Question papers for IBPS clerk exam - 2018-2019 StudyChaCha

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Old April 28th, 2014, 01:38 PM
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Default Question papers for IBPS clerk exam

I want to give the exam of IBPS clerk exam so to give my preparation the final touch I need to get the previous year question papers so can you provide me that?
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Old April 29th, 2014, 04:58 PM
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Default Re: Question papers for IBPS clerk exam

As you want to get the previous year question papers of exam of IBPS clerk exam so here is the information of the same for you:

IBPS Common Written Exam Clerk, Sitting -1
Test -1: Reasoning Ability
1. The positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits
within the number are written in ascending order from left to right?
l)One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
2. In a certain code, 'BUILD'is written as '5#31@' and 'LIKES' is written as '13©*8'. How is
'SKID' written in that code?
1)8©*@ 2)8@3© 3) 8©3@ 4) 83©@ 5) None of these
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'DAREDEVIL' each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (In both forward
and backward directions)
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the
seventh and the eighth letter of the word STEADFAST, which of the following will be the
second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer and if more
than one such word can be formed, give 'Y' as the answer.
1)E 2) A 3)T 4)X 5)Y
5. In a certain code, 'TASK' is written as 'BUJR' and 'BIND' is written as 'JCCM'. How is 'SUIT'
written in that code?
1) VTSH 2)VSTH 3)TRUJ 4)TRJU 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following questions, the symbols S, *, $, @ and © are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q' means 'Pis neither smaller nor greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is either smaller or equal to Q'.
'P * Q' means 'P is smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller nor equal to Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find
which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true? Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
6. Statements: W$F, F δ R, R*M
Conclusions: I.R *W II.R$W
7. Statements: V δ T, T @ N, N$J
Conclusions: I.J*T II.N*V
8. Statements: K©R, R8M, M*F
Conclusions: I. F @ R II. K * M
9. Statements: B@J, J * H , H © N
Conclusions: I. N @ J II.N @ B
10. Statements: T*K, K©M, M8D
Conclusions: I.D_ K II.M@T
Directions (Q.11-15): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully
and answer the questions given below:
R4$ME7T#A2J@UK9PI%18QW35Z5*N 6F©VG
11. Which of the following should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series
based on the elements in the above arrangement?
M$7 A# J KUP ?
1)1%W 2 ) 1IQ 3 ) 1IW 4) 1 %Q 5) None of these
12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
13. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a letter?
l)None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
14. If the positions of twenty five elements from the right end are reversed, which of the
following will be the sixteenth element from the left end?
1)Z 2)P 3) W 4) Q 5) None of these
15. Which of the following is eighth to the left of the twenty- third clement from the left end of
the above arrangement?
1)9 2)1 3)$ 4)© 5) None of these

Directions (Q.16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
P, Q, A, B, D, R and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. R is not second to the
left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B. A is third to the right of F. B is second to the
left of F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of either B or F.
16. Who is second to the right of P?
1)R 2)Q 3)D 4) A 5) Data inadequate
17. Who is on the immediate left of F?
1)R 2)P 3)D 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
18. Who is on the immediate right of D?
1) Q 2) A 3) F 4)P 5) None of these
19. What is D's position with respect to B? -
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Second to the left
4) Fourth to the right 5) Third to the right
20. Who is on the immediate right of Q?
1)D 2)R 3) A 4)B 5) None of these

Directions(Q.21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
21. Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each of a different age, is definitely the youngest?
I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.
22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?
I. Q walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a
left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.
II. Q walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres. Then he took
a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.
23. How is 'always' written in a code language?
I. 'rain is always good' is written as '5397' in that code language.
II. 'he is always there' is written as '3 6 8 5' in that code language.
24. How is M related to D?
I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D's brother is the son of M's wife.

25. On which date of April is definitely Pravin's mother's birthday?
I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is after fourteenth but before
nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin's sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is after sixteenth but
before twenty-first of April.
Directions (Q.26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation. The
candidate must
1) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 1.12.2011.
2) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks.
3) have completed postgraduate degree/diploma in Management with specialisation in
Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
4) have post-qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing
Manager in an organisation.
In the case of a candidate who fulfils all the conditions except
a) (ii) above, but has scored at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in postgraduate
degree/diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management, his/her
case is to be referred to the Head-Marketing.
b) (i) above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of eight years as
Assistant Marketing Manager, his/her case is to be referred to the Managing Director.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the
following courses of action based on the conditions and sub-conditions given above and the
information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your
answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each
question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.12.2011. Give answer
1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
3) if the candidate is to be selected.
4) if the case is to be referred to the Head-Marketing.
5) if the case is to be referred to the Managing Director. Now, read the information provided
in each question and mark your answer accordingly.
26. Megha Gosavi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing
Manager in an organisation for the past six years after completing her postgraduate degree
in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management With 70% marks. She has
scored 53% marks in B. Com.
27. Mihir Sengupta was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing
Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his postgraduate
diploma in Marketing Management with 60% marks. He has scored 54% marks in
graduation.
28. Arup Pathak has scored 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant
Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his
postgraduate diploma in Management with
specialisation in Marketing Management. He was born on 15 th February 1981.
29. Manish Agrawal was born on 2nd January 1978. He has scored 58% marks in B. Sc and 65%
marks in postgraduate degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant
Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past six years after completing his
postgraduation.
30. Nilima Patkar has scored 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant
Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her
postgraduate degree in Marketing Management with 65% marks. She was born on 18th
August 1972.
Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W study in Std IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these standards.
Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and
pink, not necessarily in the same order.
Q likes yellow and does not study in Std VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Std
as T. R likes blue and studies in the same Standard as W. S studies in Std V only with the
one who likes pink. W does not study either in Std V or VI. V does not like black. W does
not like either green or white. S does not like green. T does not like pink.
31. Who likes white?
1)P 2) W 3)S 4)V 5) None of these
32. Which of the following combinations is correct?
1)P Black V 2) S-White-IV 3)Q-Red-IV 4) R Blue-IV
5) All are correct
33. What is P's favourite colour?
l)Red 2) Black 3) White 4) Either Black or White
5) None of these
34. Which of the following students study in Std IV?
1)QR 2) QW 3)QRS 4)QRW 5) None of these
35. Who likes red?
1)W 2)S 3)P 4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each question below are given two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the
statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either I or II follows.
4) if neither I nor II follows.
5) if both I and II follow.
36. Statements: All cards are sheets.
All files are cards,
Conclusions: I. All cards are files.
II. All files are sheets.
37. Statements: Some questions are answers.
All questions are issues.
Conclusions: I. At least some answers are issues.
II. Some answers are definitely not questions.
38. Statements: All roads are streets.
No road is a highway.
Conclusions: I. No highway is street.
II. All streets are roads.
39. Statements: No book is a library.
Some books are diaries.
Conclusions: I. At least some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is a library.
40. Statements: No pin is a clip. All pins are fans.
Conclusions: I. All fans are pins.
II. No clip is a fan.
Directions (Q. 41-50):In each of the questions given below, which of the five answer figures
on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were
continued?

Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q, 51-65): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based
on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
India's manufacturing growth fell to its lowest in more than two years in September 2011,
reinforcing fears that an extended period of high policy rates is hurting growth, according to
a closely vatched index.
The HSBC India Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI), based on a survey of over 500
companies, fell to 50.4 from 52.6 in August and 53.6 in July. It was the lowest since March
2009, when the reading was below 50, indicating contraction. September's index also
recorded the biggest one-month fall since November 2008.
The sub-index for new orders, which reflects future output, declined for the sixth successive
month, while export orders fell for a third month on the back of weakness in global
economy.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) last week indicated it was not done yet with monetary
policy tightening as inflation was still high. The bank has already raised rates 12 times since
March 2010 to tame inflation, which is at a 13-month high of 9.78%.
Economists expect the RBI to raise rates one more time but warn that targeted growth will be
hard to achieve if the slump continues. "This (fall in PMI) was driven by weaker orders, with
export orders still contracting due to the weaker global economic conditions," HSBC said in
a press release quoting its chief economist for India & ASEAN.
PMI is considered a fairly good indicator of manufacturing activity the world over, but in the
case of India, the large contribution of the unorganised sector yields a low correlation with
industrial growth.
However, the Index for Industrial Production (IIP) has been showing a weakening tend,
having slipped to a 21- month low of 3.3% in July. The core sector, which consists of eight
infrastructure industries and has a combined weight of 37.9% in the IIP, also grew at only
3.5% in August.
The PMI data is in line with the suffering manufacturing activity in India as per other
estimates. Producers are seeing that demand conditions are softening and the outlook is
uncertain, therefore they are producing less.
Employment in the manufacturing sector declined for the second consecutive month,
indicating it too was under pressure. This could be attributed to lower requirement of staff
and rise in resignations as higher wage requests go unfulfilled, the HSBC statement said.
On the inflation front, input prices rose at an 11-month low rate, but despite signs of
softening, they still remain at historically high levels.
While decelerating slightly, the readings for input and output prices suggest that inflation
pressures remain firmly in place.
Most economists feel the RBI is close to the end of its rate hike cycle. Even the weekly
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) estimates have started showing signs of softening, having
fallen more than one percentage point.
51. The PMI is based on surveys of
1) Individual Consumers 2) Companies 3) Countries
4) Economists 5) Banks
52. Which year did PMI record the biggest one-month fall since 2008?
1)2008 2)2009 3)2010
4)2011 5) None of these
53. Which of the following explains the phrase, as used in the passage, "it was not done yet"?
1) It is over now 2) There is no hope 3) There is still hope
4) Rates will be further raised 5) PMI will further fall
54. Which of the following is indicated by the sub-index for new orders?
1) Export orders 2) WPI 3) Inflation
4) Output price 5) Future output
55. How many companies are included in PMI data from India?
1) About 100 2) Less than 10 3) Between 100 to 300
4) More than 500 5) More than 10,000

56. Which of the following is the prediction of economists about RBI's rate hike cycle, as per
the passage?
1) There will not be many rate hikes
2) The rate reduction cycle will start soon.
3) There will be many more rate hikes.
4) Not indicated in the passage.
5) None of these
57. Which of the following is not true about PMI data in India?
1) It reflects decline in manufacturing.
2) In September 2011, PMI was 50.4.
3) Reduction is export orders affected PMI.
4) Other related estimates support PMI data.
5) PMI data is reported once in 3 months.
58. PMI is used
1) Only in India
2) World over
3) Only in ASEAN countries
4) Only in developed countries
5) Only in developing countries
59. Which of the following is indicated as one of the reasons for the fall in PMI?
1) Less number of orders were placed.
2) Unorganised sector failed to give the required results.
3) Industrial unrest reduced manufacturing.
4) RBI has stopped raising the rates.
5) WPI has shown signs of softening.
60. Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
1) India's manufacturing growth was the lowest in 2010.
2) PMI is not affected by high policy rates.
3) Employment in manufacturing sector was also affected adversely.
4) The input prices were lowest in 2011 as compared to earlier years.
5) HP was 37.9% in August.
Directions (Q. 61-63): Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning to the
word printed in hold, as used in the passage.
61. yields
1) relents 2) submits 3) produces 4) reduces 5) withstands
62. tame
1) increase 2) timid 3) study 4) control 5) understand
63. still
1) silent 2) now as before 3) nevertheless 4) quiet 5) in spite of


Directions (Q. 64-65): Choose the word(s) which is most opposite in meaning of the word
printed in bold, as used in the passage.
64. reinforcing
1) contradicting 2) wishing 3) jolting 4) forcing 5) re-inventing
65. slump
1) output 2) rise 3) slide 4) slack 5) input
Directions (Q. 66-70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold
type is given. These are numbered as 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these four words printed in
bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out
the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your
answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the
context of the sentence, mark 5) ie, 'All Correct', as your answer.
66. Another advantage is that technology can be quickly
1) 2) 3)
adapted to the client's needs. All correct
4) 5)
67. It freed me to enter one of the most creatively periods of
1) 2) 3) 4)
my life. Ail correct
5)
68. About 4,500 private and 2000 government hospitols are
1) 2)
empanelled under the scheme. All correct
3) 4) 5)
69. More often then not we feel concerned with the
1) 2) 3)
development around us. All correct
4) 5)
70. Software makers in India are facing a huge presure.
1) 2) 3) 4)
All correct
5)
Directions (Q. 71-75): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each
sentence has a blank in it Five words 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) are suggested. Out of these, only
one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the
answer.
71. I. The truck stopped_____.
II. We take a _walk every day.
1) suddenly 2) long 3) short 4) distant 5) near

72. I. I got the grains ______ in the machine.
II. I do not have any _______ for doubting him.
l) done 2) basis 3) ground 4) crushed 5) tune
73. I. We were asked to design a______ of the dam.
II. This Institute is a ________ of modern thinking.
1) picture 2) type 3) function 4) fabric 5) model
74. I. Keep a _____ grip on the railing.
II. He was ______ asleep.
1) fast 2) firm 3) deep 4) strong 5) sure
75. I. He asked me to ________ over the fence.
II. We should keep the valuables in the __________ .
1) vault 2) cross 3) safe 4) tie 5) locker
Directions (Q. 76-80): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically
meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction is required',
mark 5) as answer.
76. Most of time strangers have helped in critical situations.
1) Many a time 2) At time 3) More of time 4) At odd period
5) No correction required
77. The reality is that India needs a strong, efficient and competitive aviation sector.
1) what India needs 2) that India need 3) therefore India need
4) needs India 5) No correction required
78. I have known this industry since the last two decades.
1) since last two decade
2) ever since the last two decades
3) for the last two decades
4) from the last two decades
5) No correction required
79. Today's children have far most knowledge and far less patience compared to our
generation.
1) much most knowledge 2) far most knowledgeable
3) by far higher knowledge 4) far more knowledge
5) No correction required
80. Of late, Bonsai trees have attracted the attention of one and all.
1) some and all 2) many and all 3) everyone and all
4) none and all 5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 81-90): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number
of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark 5).
81. 1) All companies must / 2) send its annual report to / 3) its shareholders twenty-one days
/ 4) before the Annual General Body Meeting. / 5) No error
82. 1) To be an effective manager / 2) it is vital to / 3) know the goals and vision / 4) of your
organisation. / 5) No error
83. 1) His aim is / 2) provided cheap and / 3) reliable internet facilities / 4) to every village
within five years. / 5) No error
84. 1) Bank notes have / 2) many special features so / 3) that bank staff can / 4) easier
identify fake notes. / 5) No error
85. 1) According to the Census Bureau, / 2) India will have / 3) a more population / 4) than
China by 2025. / 5) No error
86. 1) The state government has / 2) issued licences to farmers / 3) allowing them to sell / 4)
its vegetables to hotels. / 5) No error
87. 1) Many people decide / 2) not to buy a car / 3) last Diwali because of / 4) the high price
of petrol last year. / 5) No error
88. 1) We plan to / 2) sell part of our / 3) business therefore we have / 4) to repay a loan. / 5)
No error
89. 1) The Reserve Bank of India is / 2) the only central bank in / 3) Asia which have / 4)
raised interest rates in September. / 5) No error
90. 1) Under this scheme / 2) insurance companies will reimburse / 3) any expenditure on
medicines / 4) if you submitting the original bills. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 91-100): In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Today experts all over the world are of the opinion that agriculture will affect the future of
the world.
The world has a serious food (91) and the only way to solve (92) is if more people take up
(93). Moreover since the 1980s, technology and finance jobs (94) been the basis of America's
economy. (95), in recent times, farmers' incomes have risen (96). It has also been a long time
(97) farming was a major source of employment, but data (98) that unemployment in America is
(99) in states where farming is the (100) occupation.
As the demand for food is rising - what the world needs today is more fanners.
91. 1) trouble 2) problem 3) doubt
4) discussion 5) production
92. l) how 2) usually 3) it
4) these 5) which


