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Career and Jobs>EFLU Entrance Exam Papers
neeraj prakash 01:58 PM July 6th, 2012
I am preparing for the EfLU entrance examination and for that purpose I need the old question papers of . Can you give me the papers? Also tell me that can download the papers?

Sashwat 06:28 PM July 6th, 2012
Here I am forwarding you the Entrance Tests Model Paper for 2009 of Five-Year Integrated M. A. [B.A. (Honours)]of English Programme .It consists of 6 section .
Attached: EFLU Integrated M. A. [B.A. (Honours)model paper.doc (83.5 KB) 
kaif_hyd 04:12 PM January 26th, 2013
Where can i get B.A French entrence previous question and model paper
kitarpkid 11:45 AM April 13th, 2013
I am applying for EFLU entrance exams this year for the subject Social Exlcusion Studies and I am not able to find any sample questions or previous question papers. It is not there in the website also. where can I find them?
rkcare 09:08 PM May 1st, 2013

animo 10:49 PM May 13th, 2013
sir, i'm applying for M.A. mass communication and english in EFLU. can you please post entrance test papers for the same.
Aakashd 03:39 PM February 6th, 2014
Here I am providing you the Entrance Tests Model Paper for Five-Year Integrated M. A. [B.A. (Honours)]of English Programme .It consists of 6 section

Entrance Tests Model Paper
Five-Year Integrated M. A. [B.A. (Honours)]
English Programme

Time: 2hrs Max. Marks:100
Section A (40 Marks)
I. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words. The first letter of the appropriate word in
each case has been provided to help you. (10x1=10)
In every society, whether traditional or 1m____________, age is an indicator of the roles which a person is 2e____________ to play. In Western cultures, for 3e____________, we restrict certain activities such as the consumption of 4l____________, to those over a 5c______________ age. Becoming legally an 6a____________ is a matter solely of attaining a given chronological status. Subsequently, we pass 7t____________ various age-related status positions – middle-aged, elderly, etc. At each point we tend to form bonds and affiliations more readily with other 8m___________ of the particular age set we have reached than with members of 9o___________ age sets. Teenagers bond with 10 t_____________; the elderly find new opportunities for social ties in the clubs and institutions which cater for them.

II. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. In each case, choose the best option.
Contrary to appearances, all the world does not know English. As many as six thousand languages are spoken, although it’s sadly true that the number drops every year. In some respects, languages are analogous to organisms like plants and animals. If, like plants and animals, their populations dwindle enough, they become extinct.
English is not on the endangered list. It ranks second among mother tongue speakers and is the world’s premier auxiliary language. A December 2000 survey found that 56 percent of fifteen European Union member countries spoke English, 40 percent as acquired language. Nearly all countries’ TV ads were partly in English. English is an official language in more than forty countries and an ‘associate’ official language in India and Pakistan.
English speaking countries, notably the United States and Britain, are accused of linguistic imperialism, even cultural genocide. But no matter how much English is used in business and the mass media, those who have it as a second language typically rely on their own tongue to communicate anything to do with family, friendship, and love. Although English is the dominant language in the Internet, it’s been estimated that more than 60 percent of those online have a different language.
Nonetheless, the dream of the nineteenth-century Polish medical doctor Ludovic Zamenhof has been fulfilled, but not in the way he hoped. Zamenhof invented Esperanto (from a Romance language root for ‘hope’), which was devoid of irregular verbs and almost free of tricky idioms. About three-quarters of its vocabulary derives from Romance languages. (An Esperanto sentence handy for customers is ‘Mi preferas plendi, dankon’ meaning ‘I prefer to complain, thanks.’) Esperanto has about fifty thousand fluent speakers.
In the 1940s, C. K. Ogden and I. A. Richards compiled Basic English, a word list that consists of 850 words: one hundred for operations (come, be), four hundred for general things (motion, mountain), two hundred picturables (angle, sail), one hundred general qualities (able, free), fifty opposites (bitter, loud, hard, soft) with a few simple rules. But, although, it strongly influenced language teaching, Basic English didn’t fare any better than Esperanto in becoming a universal medium.
(Questions 11 to 15) Say whether the following statements are True or False (5x1=5)
11. Languages and life forms all behave in the same way. ……...
12. The passage suggests that non-native speakers of English prefer their own language to express emotions.……...
13. More people have English as a second language than any other. ……...
14. Zamenhof wanted to invent a language that did not have the peculiarities of English. ……...
15. In the opinion of the writer, cultural genocide is worse than linguistic imperialism. ……...
(Questions 16 to 20) For each of these questions choose the best option and right its number in the brackets provided. (5x1=5)
16. What, according to the passage, is a cause for sadness? [ ]
A. There are six thousand languages in the world which cause a lot of confusion.
B. Population control makes language die out.
C. Some languages are disappearing every year.
D. English is responsible for killing other languages.

