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Old April 1st, 2014, 11:18 AM
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Default Where to get Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Previous year papers

Can any one here provide me the previous year Question papers of Andhra Bank Clerk Exam??
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Old April 1st, 2014, 04:08 PM
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Default Re: Where to get Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Previous year papers

Here I am sharing the previous year Question papers of Andhra Bank Clerk Exam
Q.1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that
doesnot belong to that group?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Platinum
d)Mercury
e) Lead
Q.2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.Which is the one that
doesnot belong to that group?
a)Goggles
b) Accessories
c) Bangles
d)Ring
e)Watch
Q.3. If yellow is called blue, blue called red, red is called pink, pink is called black and black is
calledorange then what is the colour of blood?
a)Yellow
b)Orange
c)Pink
d)Blue
e) None of these
Q.4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CREDITABLE each of which has as
manyletters between them as they have in English alphabet?
a)One
b)Two
c) Three
d) Four
e)More than four
Q.5. The positions of how many digits in the number 7136985 will remain unchanged when the
digitsare rearranged in ascending order?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three
e) Four
Q.6. In a certain code BEND is written as '6392' and RAIN is written as '5149' how is DARE written
inthat code?
a) 2153
b) 2351
c) 2315
d) 2135
e) None of these

Q.7. If + means -, - means ÷, ÷ means × and × means +, what is the value of
125 - 5 × 10 ÷ 13 + 28 =?
a) 129
b) 127
c) 149.15
d) 150
e) None of these
Q.8. If it is possible to make only onemeaningful English word with the fourth, the sixth, the ninth,
andthe eleventh letters of the word QUALIFICATION, which of the following will be the third letter
ofthat word? If more than one such word can be formed, giveMas the Answer and if no such
wordcan be formed, give 'N' as the answer
a) A
b) I
c) L
d) M
e) N
Q.9. Pointing to a boy, Divya said "He is the son of my father's only brother". How is Divya related
tothat boy?
a) Sister
b) Cousin Sister
c)Daughter
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.10. In a certain code KINGDOM is written as JMCLJHP How is QUANTUM written in that code?
a) VOLVPZS
b) SZPLOW
c) RVBOUVN
d) PZSLVOV
e) None of these
Q.11. In a certain code GOAL is written as AGLO and BEAR is written as ABRE. How is SEND writtenin
that code ''
a) NSDE
b) NDES
c) DENS
d) SNED
e) None of these
Q.12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.Which is the one that
doesnot belong to that group?
a) Stone
b) Sand
c)Cement
d) Rock
e) Pebble
Q.13. 'MP' is related to 'OR' and 'DG' is related to 'FI' in the same way as 'RU' is related to --. Page 3

a)TX
b) TW
c) TY
d)UW
e) None of these
Q.14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
thatdoes not belong to that group?
a) 93
b) 26
c) 34
d) 69
e) 42
Q.15. What should come next in the following letter sequence?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F A B
a) D
b) E
c) G
d) C
e) F
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Give answer a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while thedata in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, whilethe data
in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer
the question.
Give answer d) if the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient toanswer the
question, and
Give answer e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answerthe
question.
Q.16. Who among P, Q, R, T and W is the oldest?
I. R and T are older than P and W.
II. O is older than P but younger than R
Q.17. What is T's position with respect toW when T,W, R, J and M are sitting around a circle facing
atthe center?
I. R is second to the left of M and second to the right of W.
II. J is not an immediate neighbour of M.
Q.18. How is 'come' written in a code language?
I. 'come and go' is written as 'pit ka ja' in that code language.
II. 'go and tell' is written as 'ja ma ka' in that code language.
Q.19. How is P related to N?
I. P's mother is sister of N's father,
II. N's uncle is grandfather of P's brother.
Q.20. On which day of the week did Mohan visit Bangalore? Page 4

I. Mohan took leave onWednesday.
II. Mohan visited his brother on Friday the previous day of his visit to Bangalore.
In each of the questions below a group of letters are given followed by four groups of
digit/symbolcombinations numbered a), b), c) and d), letters are to be coded as per the codes and
conditions given below. You have to find out which of the combinations a), b), c) and d) is correctand
indicate your answer accordingly. If none of the four represents the correct code, mark e)i.e. 'None
of these' as your answer
Letter: B H S N T OA K R I E UG
Digit/Symbol Code: 6 8 1 # 5 2 $ 3 9 @4 7 %
Conditions:
(i) The first as well as last letter is vowel, both are to be coded as '0'.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as 'Z'.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as '*'.
Q.21. BKAEUG
a) 03$470
b) 63$470
c) 03$47%
d) 63$47%
e) None of these
Q.22. ORHSNU
a) 098#17
b) 0981#0
c) 298#10
d) 2981#7
e) None of these
Q.23. STOKGA
a) 1523%$
b) 1523%*
c) *523%*
d) * 523%$
e) None of these
Q.24. KIUBSR
a) 3@7619
b) 0@7610
c) 3@7691
d) 3@6719
e) None of these
Q.25. ONSIRT
a) 2#1@95
b) Z#@195
c) Z#19@Z
d) Z#1@95
e) None of these
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:— Page 5