93. 1) farming 2) time 3) matter
4) offer 5) job
94. 1) also 2) has 3) not
4) have 5) were
95. 1) However 2) Instead 3) Despite
4) Again 5) Still
96. l) much 2) up 3) above
4) sharply 5) highly
97. l) when 2) since 3) while
4) as 5) after
98. 1) collected 2) informs 3)
calculate
4) analysed 5) show
99. 1) lowest 2) smaller 3)
decreased
4) important 5) not
100. 1). mostly 2) best 3) suitable
4) superior 5) main
Test – III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q.101-115): what should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
question?
101. 6.2 × 5.5 × 4.5 =?
1) 154.35 2) 145.54 3) 155.54 4) 135.45 5) None of these
102. 1 1 2 2 - 3 + 2 = ?
7 14 7
1) 5 6
14
2) 5 4
14
3) 3 2
14
4) 11 7
14
5) None of these
103. 1 5 6 =?
5 7 7
× ÷

5) None of these
104. 2615 – 4361 + 2881 =? × 20
1) 65.75 2) 58. 75 3)54.25 4) 64.25 5) None of these
105. 3.5 × (48 ÷ 1.5) = ?
1) 111 2) 112 3) 121 4) 122 5) None of these
106. 16.8% of 705 = ?
1) 116.88 2) 109.66 3) 118.44 4) 121.22 5) None of these
107. 13% of 190 + ? = 111
1) 68.7 2) 93.3 3) 24.7 4) 71.3 5) None of these
108. 628.88 – 410.25 + 153.05 = ?
1) 371.68 2) 56.58 3) 317.68 4) 65.58 5) None of these
109. ( ) 2 8 3 5 5 5 5 5 5 (5 5 5 5) (5 5) = (25) × × × × × × × × × ÷ × ?
1) 22 2) 13 3) 17 4) 19 5) None of these
110. ? - 12 = 1296
1) 2304 2) 3) 2 (48) 48 4) None of these
111. 8282 + 2828 = ? × 40
1) 277.75 2) 2257.75 3) 277.25 4) 257.25 5) None of these
112. 5% of 420 × ?% of 150 = 252
1) 12 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8 5) None of these
113. 25 ÷ 0.5 – 0.5 = ?
1) 25 2) 0 3) 36.5 4) 49.5 5) None of these
114. 5 × ? = 2862 ÷ 3
1) 4770 2) 195.4 3) 4077 4) 1706 5) None of these
115. 8080 ÷ 80 ÷ 8 = ?
1) 880 2) 12.625 30 808 4) 16.225 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 116-120): What approximate value should come in place of question mark
(?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
116. 9125 + 90 + 9 = ?
1) 27 2) 3 3) 7 4) 21 5) 11
117. 6666.009 – 585.999 – 79.989 = ?
1) 5000 2) 5500 3) 6500 4) 4500 5) 6000
118. 11.003 10.998 + 111.01 = ? ×
1) 225 2) 195 3) 230 4) 270 5) 210
119. 2 (14.5) = ?
1) 235 2) 190 3) 230 4) 270 5) 210
Directions (Q. 121-125): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?
121. 2 26 286 ? 18018 90090 270270
1)3088 2)2667 3)3862 4)2574 5) None of these
122. 358 356 352 344 328 296 ?
1)232 2)247 3)225 4)255 5) None of these
123. 8 ? 30 105 472.5 2598.75 16891.875
1)24 2)10 3)12 4)16 5) None of these
124. 34 ? 21 85 110 326
1)7 2)10 3)12 4)14 5) None of these
125. 50000 10000 2500 500 125 ? 6.25
1) 75 2) 25 3) 50 4) 31.5 5) None of these
126. Six women and 10 children together take six days to complete a piece of work. How many
days will 10 children take to complete that piece of work if six women together can
complete the same piece of work in 10 days?
1)21 2)18 3)12 4)15 5) None of these
127. The ratio of the monthly incomes of Sneha, Tina and Akruti is 95:110:116. If Sneha's
annual income is Rs. 3,42,000. what is Akruti's annual income?
1) Rs. 3,96,900 2) Rs. 5,63,500 3) Rs. 4,17,600 4) Rs. 3,88,000
5) None of these
128. Meghna covered 3.36 km in four weeks by walking an equal distance each day. How many
metres does she walk each day?
1) 100m 2) 60m 3) 140m 4) 120m
5) None of these

129. The average of four consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D is 37. What is the product of
A and C?
1)1520 2)1368 3)1292 4)1224 5) None of these
130. The product of 5% of a positive number and 2% of the same number is 211.6. What is half
of that number?
1)230 2)460 3)920 4)115 5) None of these
131. Find the missing number if the average of all the1 eight numbers is 474.
533,128,429,225, ……., 305,601,804
1)767 2)781 3)776 4)758 5) None of these
132. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the
square is 56 cm and the length of the rectangle is 9 cm, what is the difference between the
breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
1) 7 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 11 cm 4) 5 cm 5) None of these
133. A truck covers a distance of 256 km at the speed of 32 kmh1. What is the average speed of
a car which travels a distance of 160 km more than the truck in the same time?
1)46 kmh-1 2) 52 kmh-1 3) 49 kmh-1 4) 64 kmh-1 5) None of these
134. Sushil scored 103 marks in Hindi, 111 marks in Science, 98 marks in Sanskrit, 110 marks
in Maths and 88 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject are equal and if
Sushil scored 85 percent marks in all the subjects together, find the maximum marks of
each subject.
1) 110 2) 120 3) 115 4) 100 5) None of these
135. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a square field along its perimeter at the speed
of 39.6 kmh1 in 1 minute 20 seconds. What is the area of the field?
1) 52900 sqm 2)44100sqm 3)48400sqm 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
136. At present, Tarun is twice the age of Vishal and half the age of Tanvi. After four years,
Tarun will be 1.5 times Vishal's age and Tanvi will be 2.5 times of Vishal's age. What is
Tanvi's present age?
1)12 years 2) 8 years 3) 20 years 4) 16 years 5) None of these
137. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest accrued on an
amount at the end of three years at the rate of 15% is Rs. 453.6. What is the amount?
1)Rs. 4,500 2)Rs.6,400 3)?7,200 4) Rs. 8000 5) None of these
138. Pankaj, Sanjay and Pratima start running around a circular stadium and complete one round
in 12 sec, 8 sec and 15 sec respectively. After what time will they meet again at the starting
point?
1)3min30sec 2)One min 3)Three min 4) Two min 5) None of these
139. On Teachers' Day, 3200 sweets were to be equally distributed among a certain number of
children. But on that particular day 80 children remained absent and hence each child got
two sweets extra. How many children were originally supposed to be there?
1)320 2)500 3)540 4)400
5) Cannot be determined

140. What will come in place of both question marks (?) in the following question?
1.6
0.4
(?) 24 =
96 (?)
1)58 2)-38 3)46 4)36 5)-48
141. The area of a circle is equal to the area of a rectangle with perimeter equal to 35 m and
breadth equal to 5.5 m. What is the area of the circle?
1)88 sqm 2)72sqm 3)66sqm 4) 54 sq m 5) None of these
142. In an examination, the maximum aggregate marks is 1020. In order to pass the exam a
student is required to obtain 663 marks out of the aggregate marks. Shreya obtained 612
marks. By what per cent did Shreya fail the exam?
1)5% 2)8% 3)7% 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
143. Sujit incurred a loss of 45 per cent on selling an article for Rs. 3,740. What was the cost
price of the article?
1) Rs. 5,725 2)Rs. 5,080 3) Rs.6,250 4)Rs. 6,400 5) None of these
144. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'VIRTUAL' be arranged among
themselves?
1)840 2)5040 3)2520 4)1680 5) None of these
145. A 480-metre-long train crosses a platform in 140 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
l)5m/s 2)7m/s 3)4.5m/s 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
146. The compound interest accrued in two years on a principal amount of 6,250 is 616. What is
the rate of interest pcpa?
1)22% 2)16% 3)18%' 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
147. The average height of 21 girls was recorded as 148 cm. When the teacher's height was
included, the average of their heights increased by 1 cm. What was the height of the
teacher?
1) 156cm 2) 168cm 3) 170cm 4). 162 cm 5) None of these
148. What would be the area of a circle whose diameter is 35 cm?
1)962.5 sq cm 2) 875.5 sq cm 3) 981.5 sq cm 4) 886.5 sq cm 5) None of these
149. Mehul sold an item for Rs. 5,625 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price should he have
sold the itein to gain a profit of 25%?
1)Rs. 9,375 2)Rs. 10,500 3)Rs. 8,250 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