17. According to the passage, all TV ads in European Union countries have English words in them because [ ]
A. it has become fashionable to throw in some English words.
B. most people in these countries know some English.
C. an English word in the ad guarantees sales.
D. people demand that some English words be present in the ad.
18. What did Ludovic Zamenhof do to make Esperanto easy? [ ]
A. He chose words that are easy to remember. B)He kept out English words.
C. He excluded idioms and irregular verbs. D)He anticipated all the language problems that a person can face.
19. What is the dominance of English based on? [ ]
A. English has been learned by many people all over the world and has often received official support.
B. English is peculiarly suited to the needs of the modern world.
C. English is quietly establishing itself by co-existing with other languages.
D. The Internet ensures that English spreads all over the world.
20. What does the passage suggest is a guarantee that other languages will survive the onslaught of the English language? [ ]
A. People who use English do not really like it.
B. English is used widely in business and the mass media, but not in other important aspects of life.
C. English is being popularized through British and US force, and will weaken once these countries weaken.
D. English is full of exceptions and confusing idioms.
III. A. Supply the missing part of the word in each of the following sentences. (5x1=5)
21. Thanks to the Internet, it has become extremely easy to com__________ with each other.
22. A good command of the English language is seen as necessary for a bright fu__________.
23. A businessperson tries to max__________ profits.
24. A lot of India’s problems are attributed to poor infra____________.
25. The phen___________ of black holes are yet to be completely understood.
III. B. Fill in the blanks in the sentences below with words from the box. One word is extra. (5x1=5)
symbolic elements transition random alternative alternate
26. People believe that fate strikes at ____________ moments.
27. The Japanese tea ceremony is complex and has great ______________ value.
28. British football fans share some common ____________ with youth gangs in the United States.
29. In a large majority of traditional societies, the _____________ from one status to another involves some ceremony.
30. The reasons why long hair should be associated with protest and _____________ youth cultures are difficult to understand.
IV. Some lines in the passage below contain an error each. Underline the error and
write the correction in the space provided. One has been done for you.
The earliest examples in voluntary shaving of the beard appear to have
been connected to the desire off display “enslavement to a god.” Young
men would offer their beards as a sign of loyal submission for their
deities. Priests would shave off their beards for a symbol of humility.
But shaving on a more permanent and widespread base seems to have
been introduced in ancient Greece and Rome. Alexander the Great is
reputed to instruct his soldiers to remove their beards in order
to improve their chances for close combat. It was considered that long
beards will make useful handholds for the enemy – as one sometimes
sees today in professional wrestle bouts. Roman soldiers were told
to shave their beards for reasons of identification. Their shaven chins
were easily distinguished from those of the hairy barbarians they
were fighting. There was too the question of hygeine, although it is not
certain what big a role this played.
00) ____of____
31) __________
32) __________
33) __________
34) __________
35) __________
36) __________
37) __________
38) __________
39) __________
40) __________
Section B (20 Marks)
(Questions 41 to 57) Choose the correct answer in each case and write its number in the box provided. (17x1=17)
41.Dr Watson is a fictional character created by ………….
A) Charlie Chaplin B) Sherlock Holmes C) Arthur Conan Doyle D) Agatha Christie
42. Vikram Sarabhai was a renowned……………..
A) scientist B) actor C) medical doctor D) social reformer
43. This city is on the bank of the Themes River
A) London B) Paris C) Munich D) Rome
44. …….. headed the committee that drafted the Constitution of independent India.
A) Pandit Nehru B) Dr B. R. Ambedkar C) Vallabhbhai Patel D) Lord Mountbatten
45. Fidel Castro recently stepped down as the President of …….
A) Venezula B) Poland C) Spain D) Cuba
46. The director of the movie Jurassic Park is
A) Steven Spielberg B) Clint Eastwood C) Terry Eagleton D) Jack Nicholson
47. NASA is an organization that is related to
A) international peace B) space research C) Olympics D) medicine
48. Vladimir Kramnik is a ……… player
A) tennis B) soccer C) golf D) chess
49. The scientist considered to be the father of modern experimental science
A) Galileo B) Newton C) Louis Pasteur D) Einstein
50. Sir William Jones is remembered for the contribution he made to
A) medicine B) anthropology C) philology D) aesthetics
51. Paleontology is a science that deals with the study of
A) fossils B) climate C) writing systems D) crime detection
52. Hippocrates oath is related to the profession of
A) law B) medicine C) military D) sailors
53. “Earth provides enough to satisfy everyman’s need, but not everyman’s greed” Who said this?
A) Karl Marx B) Albert Einstein C) Martin Luther King Jr D) Mahatma Gandhi
54. Condoleeza Rice is
A) the US State Secretary B) a kind of high yielding rice
C) a pop singer D) a dam in the US
55. Raj Ghat is associated with
A) C. Rajagopalachari B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy D) Rajiv Gandhi
56. “My dear brothers and sisters of America,” -Who began his famous speech at the Parliament of Religions with
this address?
A) Maharshi Mahesh Yogi B) Abraham Lincoln
C) Swamy Vivekananda D) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
57. The atomic number of an element indicates the number of ….. in an atom.
A) protons B) neutrons C) the number of protons minus the number of neutrons
D) the number of electrons added to the number of protons
(Questions 58 to 60) Expand the following abbreviations (3x1=3)
58. SAARC? Ans: …………………………………………….
59. DNA? Ans: ……………………………………………..
60. OPEC? Ans: ………………………………………………..