Eight familymembers Dhruv, Garima, Avinash, Varsha, Aakash, Deepti, Charu and Moksh
aresitting around a square table in such a way that two persons sit on each of the four sides of
thetable facing the center Members sitting on opposite sides are exactly opposite to each
other.Aakash and Garima are exactly opposite to each other. Deepti is immediately right to
Garima.Dhruv and Moksh are sitting on the same side. Moksh is exactly opposite of Avinash who is
tothe immediate left of Varsha, Dhruv is towards right of Deepti.
Q.26. Who is sitting opposite to Deepti
a) Moksh
b) Charu
c) Varsha
d) Charu or Varsha
e) None of these
Q.27. Who is next to Varsha in anti-clockwise direction?
a) Garima
b) Avinash
c)Dhruv
d) Deepti
e) None of These
Q.28. Who is sitting opposite to Dhruv?
a) Charu
b) Deepti
c) Varsha
d) Moksh
e) None of these
Q.29. Which of the following pairs of persons has both the persons sitting on the same side with
firstperson sitting to the left of second person?
a) Aakash - Charu
b)Moksh-Charu
c) Dhruv – Aakash
d) Avinash - Charu
e) None of these
Q.30. Which of the following statement is definitely true?
a) Charu is opposite to Varsha
b) Deepti is to the left of Garima
c) Avinash is towards right of Aakash
d) Moksh is sitting opposite to Dhruv
e) None of these
These questions are based on the following arrangements. Study the arrangement carefully
andanswer the questions:
M 8 N @ P K $ 9 E F % 1 W 3 & Q J A # L 2 T H 5 * B G © 4 I Z 6 OS 7
Q.31. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediatelypreceded by a number and also immediately followed by a consonant?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three Page 6

e) None of these
Q.32. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Q.33. How many such numerals are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediatelypreceding a symbol?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Q.34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of the above arrangement
whichis the one that does not belong to the group?
a) $F@
b)©Z*
c) 3J%
d) LHJ
e) 2A5
Q.35. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the
abovearrangement?
N@K EF1 &QA 2T5?
a) G©l
b) BG4
c)TH*
d) ©4Z
e) Z6S
Symbols@, %, *, $ and # are used with different meanings as explained below:
'A $ B' means 'A is not greater than B.
'A # B' means 'A is not smaller than B.
'A@ B' means 'A is neither greater than nor equal to B'.
'A % B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor equal B'.
'A *B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'.
In each question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed
bytwo conclusions I and II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which
conclusion(s)is/are definitely true.
Give answer a) if only conclusion I is true
Give answer b) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer c) if either conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q.36. Statements : B S, S @ D, U # D Page 7

Conclusions : I. S @ U II. D % B
Q.37. Statements : H % L, LG, G # M
Conclusions : I. H # M II. H % G,
Q.38. Statements : A $ J, J % R, P @ R
Conclusions : I. J % P II. P A
Q.39. Statements : K % N, N # U, U $ M
Conclusions : I. N M II. N % M
Q.40. Statements: E % I, I K, K @ J
Conclusions : I. K % E II. J % I
A codingmachine generates pass codes in steps. The process begins at 10 a.m. and each stepis an
hour in duration. There is a rest period of an hour at 2 p.m. after which the duration of eachstep is
45 minutes.
Input : trucks 49 carry 36 massive 25 load 16
Step I : carry trucks 49 36 massive 25 load 16
Step II : carry 16 trucks 49 36 massive 25 load
Step III : carry 16 load trucks 49 36 massive 25
Step IV : carry 16 load 25 trucks 49 36 massive
StepV : carry 16 load 25 massive trucks 49 36
Step VI : carry 16 load 25 massive 36 trucks 49
Step VI is the last step for the above input.
Now answer the following questions, following the same rules as illustrated above for
rearrangement of the input.
Q.41. If the third step of the input is “is 4 material 36 test 16 packed 64" which of the following will
bethe fifth step?
a) is 4 material 16 packed 64 test 36
b) is 4 material 16 packed 36 test 64
c) is 4 material 16 test 36 packed 64
d) There are only four steps
e) None of these
Q.42. if the input is “the 36 issue 49 became 9 serious 25" how many steps will be required
tocomplete the rearrangement?
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six e) None of these
Q.43. How long excluding the rest period will it take to rearrange the input—"you 49 visited 81
their16 relative 25'?
a) 5 hours 45 minutes
b) 5 hours
c) 5 hours 30 minutes
d) 4 hours 45 minutes
e) None of these
Q.44. What will be the input if the fourth step of the arrangement is — "most 16 people 25 similarly
81 think 36"?
a) most 25 people 16 similarly 81 think 25
b) most 25 people 16 think 81 similarly 36 Page 8

