of O2 will be :
(1) 5 times of C3H8 (2) three times (3) 2 times (4) 2.5 times
50. The oxidation state of B in KBF4 is :
(1) -3 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4
51. The electronic configuration of strong electronegative element is :
(1) ns2np6 (2) ns2np4 (3) ns2np3 (4) ns2np5
52. The IUPAC name of CO2O3 is :
(1) Cobalt (III) oxide (2) Cobalt (II) oxide
(3) Cobaltans oxide (4) Cobalt oxide
53. The most light weight inert gas is :
(1) Ar (2) Ne (3) He (4) Kr
54. Which of the following element forms cation easily :
(1) Sr (2) Ne (3) Li (4) Mg
55. Which of the following is the strongest ionic compound :
(1) LiC1 (2) HC1 (3) CsC1 (4) CH3C1
56. Which of the following does not forms bond :
(1) s-s (2) p-d (3) p-p (4) d-d
57. CO is isoelectronic of :
(1) N2
+ (2) O2
+ (3) CN- (4) O2
-
58. All s-orbitals have :
(1) n ≠0, ≠0 (2) = 0 (3) n = 0 (4) n = 0, = 0
59. The dipole moment of BF3 is zero. Which of the following 6 bond orbitals are used by B :
(1) sp2 (2) sp (3) sp3 (4) none of these
60. Which of the following have acidic hydrogen :
(1) C2H4 (2) C2H2 (3) C2H6 (4) None of these



Here is the attachment of the paper.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf Manipal medical entrance exam sample paper.pdf (279.0 KB, 71 views)
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
Reply With Quote
  #4  
Old April 17th, 2015, 01:47 PM
Junior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2015
Posts: 1
Default Re: Model question papers of Manipal medical entrance exam

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nilesh View Post
As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the Manipal medical entrance exam.

Paper detail:
Paper : Chemistry
Solved paper.