Section C (10 Marks)
(Questions 61 to 67) Choose the correct answer in each case and write its number in the box provided. (7x1=7)
61. Sachin is younger than Rahul by four years. If their ages are in the ratio 7:9 how old is Sachin?
A) 16 yrs B) 18 yrs C) 28 yrs D) 14 yrs 62. Identify the wrong number in the sequence: 16, 36, 64, 100, 144, 190, 196
A) 64 B) 100 C) 190 D) 144
63. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a black card
or a king.
A) 1/2 B) 6/13 C) 7/13 D) 27/52 64. The length of one pair of opposite sides of a square is increased by 5 cm on each side. If the ratio of the newly
formed rectangle is 3:2 what is the area of the original square?
A) 25 cm2 B) 81cm2 C) 100 cm2 D) 49 cm2
65. A train traveling at 50 kms per hour leaves Bhopal for Delhi at 7 am and another train traveling at 40 kms per hour leaves Delhi for Bhopal at the same time. Both trains run non-stop. When the two trains cross each other, the first train has traveled 100 kms more than the other train. Calculate the distance between Bhopal and Delhi.
A) 900 kms B) 600 kms C) 750 kms D) insufficient information for calculating the distance
66. Identify the one that does not belong:
A) German B) France C) Italian D) Portuguese 67. Identify the one that does not belong
A) hen B) kitten C) cub D) fawn
(Questions 68 to 70) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In each case choose the best option and write its number in the box provided. (3x1=3)
Seven university basket ball players ( A, B, C, D E, F and G) are to be felicitated at a special luncheon. The players are to be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate the presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and must be seated as far apart as possible.

68. Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?
A) C B) D C) F D) G
69. Which of the following pairs cannot be seated nest to each other?
A) B & D B) C & F C) D & G D) E &A
70. Which of the following pairs cannot occupy seats on either side of B?
A) F & D B) D & E C) E & G D) C & F
Section D (20 Marks)
(Questions 71 to 90) Choose the correct answer in each case and write its number in the box provided. (20x1=20)
71. “Life is a tale told by an idiot full of sound and fury signifying nothing” These lines are from Shakespeare’s
A) Othello B) Macbeth C) King Lear D) Hamlet
72. One Hundred Years of Solitude is a novel by
A) Albet Camus B) James Joyce C) Marquez D) Balzac
73.Who is the writer known as the “Nightingale of India”?
A) Sarojini Naidu B) Rabindranath Tagore C) Toru Dutt D) Kamla Das
74. Coleridge, Wordsworth, Shelley and Keats belong to the group of
A) Romantic poets B)Pink poets C)Neoclassicists D)Modernists
75. The Divine Comedy is by
A) Virgil B)Sophocles C)Goethe D)Dante
76. Things Fall Apart is a novel in English written by
A) an African writer B)an American writer C)an Indian writer D)a Canadian writer
77. Alice in the Wonderland is by
A) J. K. Rowling B) Charles Dickens C) Edward Lear D) Lewis Carroll
78. Raskolnikov is a character in
A) War and Peace B) Crime and Punishment C) Mother D) Archipelago
79. A sonnet is a poem that has
A) 14 lines B)24 lines C)22 lines D)could be of any length
80. The God of Small Things by Arundhati Roy won the
A) Sahitya Akademi prize B) Booker Prize C) Nobel Prize D) Gyanpeeth award
81. A soliloquy in a play is
A) spoken by a single actor B) sung by a group of actors
C) heard from behind the scene D) spoken by two actors taking turns
82. “A thing of beauty is a joy for ever” is the opening line of a poem by
A) William Wordsworth B)Alfred Lord Tennyson C) John Keats D) P. B. Shelley
83. Malgudi is a fictional locale created by
A) Vikram Seth B)R. K. Narayan C)Ruskin Bond D)Raja Rao
84. “Where the mind is without fear and head is held high” is the beginning of a poem by
A) Sri Aurobindo B) Tagore C) Bankim Chandra Chatterji D) Sarojini Naidu
85. Mother Courage is a play by
A) Sartre B) Ibsen C) Goethe D) Bertolt Brecht
86. Swapnavasavadattam is a Sanskrit play authored by
A) Bhavabhooti B) Bhasa C) Kalidas D) Sree Harsha
87. Blank verse is
A) another name for prose used in plays
B) a form of verse used in plays (mainly) in the 16th and 17th centuries
C) a form of verse that leaves certain blanks for the actors to improvise
D) is a mixture of prose and verse
88. Catharsis means
A) imitation B) misfortune C) dramatic intensity D) a purging of excessive emotions
89. …………… was a contemporary of William Shakespeare.
A) Marco Polo B) Julius Caesar C) Charles Dickens D) Queen Elizabeth I
90. The movie My Fair Lady is based on a play by
A) W. B. Yeats B) W. H. Auden C) George Bernard Shaw D) Stephen Spender
(Blank Page)
Section E (10 Marks)

91. Write a short essay (in not more than 250 words) on any one of the following: (10)

a) Democracy has its drawbacks, of course, but it is by far the best form of government. Argue for or against this statement.
b) “Beauty is in the beholder’s eye rather than in the object beheld.”
c) The need to produce good children’s movies in Indian languages.
(write your essay here)
Sashwat 04:27 PM February 15th, 2014
English and Foreign Languages University (EFLU) is a Central University in India. It was established by the government of India in 1958 as the Central Institute of English which provides for the study of English and foreign languages

English and Foreign Languages University (EFLU) conduct BA English Entrance Examination Question Paper

Here I am sharing the Question paper of BA English Entrance Examination

BA English Entrance Examination Question Paper (Model)
1. Neither of them / are going to attend the party / on 10th October.