c) most 16 people 25 think 36 similarly 81
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.45. What will be the third step of the input —"ministers 25 solved 36 their 81 problems 64"?
a) ministers 25 problems 36 solved 81 their 64'
b) ministers 25 problems 36 solved 64 their 81
c) ministers 25 problems 36 their 81solved 64
d) ministers 25 solved 36 problems 81 their 64
e) None of these
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered
I, II, and Ill. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be atvariance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of thegiven conclusions
logically follow (s) from the given statements disregarding commonly knownfacts
Q.46. Statements : All bananas are apples. Some apples are oranges. All oranges are grapes.
Conclusions : I. Some grapes are bananas. II. Some grapes are apples.III. Some oranges are bananas.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only I and II follow
e) Only II and III follow
Q.47. Statements : Some cards are files. Some files are-ink-pots. Some ink-pots are pads.
Conclusions : I. Some ink-pots are cards. II. Some cards are padsIII. Some pads are files
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) All follow
Q.48. Statements : Some keys are locks. All locks are doors. Some doors are windows.
Conclusions : I. All keys are locks. II. Some doors are locksIII. No window is a key
a) Only I follow
b) Only II follows
c) Only either I or III and II follow
d) Only either I or III follows
e) None of these
Q.49. Statements : Some tables are chairs. All chairs are benches. All benches are desks.
Conclusions : I. Some desks are tables. II. Some benches are tables.
III. Some desks are chairs
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) All follow
Q.50. Statements : All rats are cats. No cow is cat. All dogs are cows.
Conclusions : I. No dog is rat II. No dog is cat. Page 9

III. No cow is rat.
a) None follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only I and II follow
d) Only II and III follow
e) All follow
Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:
Spectra Ltd. Co. wants to recruit computer operators for its branch offices in various places.
Following criteria are laid down for selection -.
(A) Be a graduate with at least 60% marks.
(B) Have passed a PG Degree/Diploma in computer applications with at least 65% marks.
(C) Have cleared the computer skill test with at least 55% marks. ,
(D) Be not less than 24 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 01.09.07
However, if a candidate satisfies all these conditions except———
(i) at (B) above, but has secured at least 70% marks in computer skill test, the case to be referred to
the GM-Admn of the company
(ii) at (D) above, but has a working experience of at least two years in Information Technology,the
case is to be referred to the GM-Personnel of the company.
In each of the following questions, details of one candidate are given as regards his/her
candidature. You have to read the information provided, and decide his/her status based on the
conditions given above and the information provided. You are not to suppose anything other than
theinformation provided in each of the following questions. All these cases are given to you as
on01.09.07.
Give Answer If
a)The candidate is to be selected,
b)The case is to be referred to the GM-Admn.
c)The case is to be referred to the GM- Personnel.
d)The data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
e)The candidate is not to be selected.
Q.51. Mohnish has passed B Sc. (Botany) with 58% marks and has done a PG Diploma in
ComputerApplications. His date of birth is 14th August 1984. He has cleared the Computer Skill Test
with58% marks.
Q.52. Rajat Batra has passed BCA as well as MCA with 73% marks. He has cleared the ComputerSkill
Test with 79% marks. His date of birth is 5th August 1976.
Q.53. Amita Sharma passed BCA examination in 2002 at the age of 22 years with 80% marks.
Afterworking for two years she enrolled for post-graduation in Computer Applications. She has
secured 55% marks in Computer Skill Test.
Q.54. Devyani Prakash has obtained engineering degree in Computer Science with 66% marks and
MCA with 61% marks. She has secured 82% marks in Computer Skill Test. She has completed
26 years of age in May 2007.
Q.55. Vishal Kumar has passed B.A. with 68% marks and PG Diploma in Computer Applications with
70% marks. He has secured 70% marks in Computer Skill Test. His date of birth is 08.02.1982 Page 10

Q.56. Amar Tanwar is a science graduate with 61% marks. He has done MCA with 65% marks and
5years of experience in the area of IT. He has secured 60%marks in Computer Skill Test. His dateof
birth is 01.01.1977.
Q.57. Monika Sharma has obtained post graduate degree in Computer Applications from a
reputedinstitute. She has cleared the Computer Skill Test with 56% marks. She has completed
27years of age in July 2007.
Q.58. Fatima Sheikh has passed B.Sc. (honours) and MCA with 73% and 78% marks respectively.
She has cleared the Computer Skill Test with 79% marks. Her date of birth is 16.06.1981.
Q.59. Siji Mathew has done B.Sc. (Physics) and PG diploma in Computer Applications with 69%marks
and 56% marks respectively. She has secured 76% in Computer Skill Test. Her date ofbirth is
10.03.1983.
Q.60. Sukumar Rath passed PGDCA examination in 2002 at the age of 28 years with 66%marks
.Afterworking for three years in Information Technology he enrolled for PG degree in
ComputerApplications last year. He has secured 85% marks in his graduation as well as in Computer
Skill Test.
In each question below five figures are given. Four are similar in a certain way and so form a
group. Which one of the figures does not belong to that group?
Q.61.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.62.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.63.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.64.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.65. Page 11

a)b)c)d)e)
In each of the questions there are two sets of figures. The figures on the left are problem
Figures(four figures and one question-marked space) and those on the right are Answer Figures
Indicated by numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. A series is established if one of the five Answer Figures
isplaced at the "Question-marked space".
Q.66.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.67.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.68.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.69.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.70.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.71-75. In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figure on the right
should come afterthe problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued.
PROBLEM ANSWER
Q.71.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.72.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.73. Page 12

a)b)c)d)e)
Q.74.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.75.
a)b)c)d)e)
TEST - II
QUANTITATIVEAPTITUDE
What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
Q.76. 38.5 ÷ 5.5 x 12 - 4 =?
a) 84
b) 48
c) 40
d) 75
e) None of these
Q.77. 538 x? = 3497
a) 5.75
b) 3.25
c) 6.50
d) 5.65
e) None of these
Q.78. 3251 + 587 + 369 -? = 3007
a) 1250
b) 1300
c) 1375
d) 1200
e) None of these
Q.79. 5.43 + 4.35 + 0.45 + 45.34 + 534 =?
a) 597.27
b) 589.57
c) 596.87
d) 569.67
e) None of these Page 13