150.
3 7 4 2 5 Out of the fractions , , , and , what is thed difference between the largest and the
5 9 7 3 8
smallest frations?
1) 8
63
2) 19
63
3) 11
63
4) 17
63
5) None of these
Test – IV: General Awareness
(with special Reference to Banking Industry)
151. Which of the following organisations/agencies has specifically been set up to boost overall
rural development in India?
1) RBI 2) SIDBI 3)NABARD 4) SEBI 5)EXIM
152. Which of the following states has expressed its unhappiness over the agreement on sharing
of Teesta water between India and Bangladesh? (The agreement was not signed because of
the objection.)
l) Jharkhand 2) Assam 3) Manipur 4) Bihar
5) West Bengal
153. Banks in India are regulated under
1) Companies Act, 1956
2) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
4) Special powers conferred on the RBI
5) None of these
154. Which of the following countries is a major producer of Jute?
1) Pakistan 2) Afghanistan 3) South Africa 4) Bangladesh
5) Sri Lanka
155. Compilation of data on industrial production in India is done by which of the following
agencies/organisations?
1) National Testing Lab
2) Reserve Bank of India
3) Census Commission of India
4) Planning Commission of India
5) Central Statistics Office
156. The President of India visited which of the following countries in July 2011 and held
discussions with Lee Myung-bak, the President of the country?
1) South Korea 2) Mongolia 3) China 4) North Korea 5) Thailand

157. India is providing financial help to which of the following countries for building a large
harbour there named as Kankasanthurai Harbour?
1) Nepal 2)Myanmar 3) Bangladesh 4) Sri Lanka 5) Vietnam
158. A savings bank account opened with a commercial bank with zero or very minimal balance
is known as
1) Savings Bank Ordinary Account
2) Student Savings Bank Account
3) No-Frill Account
4) Current Account
5) Call Deposit
159. What does the letter R denote in the abbreviation 'BR Act' which controls banking activities
in the country?
1) Reformation 2) Regulation 3) Reporting 4) Resolution
5) Ranking
160. 'Base Rate' in banks is
1) the rate of interest payable on demand deposits
2) the rate of interest payable on fixed deposits
3) the rate of interest charged by the RBI on long-term borrowings of public sector banks
4) the minimum lending rate decided by the RBI which shall be adopted by all public
sector banks
5) the minimum interest rate fixed by individual banks below which they cannot lend
funds, except cases like govts-sponsored scheme
161. Banking sector falls under which of the following sectors?
1) Agricultural Sector 2) Service Sector 3) Manufacturing Sector
4) Industrial Sector 5) Small Scale Sector
162. The Govt of India has recently added which of the following currencies for allowing Indian
companies to raise debts through external commercial borrowings?
1)Euro 2) Dinar 3) GB Pound 4) Yuan 5) Yen
163. A savings bank deposit account is one where
1) the deposits are made only once in a year
2) amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per the requirement of the customers
3) periodical fixed amounts are deposited monthwise and withdrawals are allowed after
a fixed period
4) the deposits are made once in every month
5) None of these
164. ASBA scheme is related to the purchase of
l)IPO 2) CP 3) CD 4)TCs 5) None of these

165. Who among the following is the ex officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
l)PratibhaPatil 2) Mohammad HamidAnsari 3)Manmohan Singh
4)MieraKumar 5) LK Advani
166. Which of the following states, at the instance of the Supreme Court of India, has decided to
conduct electronic auction of iron-ore stocks to be allotted to iron and steel producers?
1) Gujarat 2) Bihar 3) Madhya Pradesh 4)Uttar Pradesh 5)Karnataka
167. Mobile banking requires
1) account with a bank with mobile phone linked to interbank mobile payment service
2) account with mobile post office
3) account with bank along with mobile phone linked to international mobile payment
service
4) account with bank and mobile phone linked to inter- State mobile payment service
5) account with bank along with mobile phone linked to inter-district mobile payment
service
168. Saina Nehwal is a famous player associated with which of the following games?
1) Hockey 2) Badminton 3)Golf 4) Lawn Tennis
5) Table Tennis
169. Who among the following is the prime minister of Japan at present?
1) Yoshihiko Noda 2) Naoto Kan 3) Abe Shinza 4) Yasuo Fukuda
5) None of these
170. Central Drug Research Institute is located in which of the following cities in India?
1) Jamshedpur 2) New Delhi 3) Jaipur 4) Lucknow
5) Dhanbad
171. Which of the following books has been written by the classic Russian author Maxim
Gorky?
1) As You Like it 2) Lolita 3) The Mother 4) War and Peace
5)Alice in Wonderland
172. Summer Olympics of 2016 will be organised in
1) China 2) India 3) Brazil 4) Russia
5) South Africa
173. Which of the following terms is not used in the game of hockey?
1) Bully 2) Follow-on 3) Penalty corner 4) Centre-pass
5) Scoop
174. In a bank, which of the following are the usual types of accounts?
1) Savings accounts, Electricity accounts and Insurance premium accounts
2) Fixed deposits, Post office savings bank accounts and Current deposit accounts
3) Current accounts, Savings bank accounts and Term deposit accounts
4) Loan accounts, Savings bank accounts and Term deposit accounts
5) Current bill accounts and Term deposit accounts

175. When a bank dishonours a cheque it is called
1) settlement of the cheque.
2) withdrawing of the cheque.
3) nullifying of the cheque.
4) truncating of the cheque.
5) return of the unpaid cheque.
176. Which of the following banks has recently been merged with the State Bank of India?
1) State Bank of Hyderabad
2) State Bank of Indore
3) State Bank of Saurashtra
4) State Bank of Travancore
5) None of these
177. Salva Mayardit has taken over as the first President of
1) Republic of South Sudan 2) Vietnam 3)Myanmar
4)Libya 5) Iraq
178. The most powerful tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to control inflation is to
1) raise interest rates 2) reduce interest rates 3) raise currency supply
4) reduce currency supply 5) raise interest rates and reduce currency supply
179. 'Sub Prime Lending', which was the root cause for global meltdown in banks during 2008,
means
1) bank finance for non-productive activities
2) bank finance not properly disclosed in its Balance Sheet
3) bank finance in violation of the directives of the central bank
4) bank finance to fictitious entities
5) bank finance which do not qualify for the best market interest rates
180. Which of the following represents female literacy rate in India?
(As per provisional figures of census 2011)
1)60% 2)62% 3)65% 4)70% 5) None of these
181. Crossing of cheques makes them
1) invalid document
2) ineligible to endorse to a person other than the payee
3) remain the same in all respect; it is only a practice
4) eligible for payment irrespective of sufficient balance in the account
5) ineligible to get cash across the bank counter
182. NEFT and RTGS in banking terminology speak of
1) various deposit products
2) various loan products
3) electronic payment products within a bank
4) electronic fund transfer from bank to bank
5) cheque truncation process
183. The headquarters of the World Bank is located in