2. I haven’t seen him / since twenty years and so I cannot say with certainty / whether he
is alive or dead.

3. When he did not find the cook in the kitchen he / asked his wife where / had he gone.

4. The teachers urged to the agitating students / to shun violence and / maintain peace on
the campus.

5. Never I asked / my husband how much / he earned.

II. Given below are some sentences with blanks. Look at the options given
below and identify the right word for each blank.
5 X 2 = 10 marks

6. After a hot water bath, she felt--------------------
A. refreshing
B. refreshed
C. refreshment

7. Have we got time to --------------------------Sandhya on the way home?
A. drop by
B. drop in
C. drop in on

8. Jacob has ----------------------packed his suitcases.
A. yet
B. already
C. since

9. The Khan family --------------------------here for four years in May.
A. will live
B. have lived
C. will have lived

10. She sometimes finds it difficult to ------------all the pressure at work.
A. cope with
B. cope
C. cope up with

Section B: Vocabulary
Read the following passage and choose the most suitable word/phrase to fill in the
blanks in the passage. 10 X 1 = 10 marks

The father of evolution was a nervous parent. Few things _11__Charles Darwin more than
the challenge of explaining how nature's most complex structures, such as the eye, came to
be. "The eye to this day_12_ me a cold shudder," he wrote to a friend in 1860.
Today biologists are beginning to understand the origins of life's _13_ - the exquisite optical
mechanism of the eye, the masterly engineering of the arm, the choreography that allows
trillions of cells to cooperate in a single organism.
The fundamental answer is clear: In_14_, all these wonders evolved. "The basic idea of
evolution is so elegant, so simple," says Howard Berg, a Harvard researcher studying the
spinning tail of common bacteria. "The idea is simply that you fiddle around, change
something and_15_ you ask: Does it improve my survival or not? And if it does, you keep
fiddling around, improving. It's _16_ powerful technique."
But nearly 150 years after Darwin, the evolution of complex structures can still be hard to
accept. Most of us can envision natural selection tweaking a simple trait—making an animal
furrier, for example. Yet it's _17_ to picture evolution producing a new complex organ,
complete with all its precisely interlocking parts. Creationists claim that life is so complex
that it could not have evolved. They _18_ that such complexity must be the direct product of
"intelligent design" by a superior being.
The _19_majority of biologists do not share this belief. Studying how complex structures
came to be is one of the most exciting frontiers in evolutionary biology, with clues coming at
remarkable speed. Scientists still have _20_before they understand the evolution of
complexity, which isn't surprising since many of life's devices evolved hundreds of millions
of years ago.

11. A. worried B. excited C. disconcerted
12. A. gives B. provides C. renders
13. A. difficulty B. complexity C. complexness
14. A. one way or another B. every which way C. one way or the other
15. A. therefore B. subsequently C. then
16. A. an enormously B. a heavily C. a hugely
17. A. simpler B. tougher C. harder
18. A. conjecture B. argue C. proclaim
19. A. immense B. big C. vast
20. A a long way to go B. come a long way C. a long distance to cover