Q.80. (?)2 + (79)2 = (172)2 - (88)2 - 8203
a) 96
b) 89
c) 83
d) 81
e) None of these
Q.81. 416 x? x 8 = 59904
a) 17
b) 12
c) 21
d) 15
e) None of these
Q.82. [(222)2 ÷ 48 x 16] ÷ 24 =?
a) 654.25
b) 624
c) 684.5
d) 678.75
e) None of these
Q.83. (52% of 3543) - (38%of 2759) =?
a) 653.36
b) 993.24
c) 821.64
d) 793.94
e) None of these
Q.84. - 92 x 42+ 158 =?
a) 3864
b) - 3706
c) - 4022
d) 18400
e) None of these
Q.85. 8.905 + 5.675 - 4.632 + 1.280 =?
a) 11.228
b) 9.428
c) 12.822
d) 10.282
e) None of these
What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
Q.86. 5624.863 ÷ 309.721 x 90.628 =?
a) 1426
b) 1558
c) 1646
d) 1748
e) 1812 Page 14

Q.87. (802.86)2 =?
a) 645000
b) 644600
c) 645400
d) 645800
e) 646200
Q.88. (1513)2 =? x 3294
a) 688
b) 674
c) 700
d) 695
e) 706
Q.89. (682% of 782) ÷ 856 =?
a) 4.50
b) 10.65
c) 2.55
d) 8.75
e) 6.25
Q.90. (8531+ 6307 + 1093) ÷ (501+ 724 + 396) =?
a) 19
b) 10
c) 16
d) 7
e) 13
What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
Q.91. 45 43 83 245 975 4869?
a) 29214
b) 24501
c) 19476
d) 29207
e) 30058
Q.92. 289 303 324 352 387 429?
a) 478
b) 508
c) 487
d) 558
e) 473
Q.93. 16 24 36 54 81 121.5?
a) 200
b) 195.75
c) 182.25
d) 150.5
e) 170.25 Page 15

Q.94. 31 34 71 216 867 4338?
a) 26028
b) 26031
c) 21690
d) 23150
e) 23432
Q.95. 16 16 40 140 840 7980?
a) 163290
b) 136290
c) 132690
d) 126390
e) 123690
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:-
Total Number of Students Studying in Various Colleges over the Years
YEARS
COLLEGE
A
B
C
D
E
2001
860
890
780
900
840
2002
910
980
820
970
880
2003
930
1040
910
908
990
2004
990
1000
980
940
1000
2005
940
940
980
960
1050
2006
980
960
1020
920
1120
Q.96. What is the average number of students studying in the college D over the given years?
a) 928
b) 930
c) 933
d) 941
e) None of these
Q.97. The number of students studying in college C in the year 2004 is approximately what percent
ofthe total number of students studying in various Colleges in that year?
a) 20
b) 23
c) 17
d) 25
e) 15
Q.98. What is the respective ratio of number of students studying in College A to the number of
studentsstudying in College E in the year 2006?
a) 15: 14
b) 7:8
c) 9 : 3
d) 10:11
e) None of these
Q.99. What is the difference between the average number of students studying in College A over
thegiven years and the average number of students studying in College C over the given years? Page 16

a) 23
b) 128
c) 120
d) 32
e) None of these
Q.100. What is the difference between the total number of students studying in College B over the
givenyears and the total number of students studying in College D over the given years?
a) 218
b) 35
c) 32
d) 212
e) None of these
Q.101. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
a) 212
b) 227
c) 232
d) 247
e) None of these
Q.102. In how many ways can 5 colours be selected out of 9?
a) 98
b) 142
c)72
d) 126
e) None of these
Q.103. Ratio of earnings of A and B is 4 : 5 respectively. If the earnings of A increase by 20% and
theearnings of B decrease by 20%, the new ratio of their earnings became 6 : 5 respectively.
Whatare A's earnings?
a) Rs. 22000
b) Rs 27500
c) Rs.26400
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.104. What will be the difference in simple and compound interest@12%per annum on the sum of
Rs960/- after 2 years?
a) Rs 13.824
b) Rs 24.04
c) Rs. 20.224
d) Rs.31/-
e) None of these
Q.105. By how much is th 186 less than th of 228?
a) 16
b) 24
c) 26 Page 17