Questions: 100

1. The final product of the reaction HC = CH + 2HCI →→→will be :
(1) CH2CI-CH2CI (2) CH2=CHCI
(3) CH3CHCI2 (4) CHCI=CHC
2. Which of the following is amphoteric :
(1) GeO2 (2) CO2
(3) PbO2 (4) All same
3. CH3COOC5H11 is obtained by :
(1) C5H11OH + CH3COOH
(2) C5H11CH2OH = HCOOH
(3) C2H5OH = C5H11OH
(4) (CH3)3 ĖC-COOH = C5H11OH
4. 5 amp. current is passes through a dry cell for 2 hours. The value of produced electric
current will be :
(1) 36 x 108 C (2) 3.6 x 108 C
(3) 36 x 104 C (4) 3.6 x 104 C
5. Which of the following statement is false for tranis-1, 2-dichloro ethane :
(1) chlorine atoms are nearer to each other
(2) total nos of bonds are six
(3) free rotation of C=C is possible
(4) none of these
6. Orthouitropnenol is a A;
(1) Lewis base (2) Lewis acid
(3) 1 and 2 (4) nither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the following shows cistrans isomerism :
(1) CH3-C-Br=C-C12
(2) CH3-CH=Ch2
(3) C1-CH=CH-CH3
(4) (CH3)2-C=CH-C1
8. Glycine works in a reaction as :
(1) Acid (2) Base (3) both 1 and 2 (4) none of these
9. The true statement for 2-chlrobutane and 3- chlrobutane is :
(1) First is more reactive than second
(2) Second is more reactive than first
(3) Chlorine atom in both are of different type
(4) One name is wrong, both are same
10. The magnetic moment of an ion having 4 unpaired electrons is :
(1) 3.9 B.M. (2) 2.8 B.M. (3) 1.7 B.M. (4) 4.9 B.M.
11. O-F bond in OF2 compound is formed by the overlapping of following orbitals :
(1) sp2-2p (2) sp3-2p (3) sp3-2s (4) sp-2p
12. The structure of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is :
(1) square planner (2) angular (3) linear (4) tetrahedral
13. The no. of structural isomers of heptane is :
(1) equal to pentane (2) less than hexane
(3) more than pentane (4) less than pentane
14. Which of the following hydroxide is soluble in NH4OH :
(1) Sb(OH)3 (2) Bi(OH)3 (3) Fe(OH)3 (4) none of above
15. Which of the following differs from others :
(1) Pd (2) CO (3) Ni (4) Rb
16. The structure of phorone is :
(1) (CH3)2C(OH)C13
(2) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH=C(CH3)2
(3) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH3
(4) none of above
17. Which of the following is strongest electrolyte :
(1) C12H12O11
(2) H2O
(3) CH3COOH
(4) HI
18. Which of the following statement is true :
(1) O2
2- is diamagnetic
(2) O2
+ is paramagnetic
(3) No is diamagnetic
(4) He2
+ is less stable than He2
19. For which of the following elements the quantum nos are 3, 2, 0, + Ĺ :
(1) K (2) CO (3) Ne (4) C1
20. The coordination nos. of Na+ and C1- in NaCI are respectively :
(1) 6, 6 (2) 4, 6 (3) 6, 8 (4) 8, 8
21. In comparision of Cu and Ag :
(1) Cu is easily oxidized in comparision with Ag.
(2) Ag is easily oxidized in comparision with Cu
(3) Both oxidizes simultaneously
(4) Do not oxidizes
22. Molarity of 200 ml. of 18.25 N NaOH will be :
(1) 32.5 M (2) 91.25 M (3) 2.28 M (4) 22.8 M
23. In Haberís process if temperature is increased :
(1) Reaction stops
(2) There is no effect
(3) Yield of NH3 decreases
(4) Yield of NH3 increases
24. Empirical formula of alkane, alkene and alkyne is :
(1) equal to cyclopean
(2) equal to each other
(3) all are different
(4) none of these
25. CF2C12 is used as :
(1) Anaesthic (2) Polymer (3) Refrigerant (4) Antipyretic
26. The weight of carbon atom is :
(1) 1.9 x 10-23 (2) 12 gm (3) 6 gm (4) 6.02 gm. X 1023 gm.
27. The pH of 10-8 M HCI is :
(1) less than 7 (2) less than 6 (3) 8 (4) 7
28. Which of the following statement is true :
(1) C6H6 does not show resonance
(2) CO2does not show resonance
(3) Both do not show resonance
(4) CO2and C6H6 show resonating structures
29. In which of the following compound >C=0 group is not present :
(1) Alkane (2) Aldehyde (3) Acids (4) Ketone
30. The mole fraction of acetone in a solution of 2.8 mole acetone and 8.2 mole of CHC13 will be :
(1) 0.540 (2) 0.241 (3) 0.254 (4) 0.524
31. Which of the following element has high ionization potential :
(1) Ne (2) Be (3) Li (4) O
32. Which of the following has highest boiling point :
(1) HI (2) HC1 (3) HF (4) HBr
33. The dry ice is :
(1) Solid H2O (2) Solid CO2 (3) Solid & Dry H2O (4) none of above