Section C: Reading
Read the following texts and answer the questions that follow. 5 X 1 = 5
Passage 1
Orang-utans “require less food than humans, pound-for-pound,” lead author Herman Pontzer
said. When they do eat orang-utans nibble mostly on ripe fruit, along with smaller portions of
leaves and seed. Even in captivity, this diet doesn’t diminish an orang-utan’s get-up-and-go.
“They wake up early, after a long night’s sleep,” explained Pontzer, an assistant professor of
anthropology at Washington University in St. Louis. “Then they spend the day socializing,
exploring their indoor or outdoor enclosures. They also regularly engage in games with
According to a study, published in the latest Proceedings of the National Academy of
Sciences, these activities of the orangutan’s, taken together add up to the same level of
exercise performed by humans in physically demanding agricultural lifestyles.
In the wild, orang-utans live in the rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra where food availability
is highly variable and unpredictable, Pontzer added. Like fresh fruit from the garden, the
pickings are often feast or famine. “But the trade-off,” he added, “is that low-energy
throughout means less energy is available to do things like grow and reproduce. So orangutans
grow slowly and reproduce slowly, which is evolutionarily risky because an orang-utan
might die before it passes on its genes.” Human mothers can have a child every two to four
years, but orang-utans in the wild only reproduce every seven to eight years.
Orang-utans are highly endangered, with many lost due to human activities such as logging,
mining and the illegal pet trade. Pontzer hopes the study will highlight “how much
information we lose about our closest relatives and our own evolutionary history if we let
them go extinct.”

21. Orang-utans eat _____ humans do.
A. less than
B. more than
C. nearly as much as

22. According to Pontzer, orang-utans are
A. lazy.
B. slow.
C. energetic.

23. According to the study published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of
A. orang-utans and farmers do the same amount of physical activity.
B. orang-utans do the same exercises as farmers.
C. orang-utans and farmers have similar lifestyles.

24. Orang-utans grow slowly and reproduce slowly because they
A. don’t get sufficient food.
B. don’t get fresh fruit from the garden.
C. don’t eat enough food.

25. Select the statement that is NOT TRUE.
A. The orang-utan reproductive cycle is slow.
B. All orang-utans may not reproduce.
C. Orang-utans give birth every four years.

Secretary, Ministry of Culture, Government of India
26. Raghav wants to visit the exhibition. He is free on Sunday and Monday between 10:00 am
to 11:00 am. When can he see the exhibition?
A. On Monday, 27th of September 2010
B. On Sunday, 3rd of October 2010
C. On Monday, 4th of October 2010

27. The exhibition displays works of
A. Canadian artists.
B. Indian artists.
C. Canadian and Indian artists.

28. The exhibition will continue for
A. less than three months.
B. more than three months.
C. almost four months.

29. During Commonwealth Games, the exhibition will remain open for longer hours
A. so that the athletes can also improve their knowledge of art.
B. to give the artists an opportunity to see the athletes.
C. because a large number of tourists are expected at this time.

30. This poster is mostly likely to appear/can be found in a
A. newspaper.
B. travel magazine.
C. in a journal.

Section D: Writing
The first (S1) and last (S4) sentences of a paragraph are given. Decide which among P,
Q and R can be the second (S2) and third (S3) sentences. Choose their order of
occurrence from the choices given. 5 X 2 = 10 marks
S1 We should always read things in good light, not too bright and not too dim.
S2 _____________________
S3 _____________________
S4 Either way it strains the muscles and makes them tired.
P. Bright light causes your iris muscles to shut down and makes you squint.

Q. Dim light, on the other hand, causes the irises to open wider and this is also a
R. Reading in good light will help prevent strain to the eyes.

S1 A study was conducted among students in urban and semi urban schools in
Coimbatore to find out how aware they are of their natural surroundings.
S2 _____________________
S3 _____________________
S4 The common yellow flowers that one finds in one’s surroundings like the marigold,
chrysanthemum, sunflower etc. were not listed at all.
P. Children did not know about the flowers of pumpkin, tomato, ladies finger,
green chilli etc. which are yellow.
Q. Eighty percent of the students named the daffodil as the first, followed by the
yellow hibiscus and the yellow rose.
R. They were asked to name 4 yellow flowers that came to their minds.