d) 18
e) None of these
Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Percent rise in production of Six companies over the years.
YEARS
COMPANY
P
Q
R
S
T
U
2000
25
30
20
45
25
45
2001
20
55
45
50
45
40
2002
35
60
35
35
30
20
2003
40
30
25
30
55
55
2004
30
40
30
25
35
15
2005
45
45
40
20
45
25
Q.106. What is the difference in the percent rise in production of Company U in the year 2003 from
theyear 2000?
a) 22
b)12
c) 18
d) 9
e) None of these
Q.107. If the production of Company T in the year 2000 was 3,55,000 units, what was its production
in theyear 2002?
a) 6,69,175 units
b) 5,14,251 units
c) 7,21,345 units
d) 4,22,895 units
e) None of these
Q.108. What is the per cent increase in per cent rise of production of Company R in the year 2001
fromthe previous year?
a) 55
b) 115
c) 125
d) 130
e) None of these
Q.109. Which company has the highest average percent rise in production over the years?
a) U
b) T
c) S
d) Q
e) None of these
Q.110. If the production of CompanyS in the year 2002 was 3,57,750 units, what was its production
in theyear 2001?
a) 3,40,000 units
b) 2,65,000 units
c) 2,30.000 unit Page 18

d) 2,55,000 units
e) None of these
Study the pie-chart carefully to answer the following questions.
1 - Percentage of students enrolled in different activities in a school N = 3000
2 - Percentage break-up of girls enrolled inactivities out of the total studentsN = 1750
1
2
Q.111. Number of girls enrolled in Dancing is what per cent of total number of students in the
school(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
a) 12.35
b) 14.12
c) 11.67
d) 10.08
e) None of these
Q.112. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in Swimming to the number of boys
enrolledin Swimming?
a) 47 : 49
b) 23:29
c) 29 : 23
d) 49 : 47
e) None of these
Q.113. What is the approximate percentage of boys in the school?
a) 34
b) 56
c) 28
d) 50
e) 42
Q.114. Howmany boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together?
a) 505
b) 610
c) 485
d) 420
e) None of these
Q.115. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Swimming and Drawing together?
a) 480
b) 525
c) 505 Page 19

d) 495
e) None of these
Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions:
Number of units produced (In crores) and exported (in crores) by a Company over the years
Q.116. In which year is the difference between the units produced and exported the maximum?
a) 2002
b) 2003
c) 2004
d) 2005
e) None of these
Q.117. In which year is the percent of units exported to the units produced the maximum?
a) 2003
b) 2004
c) 2005
d) 2006
e) None of these
Q.118. What is the difference between the number of units exported in 2002 and 2005?
a) 100000000
b) 1000000
c) 10000000
d) 100000
e) None of these
Q.119. In which year is the percent of units exported to the units produced the minimum?
a) 2001
b) 2002
c) 2003
d) 2004
e) None of these
Q.120. What is the average number of units exported over the years?
a) 40000000
b) 38333333
c) 36666666
d) 20000000
e) None of these Page 20

Q.121. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs. 536/- is the same as loss incurred after selling
thearticle for Rs. 426/-. What is the cost price of the article?
a) Rs.448/-
b) Rs. 470/-
c) Rs.481/-
d) Rs. 500/-
e) None of these
Q.122. The ages of Surabhi and Neerja are in the ratio of 6 : 7 respectively. After 6 years the ratio of
theirages will be 15 :17. What is the age of Neerja?
a) 24 years
b) 32 years
c) 26 years
d) 28 years
e) None of these
Q.123. A sum of money is divided amongW, X, Y and Z in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 9 :13 respectively. If the
shareofW and Y together is Rs.. 11,172, then what is the difference between the amounts of X and
Z?
a) Rs. 7672
b) Rs. 6,834
c) Rs. 5586
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.124. In a class of 90 students, amongst 50% of the students each student got number of sweets
thatare 20% of the total number of students and the amongst remaining 50% of the students
eachstudent got number of sweets that are 10% of the total number of students. How many
sweetswere distributed among 90 students?
a) 1620
b) 1215
c) 960
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.125. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, i.e. Rs. 4,428/- in Mutual Funds. Later
sheinvests 18%of her monthly salary on Pension Policies; also she invests another 9%of her salaryon
Insurance Policies. What is the total monthly amount invested by Mrs. Sharma?
a) Rs.113356.8
b) Rs. 12,398.4
c) Rs. 56,678.4
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
TEST - III
GENERAL AWARNESS
Q.126. Recently the UN has announced a "World Judiciary Day" which will start from 2009.Which of
thefollowing date has been announced for it?
a) 20 Feb.
b) 20 March Page 21

c) 20 April
d) 20 May
e) None of these
Q.127. Who will be the new chairman of FICCI from January 2008?
a)M.Damodaran
b) Rajiv Chandrashekharan
c) Kiran Karnik
d) Ratan Tata
e) None of these
Q.128. At which place are the Headquarter of International Monetary Fund (IMF) located?
a)Vienna
b) The Hague
c)Washington
d) Denmark
e) None of these
Q.129. In which of the following cities, 'World Economic Summit' will be held in January 2008?
a) Davos
b)Geneva
c) Berlin
d) London
e) None of these
Q.130. Who has written the book, 'India's Century'?
a) P.Chidambaram
b) Kamalnath
c) Amartya Sen
d) PranavMukherjee
e) None of these
Q.131. At which place was themeeting of 'The Commonwealth Heads of Government (CHOGM)'
held?
a) Dhaka
b) Uganda
c) Canberra
d) Suva
e) None of these
Q.132. India and ASEAN agreed to enhance bilateral trade upto howmany billion dollar, in the next
threeyears?
a) $ 50 ab
b) $ 60 ab
c) $ 65 ab
d) $ 55 ab
e) None of these
Q.133. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Red Ribbon Express?
(A) The Red Ribbon Express carrying themessage of HIV/AIDS awareness has been flagged offin New
Delhi on December 1 marking theWorld AIDS Day. Page 22