1) London 2) Paris 3) New York 4) Tokyo
5) Washington DC
184. Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt of India for school children
only?
1) Kutir Jyoti 2) Kishor Jeevan 3) Aadhaar 4)SEWA 5) Mid Day Meal
185. Which of the following days is observed as World Ozone Day?
1) 10th Aug 2) 16th Oct 3) 16th Sept 4) 10th Dec 5) 19th January
186. Whiich of the following awards is given by the govt of Madhya Pradesh for excellence in
the field of classical music/dance etc?
1) Saraswati Samman
2) Kalidas Samman
3) Vyas Samman
4) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
5) Sahitya Akademi Award
187. The ownership of public sector banks rests
1) wholly with the Government of India
2) jointly with the Government of India and State Bank of India
3) wholly with the shareholders from public
4) jointly with the Government of India and Reserve Bank of India
5) jointly with the Government of India and the shareholders from the public
188. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with Cricket?
1) Azlan Shah Cup 2) Davis Cup 3) Nehru Gold Cup 4) Ranji Trophy
5) Wimbledon Trophy
189. Which of the following is the currency of South Korea?
1) Yen 2) Kyat 3) Won 4) Rupee
5) Ringit
190. Who among the following is the Railway Minister of India?
1) Sharad Pawar 2) Virbhadra Singh 3)AmbikaSoni 4) Dinesh Trivedi
5) None of these
191. Who among the following was a famous scientist and is known as the 'Father of India's
Nuclear Programme' ?
1) Dr Homi J Bhabha 2) Dr Satyendra Nath Bose 3) Dr Vikram Sarabhai
4) Dr Satish Dhawart 5)DrCVRaman
192. Which of the following awards was given to Dr Montek Singh Ahluwalia in 2011 by the
Govt of India?
1) Padma Vibhushan 2) Padmashree 3) Bharat Ratna
4) Man of the Year 5) Man of the Decade

193. Which of the following awards has been given to Dr Harish Hande and Nileema Mishra
recently?
1) Ramon Magsaysay 2) Booker Prize 3) Golden Pen Award
4) Mercy Ravi Award 5) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
194. Which of the following pacts/agreements will allow Afghanistan to sell its goods in India
without paying any tax?
1) S AFTA 2) Free Market Agreement 3)Most Favoured Nation Pact
4) Agreement for direct foreign investment
5) Agreement to help least developed countries
195. Non-Performing Assets are the assets which have stopped giving
1) losses to a bank
2) capital to a bank
3) income to a bank
4) income and expenses to a bank
5) expenses to a bank
196. Which of the following banks in India has maximum number of branches and ATMs in
India?
l) IDBI Bank 2) Bank of India 3) Punjab National Bank
4) ICICI Bank 5) State Bank of India
197. EFT stands for
1) Effective Funds Transfer
2) Efficient Funds Transfer
3) Easy Funds Transfer
4) Electronic Funds Transfer
5) Electric Funds Transfer
198. UNESCO is an organisation working in the field of
1) social welfare
2) protecting interest of prisoners of war
3) framing international laws
4) international collaboration through education, culture and science
5) protecting children's rights
199. If a cheque is postdated, the bank on which it is drawn
1) will not honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
2) has to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
3) has the option to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque or not
4) has to refer to RBI to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque
5) has to refer to the court to honour the cheque before the date of the cheque "
200. Which of the following countries is a member of G 8?
l)Iran 2) Turkey 3) France 4) Brazil 5) China

Test – V: Computer Knowledge
201. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
1) They are a collection of data saved in a storage medium.
2) Every file has a filename.
3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the computer on which it was
created.
4) All files contain data.
5) None of these
202. Which of the following is not an example of a hardware?
1) Word 2) Printer 3) Monitor 4) Mouse 5) Scanner
203. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
1) Keyboard 2) Disk 3) ALU 4) Mouse 5) Printer
204. The result of a formula in a cell is called
1) label 2) value 3) range 4) displayed value 5) None of these
205. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
1) Hard disk 2) Flash drive 3) DVD 4)CD 5) Monitor
206. Choose the odd one out.
1) Microcomputer 2) Minicomputer 3) Supercomputer 4) Notebook computer
5) Digital computer
207. The ALU performs _operations.
1) logic 2)ASCH 3) algorithm-based 4)logarithm-based
5) final
208. ______is the part of the computer that does arithmetical calculations.
l)OS 2) ALU 3) CPU 4) Memory 5) printe
209. In a sequence of events that take place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is called
1) store cycle 2) execute cycle 3) fetch cycle 4) decode cycle
5) code cycle
210. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be
1) hardware 2) software 3) data 4) information 5) None of these
211. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?
1) Function 2) Line 3) Pie 4) Bar 5) None of these
212. To see the document before the printout is taken, use

1) Insert Table 2) Paste 3) Format Painter 4)Cut
5) Print Preview
213. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the
1) Notebook 2) Registers 3) Copy Pad 4) I/O devices
5) None of these
214. To move data from one part of the document to another, which of the following is used?
1) Cut and Paste 2) Copy and Paste 3) Cut and Delete 4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert
215. Which of the following is the another name for a preprogrammed formula in Excel?
1) Range 2) Graph 3) Function 4)Cell 5) None of these
216. To save a document for the first time, ______ option is used.
1) Save as 2) Save first 3) Save on 4) Copy 5) Paste
217. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?
1) Mouse 2) Printer 3) Joystick 4) Keyboard 5) Scanner
218. Which of the following are the two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000?
1) Autoshapes and Clip Art 2) Header and Footer
3) Drawing Objects and Pictures 4) Spelling and Grammar
5) Word Count
219. The user can use _______ commands to search for and correct words in a document.
1) Print and Print Preview 2) Header and Footer 3) Find and Replace
4) Spelling and Grammar 5) Copy and Paste
220. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?
1) HTML is very easy to use.
2) The document can be displayed by all word processors.
3) The document can be displayed by all programs.
4) The document can be displayed by all browsers.
5) None of these
6)
221. Which of the following functions is not performed by the CPU?
1) Graphical display of data
2) Arithmetic calculations
3) Managing memory
4) Managing input and output 5) None of these
222. Which of the following is the feature that keeps track of the right margin?
1) Find and replace 2) Wordwrap 3) Right justified 4) Left justified
5) Ragged right


223. Keyboard shortcuts are used to move the
1) I-beam 2) insertion point 3) scrollbar 4) mouse 5) None of these
224. To specify margins in Word, the user has to select Page Setup option from the menu.
l) Edit 2) Table 3) Autocorrect 4) File 5) Format
225. What is the package called which helps create, manipulate and analyse data arranged in
rows and columns?
1) Application package 2) Word processing package 3) Outlining package
4) Outline processors 5) Spreadsheet package
226. What does an electronic spreadsheet consists of ?
1) Rows 2) Columns 3) Cells 4) All the above 5) None of these
227. ROM is an example of which of the following?
1) Volatile memory 2) Cache memory 3)Non-volatile memory 4) Virtual memory
5) None of these
228. Which of the following options is used to display information such as title, page number of
the document?
1) Insert Table 2) Autocorrect 3) Thesaurus
4) Spelling and Grammar 5) Header and Footer
229. Which part of the computer can display the user's work?
1) Mouse 2) Keyboard 3) Disk Drive 4) Monitor
5) None of these
230. When a computer prints a report, this output is called
1) Program 2) Soft copy 3) Hard copy 4) Execution
5) None of these
231. The processor is a ___ chip plugged onto the motherboard in a computer system.
1) LSI 2) VLSI 3)ULSI 4)XLSI 5)WLSI
232. A register that keeps track of the next instruction to be executed is called a/an
1) Data Register 2) Instruction Register 3) Action Register 4) Program Counter
5) Accumulator
233. The microprocessor of a computer
1) does not understand machine language.
2) understands machine language and high-level languages.
3) understands only machine language.
4) understands only high-level languages.
5) understands only assembly language.
234. A set of choices on the screen is called a(n)


1) menu 2) reverse video 3) action plan 4) editor 5) template
235. What is the full form of PROM?
1) Programmable Read Only Memory
2) Progressive Read Only Memory
3) Periodic Read Only Memory
4) Perfect Read Only Memory
5) Program Read-Only Memory
236. Which of the following will be used if the (sender of an e- mail wants to bold, itlalicise etc
the text message?
1) Reach Signature 2) Reach Text 3) Reach Format 4) Plain Format
5) Plain Text
237. Which of the following terms is not related to Internet?
1) Link 2) Function key 3) Browser 4) Search engine 5) Hyperlink
238. Which of the following justifications align the text on both the sides—left and right—of the
margin?
1) Right 2) Justify 3) both Sides 4) Balanced 5) None of these
239. What is the full form of LSI?
1) Low Scale Internet 2) Large Scale Internet 3) Low Scale Integration
4) Large Scale integration 5) Local Scale Integration
240. To move the text from its original position to another position without deleting it is called
1) Scrolling 2) Searching 3) Moving 4) Copying 5) Halting
241. Which of the following is an active cell in Excel?
1) Current Cell 2) Formula 3) Range 4) Cell Address
5) None of these
242. What is included in an e-mail address?
1) Domain name followed by user's name
2) User's name followed by domain name
3) User's name followed by postal address
4) User's name followed by street address
5) None of these
243. What is called the secret code which prohibits entry into some programs?
1) Access code 2) Passport 3) Entry code 4) Password
5) Keyword
244. Which of the following types of menu shows further sub-choices?
1) Reverse 2) Template 3) Scrolled 4) Rapped 5) Pull Down