S1. Rag picking is not a new profession in India.
P. They are not, however, offered any constructive support by the local
Q. Every Indian city has had its own band of pickers for many years.
R. They keep the city clean, unofficially joining forces with the municipal
S4. They often work in dirty and hazardous conditions, but get no kudos for these

S1. You are invited to a learning opportunity at Kheladhri school.
P. We strive to cultivate the child’s natural intelligence while building
academic excellence and physical fitness.
Q. The wider intent is to discover right living and right relationship with
the earth.
R. Parents who wish to admit their children may write to us in December.
S4. Kheladhri is a fully residential school and is situated amidst great natural beauty in
the Western Ghats, in India.

S1 From the first day of school, we are taught that there’s one right answer to every
S2 _____________________
S3 _____________________
S4 There is however an alternative answer and that is, “learn something new”.
P. The obvious right answer to this question is, “Look for another job”
Q. But many important questions have two answers.
R. Take the question “What do I do now that I’ve lost my job?”

Section E: General Knowledge
Choose the correct answer. 10 X 1 = 10 marks
36. Who among the following was the Greek God of grape harvest and wine?
A. Poseidon
B. Artemis
C. Dionysus

37. The current Pope of the catholic church and the sovereign of Vatican city is
A. Pope Francis
B. Pope Jesuit Peter
C. Pope Alamandra Peru

38. Nobel Prize for Literature 2012 was awarded to
A. Octavio Paz
B. Mo Yan
C. Tomas Transtromer

39. The author of the book River of Smoke is
A. V S Naipal
B. Bharati Mukherjee
C. Amitav Ghosh

40. Michael Phelps is associated with which of the following sport?
A. Athletics
B. Swimming
C. Badminton

41. In the 60th National Film Awards [India], which film won the Swarna Kamal for the
Best Feature Film Category?
A. Paan SinghTomar
B. The Dirty Picture
C. Chittagong

42. Which Indian city is also known as “the Blue City”?
A. Konark
B. Dehra Dun
C. Jodhpur

Choose the correct expansion of the following abbreviations:
43. DVD
A Delta Velocity Dispel
B Digital Video Disc
C Direct Vendor Deliverable

44. IAEA
A International Atomic Energy Agency
B International Agricultural Emergency Association
C Independent Administration of Estates Authority

A Online System for Computer Applications and Review
B Optical Storage and Cable Allowing and Readiness
C Open Source Cluster Application Resources

Section F: Reasoning 10 X 2 = 20 marks
46. Find out which of the figures (1), (2) and (3) can be formed from the pieces given in
figure (X).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

47. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?
A. Ash
B. Rust
C. Raven

48. Spot the Odd one out.
A. Shameless
B. Meaningless
C. Priceless

49. Introducing Priyanka, Saroj says that her mother is the only daughter of my mother. How
is Saroj related to Priyanka?
A. Mother
B. Sister
C. Daughter

50. DRI
A. D
B. A
C. B

51. Des

52. Fin
A. 1
B. 1
C. 1

53. Spo
A. S
B. C
C. G

54. Loo
spite the ___
ment has no
nd the numb
ot the incorr
Shape up
Cope up
Give up
ok at this ser
t been prov
ber of triang
rect phrase
ries: 14, 28,
ven to be eff
gles in the g
, 20, 40, 32,
______ clai
fective again
iven figure.
, 64, ... Wha
ims made by
nst any illne
at number s
y its propon
should come
nents, the V
e next?

A. 52
B. 56
C. 96
55. Spot the Odd one out
A. Chef
B. Chief
C. Chap

Section G: Literature
Answer the following questions by choosing the most suitable option from the choices
given below each question. (10 X 1 = 10 marks)

56. Which Shakespearean play do the following lines belong to?
Life's but a walking shadow, a poor player
That struts and frets his hour upon the stage
And then is heard no more: it is a tale
Told by an idiot, full of sound and fury,
Signifying nothing.
a. Macbeth
b. Othello
c. Hamlet