(B) The special train with seven coaches will stopped at 180 railway stations during its 9000 kmlong
journey.
(C) It is launched jointly by National AIDS Control Organization and the Union RailwayMinistry.
(D) It is expected to increase accurate knowledge levels about AIDS.
a) A, B and C
b) B, C and D
c) All are true
d) A, C and D
e) None of these
Q.134. Which of the following bank has started the first biometric ATM in India?
a) Punjab National Bank
b) State Bank of India
c) Bank of Baroda
d) Oriental Bank of Commerce
e) None of these
Q.135. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE according to the Organization for Economic
Co-operation and Development?
(A) Total Property and Infrastructure exposure is forecast to rise to $ 35 trillion 9% of
projectedglobal GDP.
(B) Guangzhou in China will be second most exposed city in terms of assets in 2070.
(C) The report analyzed the vulnerability now and in the future of 130 part cities to a major flood ona
scale likely to occur once in 100 years.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) A and B
e) All of the above
Q.136. According toUN studyon climate change that net investment of $ 200-210 billion bywhich
yearwereneeded in cleaner areas, such as renewable energies in a gigantic shift from dirtier fossil
fuels?
a) 2015
b) 2020
c) 2030
d) 2040
e) None of these
Q.137. According to a report, at present the contribution of urban sector to India's GDP is about 62-
63percent. By which year will it be 75 percent?
a) 2012
b) 2015
c) 2020
d) 2021
e) None of these
Q.138. Inwhichcountrywill theNationalBank ofPakistan(NBP)open its firstbranch?
a) India
b)China
c)Bhutan Page 23

d)Bangladesh
e)Noneof these
Q.139. The Hindu Rights Action Force (Hindraf), the Organization of the Hindus was recently in
thenews. It belongs to which of the following countries?
a) Malaysia
b) Nepal
c) Myanmar
d) Canada
e) None of these
Q.140. Upto howmany low budget hotels will be set up by the Indian Railways with private
participation?
a) 100
b) 170
c) 248
d) 525
e) None of these
Q.141. International Conference on T.B held on?
a)Geneva
b) Vienna
c) Singapore
d) Cape Town
e) None of these
Q.142. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the report of National Rural
HealthMission?
(A) According to it nearly 8% primary health centres do not have a doctor.
(B) According to it about 39%were running without a lab technician and about 17.7%without
apharmacist.
(C) The country's 22669 primary health centres were facing acute shortage of trained
medicalpersonals.
(D) The condition of 3910 community health centres supposed to provide specialized medicalcare.
a) A, B and C
b) B and D
c) All are true
d) A, C and D
e) None of these
Q.143. According to the current report of Inter Government Panel on Climate change (IPCC), the
averagetemperature of our earth is currently 15.80 Celsius what would be its average temperature
in theyear 2100?
a) 280 C
b) 250C
c) 210 C
d) 260 C
e) None of these
Q.144. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the mid-term review of the annual
policyannounced by the RBI? Page 24

a) The Reserve Bank of India has hiked the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 50 bases points to7.5%with
effect from November 10.
b) Hike of 50 bases points in CRR will suck out Rs. 16000 cr. from the system.
c) The RBI left the key rates such as repo, reserve repo and bank rate unchanged
d) The Policy said that inflation would be contained close to 5 percent during 2007-08.
e) All are true.
Q.145. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about theMinistry of NewandRenewable
Energy?
(A) It has celebrated its Silver Jubilee Year.
(B) Under this ministry about 40 lakh biogas plants are under operation.
(C) The different wind power plants are producing 75000MW wind power under the ministry,which
is at fourth position globally.
a) Only A
b) A and B
c) All are true
d) B and C
e) None of these
Q.146. Who has sworn in as the caretaker Prime Minister of Pakistan?
a) Nawaz Sharif
b) SoomroMuhummedmian
c) Benzir Bhutto
d) Chaudhry Shujaat Hussain
e) None of these
Q.147. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE about ASEAN declaration on greening the
regionby 2020?
a) The main aim of ASEAN declaration is to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases.
b) More than 10 million hectares of trees will be planted by the members of ASEAN.
c) The declaration will also urge themember countries to promote coral reef protection.
d) 1, 2 and 3
e) None of these
Q.148. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh'sRussia visit?
(A) During this visit India and Russia will be ready to launch an ambitious Chandrayaan- 2, ajoint
unmanned lunar exploration programme.
(B) Both sides have decided to jointly develop and build multi-role transport aircraft.
(C) They also signed an agreement on drug trafficking and on the rupee-rouble debt.
a) A and B
b) Only B
c) B and C
d) All are true
e) None of these
Q.149. "World Energy Conference" was held in which of the following city?
a)Rome
b) Bali
c) Beijing
d)Mumbai Page 25