34. For the reaction 2A ←C + D the value of equilibrium constant is 1 x 10-3 . If [C] = 1.2 x 10-3 M,
[D] = 3.8 x 10-6 M the value of [A] will be :
(1) 5.2 x 10-6 M (2) 3.6 x 10-9 M
(3) 2.1 x 10-3 M (4) 4.8 x 10-12 M
35. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule :
(1) PCI3 (2) SF6 (3) SO2 (4) OF2
36. Mustard gas is found from :
(1) C2H4 & H2SO4 (2) C2H4 & H2S
(3) C2H4 & S2C12 (4) C2H4 & CH3SH
37. The most reactive metal is :
(1) Li (2) Au (3) F (4) Pt
38. Which of the following has highest melting point :
(1) C4H10 (2) C3H8 (3) C2H6 (4) CH4
39. Which of the following is not a metal :
(1) Au (2) Hg (3) Ag (4) none of these
40. In which of the following there is strong bond :
(1) C=C (2) C-C (3) C≡C (4) all same
41. The shape and size of 2p, 3p, 4p and 5p orbital are :
(1) only equal in d block
(2) equal in s block and different in p block
(3) different
(4) equal
42. Malachite is a ore of :
(1) Cu (2) Au (3) Ag (4) Mg
43. If the ionization constant of CH3COOH is 1.8 x 105, the degree of ionization of 0.01 M
CH3COOh will be :
(1) 1.8 x 10-7 (2) 1.8 (3) 4.2 x 10-2 (4) 42.4 x 10-5
44. If the price of Nac1 sugar are 2 and 14 rupees per kg. then the price of 1 mole NaC1 and 1
mole sugar will be :
(1) 7 Rs. (2) different (3) equal (4) 28 Rs.
45. In which of the following there are minimum nos. of molecule :
(1) 2 gm. H2 (2) 8 gm. O2 (3) 16 gm. CO2 (4) 4 gm. N2
46. In which of the following central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals :
(1) SbH3 (2) NH3 (3) PH3 (4) +CH3
47. Which of the following is paramagnetic :
(1) C (2) CN- (3) O2
- (4) NO+
48. Present atomic weight scale depends upon :
(1) C1-35.5 (2) O-16 (3) C-12 (4) H-1
49. C3H8 on combustion gives CO2 and H2O. The required volume of O2 will be :
(1) 5 times of C3H8 (2) three times (3) 2 times (4) 2.5 times
50. The oxidation state of B in KBF4 is :
(1) -3 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4
51. The electronic configuration of strong electronegative element is :
(1) ns2np6 (2) ns2np4 (3) ns2np3 (4) ns2np5
52. The IUPAC name of CO2O3 is :
(1) Cobalt (III) oxide (2) Cobalt (II) oxide
(3) Cobaltans oxide (4) Cobalt oxide
53. The most light weight inert gas is :
(1) Ar (2) Ne (3) He (4) Kr
54. Which of the following element forms cation easily :
(1) Sr (2) Ne (3) Li (4) Mg
55. Which of the following is the strongest ionic compound :
(1) LiC1 (2) HC1 (3) CsC1 (4) CH3C1
56. Which of the following does not forms bond :
(1) s-s (2) p-d (3) p-p (4) d-d
57. CO is isoelectronic of :
(1) N2
+ (2) O2
+ (3) CN- (4) O2
-
58. All s-orbitals have :
(1) n ≠0, ≠0 (2) = 0 (3) n = 0 (4) n = 0, = 0
59. The dipole moment of BF3 is zero. Which of the following 6 bond orbitals are used by B :
(1) sp2 (2) sp (3) sp3 (4) none of these
60. Which of the following have acidic hydrogen :
(1) C2H4 (2) C2H2 (3) C2H6 (4) None of these



Here is the attachment of the paper.
Thanks for attachment . Can you please give me the Manipal Pre Medical Test 2011 & 2012 question papers as it is very urgent for me?
Reply With Quote
Other Discussions related to this topic
Thread
Model question papers of MSc mathematics entrance exam
PH.D entrance exam in computer science and engineering Model question papers
Sikkim Manipal University Distance Learning MBA Model Question Papers
Previous year question papers of Dental PG entrance exam of Manipal Academy of Higher
West Bengal Medical Entrance Exam previous year question papers in PDF format
AIIMS PG Medical Entrance Exam Solved Question Papers
Question papers for CMC Vellore Medical entrance exam
model question papers for M.Sc Nursing entrance exam?
Loyola College Entrance Exam Model Question Papers
MCA Entrance Exam Model question papers
Previous year question papers of AIIMS PG medical entrance exam
Manipal Medical Entrance Exam Syllabus
IMU Chennai Nautical Science Entrance Exam Model question papers
Previous year question papers of Kerala medical entrance exam
Where to get Papers for Manipal Medical Entrance Exam
NIFT Entrance Exam Model Question Papers
MBA Entrance Exam Model Question Papers
Manipal University PG Medical Entrance Exam
Manipal University PG Medical Entrance Exam for
MPSC Maharashtra Medical Officer Exam Model Question Papers






Have a Facebook Account? Ask your Question Here



Reply


Forum Jump


All times are GMT +6.5. The time now is 06:30 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.7
Copyright ©2000 - 2017, vBulletin Solutions, Inc.
Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9