245. Which of the following operations is safe if an e-mail from an unknown sender is received?
1) Open it to know about the sender and answer it.
2) Delete it after opening it.
3) Delete it without opening it.
4) Open it and try to find who the sender is.
5) None of these
246. The other name of a motherboard is
1) Mouse 2) Computer Board 3) System Device 4) Central Board
5) System Board
247. Which of the following operations can any part of a document be seen on the screen?
1) Searching 2) Pasting 3) Scrolling 4) Editing
5) Copying
248. Which of the following characteristics is used to compute the results from Excel data?
l) Goto 2) Table 3) Chart. 4) Diagram
5) Formula and Function
249. Which type of storage is a hard disc?
1) Non-permanent 2) Volatile 3) Temporary 4) Non-volatile
5) None of these
250. Which of the following is not a software?
1) Excel 2) Printer-Driver 3) Operating System 4) Powerpoint
5) Mouse

Answers:
1. 4; Give number 5 2 3 1 6 9
Numbers after 1 2 3 5 6 9
modification
Only four digits 2, 3, 6 and 9 retain their positions.
2. 3; B U I L D L I K E S
5 # 3 1 @ 1 3 © _ 8
So, S K I D → 8 © 3 @
3. 5;
There are seven such pairs.
4. 5; STEADFAST
Second letter T
Third letter E
Seventh letter A
Eighth letter S
Possible words are ― SEAT, EAST
5. 1; T A S K B I N D
+1 -1 +1 1 1
B U J R J C C M
S U I T
+1 1 1
V T S H
ie VTSH

(6 – 10): $ → =
δ → ≥
© → ≤
_ → <
@ → >
6. 3; Statements: W $ F, F δ R, R _ M
W = F, F ≥ R, R < M
Combining all the given expressions
W F > R < M
W ≥ R < M
Thus, R ≤ W
ie either R < W or R = W
7. ; Statements: V δ T, T @ N, N $ J
V ≥ T, T > N, N = J
Combining all the above expressions
V ≥ T ≥ N - J
V ≥ T > J
Thus, I follows
V ≥ T > N
N < V
II also follows.
8. 4; Statements: K © R, R δ M, M _ F
K ≤ R, R ≥ M, M < F
Combining all the above statements,
K < R > M < F

Comparison is not possible
So, I doesn’t follows.
Again, K < R > M < F
Comparison is not possible
Thus, II doesn’t follow.
9. 1; Statements: B @ J, J _ H, H © N
B > J, J < H, H ≤ N
Conclusions; I. N > J, II. N > B
Combining all the statements.
B > J < H ≤ N ∴ N > J follows
Combining ∴ I follows
B > J < H ≤ N
B > J < N
Comparison is not possible
Thus, II doesn’t follow.
10. 2; Statements: T _ K, K © M, M δ D
T < K, K ≤ M, M ≥ D
Combining all the above
T < K < M > D
Comparison is not possible
So, I doesn’t follow.
Again, T < K < M > D
Combining
T < M ≥ D
Thus, II follows.
11. 4;


12. 3; T # A, J @ U
13. 2; 1 8 Q
14. 5; There are total 33 elements/ If the positions of 25 elements from the right end are
reversed, the eight elements from the left end will remain unchanged. Now, 16th element
from the left end would be (16 – 8) = 8th element from right in in original sequence, ie 5.
15. 1; Required element = (23 – 8)th from the left = 15th from the left = 9
F
Q
A
P
B
R (16 – 20):
D
16. 3 17. 2 18. 1 19. 5 20. 3
21. 5; From I. T and P > R > _ > _
Q is not the youngest.
From I and II together.
T and P > R > Q > S
Therefore, S is the youngest.
22. 3; From 1.
30
30
Start
20
Stop
Q is facing East after he stops walking.
Thus, Only I is sufficient.

From II.
20
30
30 Star
Stop
Q is facing East after he stops walking.
Thus, only II is sufficient.
23. 4; From I. rain is always good → 5 3 9 7
From II. He is always there → 3 6 8 5
Combining I and II,
is always → 3 5
Thus, we can’t find the exact code for ‘always’
Therefore, both I and II together are not sufficient.
24. 2; From I. Nothing is mentioned about D. So, we can’t find the relation.
From II. M is the father of D. Thus, only II alone is sufficient.
25. 4; From I. According to Praveen, possible dates are – 15, 16, 17, 18
From II. According to Praveen’s sister, possible dates are – 17, 18, 19. 20
Combining I and II
Possible dates are – 17, 18
Thus, we can’t find the exact date.
(26 – 30)
26. 4 27. 2 28. 1 29. 3 30. 5

(31 – 35)
31. 3
32. 4; 33. 2 34. 4 35. 1
36. 2;
Thus, only II follows.
37. 1;
38. 4;
Thus, neither I nor II follows.
39. 3;
Thus, either I or II follows.


41. 5; In each subsequent figure all the elements move half a step in ACW direction. The first
element and the fourth and the fifth elements move to the second and the third positions
respectively in the first step. In the second step, the last element moves to the first
position and gets replaced with a new element and the fourth element moves to the
second position. These two steps are repeated alternately in subsequent figures.
42. 4; In the subsequent steps, two, two, one, four, four, and so on curves are added in a set
order.
43. 4; From problem figure (1) to (2), three line segments are added to complete the squares and
from problem figure (3) to (4), four line segments are added to complete the squares.
Therefore, from problem figure (5) to (6), ie the answer figure, five line segments would be
added to complete the squares.
44. 5; In each subsequent figure, the element rotates by 90° CW and moves in CW direction and
two half-leaflets are added.
45. 1; The following changes occur in the subsequent figures.
A new element is placed at the encircled position.
46. 2; In the subsequent figures, four, five, six, seven, eight, and so on, elements from the top are
deleted and two elements reappear in each subsequent figure.
47. 2; In each subsequent figure, the plane of elements rotates by 45° ACW. From problem
figure (1) to (2), the first element from the top, ie the curve, is inverted. From problem
figure (2) to (3), two curves and one angle are inverted. From problem figure (3) to (4),
both the angles are inverted. From problem figure (4) to (5), all the three curves are
inverted. Therefore, from problem figure (5) to answer figure, one curve and two angles
would be inverted.
48. 5; In each subsequent figure, all the elements are inverted and two elements interchange their
positions in a set order.
49. 3; The following changes occur in subsequent figures:

50. 3; In subsequent figures, three, four, five, four, three, and so on. curves are inverted in a set
order.
51. 2 52. 2 53. 4 54. 5 55. 4 56. 1 57. 5 58. 2 59.1 60. 3
61. 3 62. 4 63. 2 64. 1 65. 2 66. 5
67. 3; Replace ‘creativity’ with ‘creative’.
68. 2: The correct answer spelling is ‘hospitals’.
69. 2; Replace ‘then’ with ‘than’
70. 4: The correct answer spelling is ‘pressure’.
71. 3; 72. 3 73. 5 74. 1 75. 1
76. 1; 77. 5 78. 3 79. 4 80. 5
81. 1; ‘Every company must’.
82. 5
83. 2; ‘ to provide’
84. 4; Replace ‘easier’ with ‘easily’.
85. 3; Remove ‘a’.
86. 4; Replace ‘its’ with ‘their’.
87. 1; Replace ‘decide’ with ‘their’.
88. 3; Replace ‘therefore’ with ‘as’ or ‘because’
89. 3; Delete ‘have’.
90. 4; Replace ‘submitting’ with ‘submit’.
91. 2 92. 3 93. 1 94. 4 95. 1
96. 2 97. 2 98. 5 99. 2 100. 5
101. 5; 153.45
102. 5;
1 1 2 (2 3 2) +
7 14 7
2 1 4 5 5 1 + = 1 + = 1
14 14 14