e) None of these
Q.150. Which of the following bank has entered into an agreement with UK based legal and
GeneralGroup to set up a Life Insurance Venture?
a) Punjab National Bank
b) Bank of Baroda
c)Allahabad Bank
d) SBI
e) None of these
Q.151. About how much railway station has been used as the "Krishi Outlet" according to the
RailwayMinistry?
a) 800
b) 1375
c) 7500
d) 10000
e) None of these
Q.152. How much many billion dollars have been attracted as FDI in India in the first half of 2007-
08?
a) $ 37 bn.
b) $ 49 bn.
c) $ 56 bn.
d) $ 28 bn.
e) None of these
Q.153. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Aravali Super Thermal Power Plant?
(A) It is a joint venture of NTPC, Delhi and Haryana Government.
(B) This is a coal based power plant, which will provide electricity to Delhi and Haryana.
(C) This power plant will have three units of 500 MW each.
(D) It will set up in Jhajjar with the 50:50 share of Delhi and Haryana Government.
a) A and B
b) All are true
c) B,C and D
d) A,C and D
e) None of these
Q.154. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Aam Admi Bima Yojana?
(A) This scheme has been launched onGandhi Jayanti for the benefit of rural landless households.
(B) The Centre, State Union Territory Governments present this scheme administered by LIC forrural
landless households.
(C) The member should be aged between 18 to 59 years.
(D) The premium under the scheme shall be Rs. 200 out of which 50%shall be subsidized fromthe
fund created by the Central Government and the remaining 50%shall be contributed bythe State
Government.
(E) It provides a cover of Rs. 30000 to the member for Natural death while Rs. 75000 on deathdue to
an accident.
a) A,B and C
b) B,C and D
c) All are true
d) B,D and E Page 26

e) None of these
Q.155. At which place a two day summit of SAARC countries on the support of United Nations Office
onDrug and Crime to reduce women and child trafficking held?
a) Hyderabad
b) New Delhi
c) Lucknow
d) Nagpur
e) None of these
Q.156. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the participatory notes (PNs) by
ForeignInstitutional Investors?
(A) SEBI has proposed an immediate ban on issue of PN with underlying derivatives.
(B) It has also proposed a restriction on issue of PN with underlying shares.
(C) FIIs are required to wind up outstanding PNs over 18 months.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) All are true
e) None of these
Q.157. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the National Family and Health Survey-
3(NFHS-3)?
(A) It has put the HIV prevalence rate in the country at 0.28 percent compared to 0.36
percentclaimed by the National AIDS Control Organization (NACO).
(B) The prevalence rate amongmen is 0.36 percent which is higher than the rate among womeni.e.
0.22 percent.
(C) For bothmen and women the prevalence is highest in the 30-34 age groups and the rate is
40percent higher in cities than in rural areas.
a) Only A
b) A and B
c) All are true
d) A and C
e) None of these
Q.158. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the recommendation of Deepak
ParekhCommittee on Infrastructure Financial estimates?
(A) According to it about Rs. 1900000 crore needed for the infrastructure sector over next fiveyears.
(B) For Power sector Rs. 800000 crore is needed over next 7 years.
(C) For Roads Rs. 200000 crore is needed over next five year.
(D) For telecom sector Rs. 88000 crore is needed.
a) A and B
b) A,C and D
c) All are true
d) B and D
e) None of these
Q.159. What is the National Birth Rate, according to NSSO?
a) 16.25%
b) 31.46%
c) 23.80% Page 27

d) 28.54%
e) None of these
Q.160. By which years have India, Brazil and South Africa committed themselves to increasing
tradeamong themselves to $15 bn.?
a) 2010
b) 2009
c) 2012
d) 2015
e) None of these
Q.161. Upto which years will Revenue Deficit is totally phased out, according to Central
Government?
a) 2007-08
b) 2009-10
c) 2008-09
d) 2010-11
e) None of these
Q.162. Which of the following leading industrialist families of India got the 'CarnegieMedal of
Philanthropy'?
a) Sahara Group
b) Ambani Group
c) Tata Group
d) Bharti Group
e) None of these
Q.163. The International Monetary Fund has warned that the continued expansion of Global
Economywill slow down due to the recent-----.
a) Terrorist attacks on different places
b) Increasing level of GlobalWarming
c) Financial Turmoil
d) Indo-US Nuclear Deal
e) None of these
Q.164. Who has been selected for Gandhi Global Non-Violence Award?
a) Desmond Tutu
b) NelsonMandela
c) Bill Clinton
d) Shirin Ebadi
e) None of these
Q.165. GSLV-F04 satellite launch vehicle has successfully put------satellite INSAT-4CR in orbit.
a) Defence
b) Communication
c) Agricultural
d)Weather
e) None of these
Q.166. Howmany Central Public Sector Enterprises have got SCOPEMeritorious Awards for 2005-06?
a) 6 Page 28