57. Which of the following is NOT an example of a metaphor?
a. You blocks, you stones, you worse than senseless things! (Julius Caesar Act I
Sc i)
b. The rain came down in long knitting needles. (Enid Bagnold, National Velvet)
c. Her face was quiet and a curious look was in her eyes, like the timeless eyes of
a statue.( John Steinbeck, Grapes of Wrath)

58. Which of the following is an allegorical novel that criticizes Russian communism?
a. War and Peace
b. Animal Farm
c. Gulliver’s Travels

59. Identify the famous literary figure in the image.
a. Chinua Achebe
b. Wole Soyinka
c. J.M. Coetzee

60. “He sipped with his straight mouth,
Softly drank through his straight gums, into his slack long body,
What is the most prominent poetic feature in the above lines?
a. Rhyme
b. Alliteration
c. Assonance

61. My Story is the daring and controversial autobiography of which Indian writer?
a. Kamala Das
b. Arundhati Roy
c. Shobha De

62. Which of the following literary works is based on the biblical story of Adam and Eve?
a. Beowulf
b. Astrophel and Stella
c. Paradise Lost
63. -------------- is the name of the “untouchable” protagonist in Mulk Raj Anand’s novel
a. Bakha
b. Velutha
c. Bama

64. When I am dead I hope it may be said
‘His sins were scarlet, but his books were read.’
The word ‘read’ in the above line is a/an
a. oxymoron.
b. homonym.
c. pun.

65. Who was the first non-European to have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature
in 1913?
a. Yasunari Kawabata
b. Gabriela Mistral
c. Rabindranath Tagore

5 X 2 = 10 marks
66. A pair of rhymed lines in a poem is called a
a. stanza.
b. couplet.
c. rhyme.

67. The sequence in which events are presented in a novel is called its
a. plot.
b. story.
c. theme.

68. In Shakespeare’s famous play Othello, the audience knows that Othello’s wife
Desdemona has been faithful to him, but Othello does not, and he kills her. This is an
example of:
a. dramatic irony.
b. paradox.
c. dramatic conflict.

69. Which famous novelist wrote under the pseudonym Currer Bell?
a. Emily Brontë
b. Anne Brontë
c. Charlotte Brontë

70. Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein, H.G. Well’s Time Machine and Amitav Ghosh’s The
Calcutta Chromosome belong to the category of
a. children’s fiction.
b. science fiction
c. gothic fiction.

Answer key

Section A: Grammar

1 B2 B3 C4 A5 A6 B7 C
8 B9 C10 A

Section B: Vocabulary
11 D12 A13 B14 A15 C
16 A17 D18 B19 C20 A

Section C: Reading
21 A22 C23 A24 A
25 A26 B27 A28 B29 C30 A

Section D: Writing
31 A32 B33 A34 C35 C

Section E: General Knowledge
36 C37 A38 B
39 C40 B41 A42 C43 B44 A45 C

Section F: Reasoning
46 A47 A48 C49 A50 C
51 C52 A53 B54 B55 A

Section G: Literature
56 A 57 C 58 B59 A 60 B 61 A 62 C 63 A
64 C 65 C 66 B 67 A 68 A 69 C 70 B


The English and Foreign Languages University
Ravindra Nagar, Osmania University, Amberpet,
Secunderabad, Andhra Pradesh 500007 ‎
040 2709 8131 ‎



Unregistered 02:06 PM February 26th, 2014
I want to appear in the EFLU Entrance Exam. So I want to get details about the Entrance Exam. So can you provide some details about the exam?
Nilesh 02:19 PM February 26th, 2014
As you want to get details about the EFLU Entrance Exam, so here I am giving the following details:

Important Dates:
21, 22 and 23 February 2014

Entrance Test Centers

EFLU Entrance Exam Brochure

Rest is attached below please have a look on that it is free for you

Contact Details
The English and Foreign Languages University
Ravindra Nagar, Osmania University,
Amberpet, Secunderabad,
Andhra Pradesh 500007 ‎
Ph: 040 2709 8131



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