103. 3; 1 5 6 1 =
5 7 7 6
× ÷
104. 5; 2615 – 4361 + 2881 = ? × 20
or, 1135 = ? × 20
or, ? = 1135 = 56.75
20
105. 2;
3.5 (48 1.5) = ?
or, 3.5 32 = ?
? = 112
× ÷
×
106. 3; 16.8 705 = 118.44
100
×
107. 5; 13% of 190 + ? = 111
or, 24.7 + ? = 111
or, ? = 111 – 24.7 = 86.3
108. 1; 371.68
109. 4;
3 2 2 8 3
6 16 3 6 16 3
(25 ) (25 ) (25)
or, 25 25 25 = 25 = 25
? = 19
+ −
× ÷
× ÷ 19

110. 2;
2
? - 12 = 1296
or, ? = 36 +12 = 48
? = 48 = 2304 ∴
111. 1;
8282 2828 ? 40
11110 ? = = 277.75
40
+ =

112. 4;
5% of 420 ?% of 150 = 252
252 or ?% of 150 =
21
? 150 12 100 or, = 12 or, ? = = 8
100 150
×
× ×
113. 4; 25 - 0.5 = 49.5
0.5
114. 5;
5 ? = 2862 3
2862 ? = = 190.8
3 5
× ÷

×
115. 2; 8080 = 12.625
80 8 ×
116. 5; 9125 = 11.26
90 9 ×
117. 5; 6666 – 586 – 80 = 6000
118. 3; 11 11 + 111 = 121 + 111 = 232 ×
119. 5; 2 (14.5) = 210.25
120. 1; 765 = 17
45
121. 4;
2 26 286 2574 18018 90090 270270
× 13 ×11 × 13 × 7 × 5 × 3
122. 1;
358 356 352 344 328 296 232
- 2 - 4 - 8 - 6 - 32 - 64

123. 3;
8 12 30 105 472.5 2598.75 16891.875
1.5 × 2.5 × 3.5 × × 4.5 × 5.5 × 6.5
124. 3;
2 1 2 2 2 2
3 4 12 21 85 110 326
+ 1 + 2 - 3 - 4 + 5 + 6
125. 2;
50,000 10,000 2500 500 125 25 6.25
: 5 : 4 : 5 : 6 : 5 : 4
126. 4;
Number of days required
6 10 6 10 = = = 15 days
10 - 6 4
× ×
127. 3;
342000 Sneha's monthly income = = 28500
12
Akruti's monthly income
28500 = 116 = 34800
95
Akruti' s annual income = 417600

×
128. 4; 3.36 1000 = 120 m
4 7
×
×
129. 3;
Average of consecutive evn or odd numbers = a + (n - 1),
when a is the smallest number.
So, average of four consecutive even numbers = a + (4 - 1)
or, 37 = a +3
or, a = 37 - 3 = 34
A = 34, B = 36, C = 38 ∴ , D = 40
Product of A and C = 34 38 = 1292 ∴ ×

130. 1;
2
Let the number be x.
5x 2x Then, = 211.6
100 100
211.6 100 100 or, x = = 211600
5 2
x = 460, half of number = 230
×
× ×
×
∴ ±
131. 1;
Sum of eight numbers
= 474 8 = 3792
Missing number = 3792 - (533 + 128 + 429 +225 305 + 601 + 804)
3792 - 3025 = 767
×
∴ +
=
132. 2;
Perimeter of the square = 56 cm
Side of the square = 14 cm
56 Perimeter of the rectangle = = 28 cm
2
or, 2 (1 +b) = 28
or, 9 + b = 14
or, b = 5 cm
Difference = 14 - 5 = 9 cm


133. 2;
Time taken by the truck
256 = = 8 hr
32
Distance covered by th car = 256 + 160
= 416 km
Time = 8 hr
416 Speed of the car = = 52 km / hr
8


134. 2;
Let the sum of maximum marks of all the subjects be x.
x 85 or, = (103 + 111 + 98 + 110 + 88)
100
510 100 or, x = = 600
85
Maximum marks of each subject
600 = = 120
5
×
×

135. 3;
Total distance covered by the man
= perimeter of the square
5 or, 39.6 80 = 880 m
18
880 Side of the square = = 220 m
4
× ×

136. 4;
Let Tanvi's age be x years.
x Tarun's age =
2
x Vishal's age is years.
4
After four years,
x 2 (x +4) = + 4 2.5 or, x + 4 = + 10
4 4
or, 4x + 16 = 2.5x + 40
or, 1.5x = 24
24 or, x = = 16
1.5
.5x
137. 2
138. 4; (LCM of 12, 8 and 15)

139. 4;
2
2
Let the total number of children be x.
3200 (x - 80) + 2 = 3200
x
or, 2x - 160x = 3200 80
or, x - 400x + 320x - 3200 40
or, x (x - 400) + 320 (x - 400)
or, x - 400 = 0
or, x = 400

×
×
140. 5;
1.6 0.4
2
? = 24 96
or ? = 2304
? = 48
+ ×
∴ ±
141. 3;
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 ( + b)
35 or, + 5.5 =
2
or, = 17.5 - 5.5 = 12
Area of th rectangle = 12 5.5 = 66 sq m
and area of the circle = 66 sq m
l
l
l
∴ ×
142. 1; 663 612 100 = 5%
1020

×
143. 5; 3740 Cost price = 100 = 6800
55
×
144. 2; There are seven letters in the word “VIRTUAL”.
Therefore, number of different ways in which these letters can be arranged
= 7 ! = 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 5040
145. 4; Since the length of the platform is not given, we can’t find the speed of the train.
146. 2
147. 3; Sum of the heights of all the girls
= 148 × 21 = 3108 cm
Sum of the heights of the teacher and all the girls = 149 × 22 = 3278 cm
Teacher’s height = 3278 – 3108 = 170 cm


148. 1;
Radius = 17.5 cm
Area of the circle
22 = 17.5 = 17.5 = 962.5 sq cm
7
×
149. 1; 5625(100 25) = 9375
(100 - 25)
+
150. 5;
7 Largest fraction =
9
4 Smallest fraction =
7
7 4 49 36 13 Difference = - = =
9 7 63 63


151. 3 152. 5 153. 2 154. 4 155. 5 156. 1 157. 4
158. 3 159. 2 160. 5 161. 2 162. 4 163. 2 164. 1
165. 2 166. 5 167. 1 168. 2 169. 1 170. 4 171. 3
172. 3 173. 2 174. 3 175. 3 176. 2 177. 1 178. 1
179. 5 180. 3 181. 2 182. 4 183. 5 184. 5 185. 3
186. 2 187. 5 188. 4 189. 3 190. 4 191. 1 192. 1
193. 1 194. 5 195. 3 196. 5 197. 4 198. 4 199. 1
200. 3 201. 3 202. 1 203. 2 204. 4 205. 5
206. 4;
207. 1 208. 2 209. 3 210. 1 211. 1 212. 5 213. 2
214. 1 215. 3 216. 1 217. 5 218. 5 219. 3 220. 4
221. 5 222. 3 223. 3 224. 4 225. 5 226. 4 227. 3
228. 5 230. 3 231. 4 232. 2 233. 3 235. 2 236. 3
237. 2 238. 2 239. 4 240. 4 241. 1 242. 2 243. 4
244. 5 245. 3 246. 5 247. 3 248. 5 249. 5 250. 5
f
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  #3  
Old January 3rd, 2015, 11:58 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Nov 2011
Posts: 31,703
Default Re: Question papers for IBPS clerk exam

You need IBPS Clerk exam model question paper, I am giving here:

I. Boats take more time going against
the ________ of the river.
II. She keeps herself abreast of ________
events.
(1) flow (2) latest
(3) water (4) all
(5) current

I. While trying to open the door, the
______ broke.
II. It is not difficult to ________ tricky
situations.
(1) handle (2) knob
(3) bracket (4) overcome
(5) win

I. This course teaches you not to _______
to temptations.
II. We hope to increase our ________ of
rice this year.
(1) succumb (2) produce
(3) yield (4) share
(5) submit

I. When you play your radio at high
_______, it disturbs others.
II. We have just received a latest ______
of this encyclopedia.
(1) edition (2) volume
(3) channel (4) frequency
(5) pitch

I. It helps to rinse one's mouth early
morning with a _______ of salt and
water.
II. You can always refer to this reference
material to find the _________ to these
problems.
(1) mixture (2) answers
(3) liquid (4) fix
(5) solution

116-120. What approximate value should
come in place in the question mark
(?) in the following questions?
116. 750.0003 ÷ 19.999 = ?
(1) 49
(2) 18
(3) 22
(4) 45
(5) 38
117. 6888.009 – 487.999 – 87.989 = ?
(1) 6000
(2) 6570
(3) 6430
(4) 6200
(5) 6310
118. (9.5)2 = ?
(1) 75
(2) 90
(3) 125
(4) 110
(5) 80
119. 19.003 × 22.998 – 280.010 =?
(1) 220
(2) 110
(3) 160
(4) 90
(5) 200
120. 5454 ÷ 54 ÷ 5 = ?
(1) 15
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 20
(5) 10
121-125. What should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following
number series?
121. 1000 2000 400 80 16
3.2 ?
(1) 0.38
(2) 0.45
(3) 0.64
(4) 0.54
(5) None of these
122. 2
10
42
170 ?
2730
10922
(1) 588
(2) 658
(3) 596
(4) 682
(5) None of these
123. 600
519 ?
406 370 345 329
(1) 435
(2) 455
(3) 425
(4) 445
(5) None of these
124. 5
?
15
75 525 4725
51975
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 6
(5) None of these
125. 3
6
15
24 48
96
?
(1) 192
(2) 182
(3) 186
(4) 198
(5) None of these
126. 3 women and 18 children together
take 2 days to complete a piece of
work. How many will 9 children
alone take to complete the piece of
work alone can complete the piece of
work in 3 days?
(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) None of these
127. What will come in place of both
question mark (?) in the following
question?
1.8
(?)
16
32
(?)1.2
=
(1) 16
(2) 64
(3) 2
(4) 4
(5) 8
128. Out of the fractions
5 4 6 2
, , ,
7 9 11 5
and
3
4
what is the difference between the
largest and smallest fractions?
(1)
6
13
(2)
11
18
(3)
7
18
(4)
11
20
(5) None of these
129. The average weight of 21 boys was
recorded as 64 kgs. If the weight of
the teacher was added, the average
increased by one kg. What was the
teachers’ weight?
(1) 86 kgs
(2) 64 kgs
(3) 72 kgs
(4) 98 kgs
(5) None of these
130. The perimeter of a square is twice the
perimeter of a rectangle. If the
perimeter of the square is 72 cms and
the length of the rectangle is 12 cms,
what is the difference between the
breadth of the rectangle and the side
of the square?
(1) 9 cms
(2) 12 cms
(3) 18 cms
(4) 3 cms
(5) None of these
131. Find the average of the following set
of scores:
253, 124, 255, 534,836, 375, 101, 443, 760
(1) 427
(2) 413
(3) 441
(4) 490
(5) None of these

132. Raj sold and item for Rs. 6,384/- and
incurred a loss of 30%. At what price
should he have sold the item to have
gained a profit of 30%?
(1) Rs. 14,565/-
(2) Rs. 11,856/-
(3) Rs. 13,544/-
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
133. What would be the simple interest
accrued in 4 years on a principle of Rs.
187,440/- @ p.c.p.a.?
(1) Rs. 11,075/-
(2) Rs. 12,250/-
(3) Rs. 11,500/-
(4) Rs. 12,985/-
(5) None of these
134. A truck covers a distance of 640 kms
in 10 hrs. A car covers the same
distance in 8 hrs. What is the respective
ratio between the speed of the truck
and the car?
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 5 : 6
(4) 6 : 7
(5) None of these
135. The respective ratio between Sita’s
Riya’s and Kunal’s monthly income is
84 : 76 : 89. If Riya’s annual income is
Rs. 4,56,000/-, what is the sum of Sita’s
and annual income? (In some cases
monthly income and in some cases
annual income is used.)
(1) Rs. 11,95,000/-
(2) Rs. 9,83,5000/-
(3) Rs. 11,30,000/-
(4) Rs. 10,38,000/-
(5) None of these
136. The sum of 15% of a positive number
and 20% of the same number is 126.
What is one-third of that number?
(a) 360
(b) 1080
(c) 120
(d) 40
(e) None of these
137. Nandita scored 80 percent marks in
five subjects together; viz; Hindi,
Science, Maths, English and Sanskrit
together, wherein the maximum
marks of each subject were 105. How
many marks did Nandita score in
Science if she scored 89 marks in
Hindi, 92 marks in Sanskrit, 98 marks
in Maths and 81 marks in English?
(1) 60
(2) 75
(3) 65
(4) 70
(5) None of these
138. At present Anil is 1.5 times Purvi’s
age. Eight years hence, the respective
ratio between Anil and Purvi’s ages
then will be 25 : 18. What is Purvi’s
present age?
(1) 50 years
(2) 28 years
(3) 42 years
(4) 36 years
(5) None of these
139. The average of four consecutive
numbers A, B, C and D respectively
is 49.5. What is the product of B & D?
(1) 2499
(2) 2352
(3) 2450
(4) 2550
(5) None of these
140. Faisal walks 325 meters every day.
How many kilometers will he walk in
four weeks?
(1) 6.2
(2) 9.1
(3) 8.6
(4) 7.8
(5) None of these
141. Niraj incurred a loss of 55 percent of

selling an article for Rs. 9,549/-. What
was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 27,700/-
(2) Rs. 25,600/-
(3) Rs. 21,200/-
(4) Rs. 29,000/-
(5) None of these
142. What is the difference between the
compound interest and simple interest
accrued on an amount of Rs. 16,200/-
at the end of three years @ 25%?
(round off to two digits after decimal)
(1) Rs. 3213.44
(2) Rs. 3302.42
(3) Rs. 3495.28
(4) Rs. 3290.63
(5) None of these
143. A 280 meters long train crosses a
platform thrice its length in 6 minutes
40 seconds. What is the speed of the
train?
(1) 3.2 m/s
(2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 2.8 m/s
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
144. The area of a rectangle is equal to the
area of a circle with circumference
equal to 39.6 meters. What is the
length of the rectangle it its breadth
is 4.5 meters?
(1) 33.52 meters
(2) 21.63 meters
(3) 31.77 meters
(4) 27.72 meters
(5) None of these
145. In how many different ways can the
letters of word ‘VENTURE’ be
arranged?
(1) 840
(2) 5040
(3) 1260
(4) 2520
(5) None of these
146. In order to pass in exam a student is
required to get 780 marks out of the
aggregate marks. Sonu got 728 marks
and was declared failed by 5 percent.
What are the maximum aggregate
marks a student can get in the
examination?
(1) 1040
(2) 1100
(3) 1000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
147. What would be the measure of the
diagonal of a square whose area is
equal to 882 sq. cms.?
(1) 38 cms.
(2) 32 cms.
(3) 42 cms.
(4) 48 cms.
(5) None of these
148. A man riding a bicycle, completes one
lap of a circular field along its
circumference at the speed of 14.4 km/
hr in 1 minute 28 seconds. What is the
area of the field?
(1) 7958 sq.mts
(2) 9856 sq.mts
(3) 8842 sq.mts
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
149. Harish, Dilip and Asha start running
around a circular stadium and
complete one round in 27 seconds, 9
seconds and 36 seconds respectively.
In how much time will they meet
again at the starting point?
(1) 1 min. 48 sec.
(2) 2 min. 36 sec.

(3) 2 min. 11 sec.
(4) 2 min. 25 sec.
(5) None of these
150. On children’s day sweet were to be
equally distributed amongst 300
children. But on that particular day 50
children remained absent; hence each
child got one sweet extra. How many
sweets were distributed?
(1) 1450
(2) 1700
(3) 1500
(4) 1650
(5) Cannot be determined



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