b) 8
c) 15
d) 12
e) None of these
Q.167. Who said that there is a need of World Space Council?
a) A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
b) Adam Griffith
c) SunitaWilliams
d) George. W.Bush
e) None of these
Q.168. Who got the Basav Award, the highest civilian honour of Karnataka?
a)G.Madhavan Nair
b)Rahul Dravid
c)Manmohan Singh
d) Mahesh Bhupati
e) None of these
Q.169. Which of the following age group people get benefitted under the old age pension scheme
whoare under the below poverty level?
a) 50 yrs.
b) 60 yrs.
c) 65 yrs.
d) 55 yrs.
e) None of these
Q.170. Which state government has announced to give 4%reservation in educational institution to
sociallyand educationally backward Muslims?
a)West Bengal
b) Andhra Pradesh
c)Maharashtra
d) Kerala
e) None of these
Q.171. Which among the following films has been selected as the official entry of India to
OscarAwards?
a) Chak De India
b) Eklavya -The Royal Guard
c) Lage RahoMunnabhai
d) Parzania
e) None of these
Q.172. Upto howmuch percent the Central Government has reduced the foreign direct investment
limitin internet services?
a) 24%
b) 54%
c) 74%
d) 85%
e) None of these Page 29

Q.173. The Public Sector Banks has disturbed Agricultural credit of approximately how many crore
inthe financial year 2006-07?
a) Rs.104137 cr.
b) Rs.94278 cr.
c) Rs. 142211 cr.
d) Rs.182560 cr.
e) None of these
Q.174. What is the rank of India in Asia Pacific Region according to a report on Merger and
Acquisitionin Banking Sector?
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
e) None of these
Q.175. According to Reserve Bank of India howmuch amount has been required the recapitalization
ofRegional Rural Banks?
a) Rs. 14000cr
b) Rs. 1800cr
c) Rs. 14500cr
d) Rs. 20000cr
e) None of these
TEST - IV
ENGLISHLANGUAGE
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain wordsare
printed in BOLD to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
It is difficult to imagine the extraordinary number of controls on Indian industry before1991
Entrepreneurs needed permission to invest and could bepenalized for exceeding production
capacity. Even with the given investment capacity they had, entering certain areas wasprohibited as
these were reserved for the public sector. If they had to import anything, theyrequired licenses. To
get these licenses was tough, they had to persuade a bureaucrat that the item was required but
even so permission was unavailable if somebodywas already producing itin India. The impact of the
'reforms was not instantaneously and permanentlywonderful. In India'scase it began to show after
about a year and-a-half. After 1993, there came three years of rapidindustrial growth of about 8% or
so. But, in the second half of the 90s there was a tapering ofindustrial growth and investment. After
1997 and the East Asian crisis there was global slowdownwhich had an impact on the Indian
industry. But, the last few years there has been a tremendous upturn.With the rise of investment
industrial growth has reached double or close.
However even during the period when industrial growth was not that rapid, there is a lotof
evidence that positive results of the reforms were seen. There were companies that didn't lookat all
internally but instead performed remarkably in the highly competitive global market. Forinstance,
the software sector's performance was outstanding in an almost totally global market.Reliance built
a world-class refinery. Tatas developed an indigenously designed car. The success of the software
sector has created much higher expectations from and much high confidence in what Indian industry
can do. On the Government's side it's a vindication that liberalization of both domestic and external
policies, including the increased inflow of Foreign DirectInvestment, has created an environment in
which industry can do well, has done well and ispreparing to do even better. What they need is not
sops, but good quality infrastructure. For the11th Plan an industrial growth rate of around 12%is
projected. It will havemethods of developinginfrastructure, which will close the deficit. This can be Page 30

done through increased investment inpublic sector for those infrastructure areas, which cannot
attract private investment, and throughefforts to improve private participation in different ways of
public- private participation.
In the early stages of reforms, the liberalization of trade policies and a shift to a market-
determined exchange rate had the effect of removing constraints on agriculture in terms of
depressed prices. The removal of protection on industry helped to produce amore level playing
field,because the earlier system was extremely unfair to agriculture. The lesson to be learnt from
thereforms process is to persevere in reforming the strategic parts of the economy, which will lead
toeven higher growth rate.India has to do better than its current average growth rate of 8%and
ensurethat benefits from this higher growth go beyond industryand urban areas and extend to
agriculture.
Q.176. Which of the following was NOT a restriction on Indian industry prior to 1991?
(A) A private business needed government sanction to invest in any sector
(B) Industrial growth had to bemaintained at a certain percentage fixed by the government.
(C) It was difficult to obtain licenses.
a) All A, B and C
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Both A and C
e) None of these
Q.177. How did software companies deal with slow industrial growth in an open Indian economy?
a) They focused on strengthening their position in the domestic market.
b) They campaigned for infrastructure development.
c) They diversified into different sectors.
d) They entered into partnerships with public sector enterprises in reserved sectors.
e) They targeted global markets.
Q.178. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(A) India experienced a slowdown in growth during the late 1990s because initially the
economicgrowth rate was too rapid.
(B) There were a few stringent regulations on Indian industries which kept economic growthbelow
12%
(C) Companies did not get import licenses for goods if they were being indigenously produced.
a) Only A
b) Both B & C
c) Both A and B
d) All A,B and C
e) None of these
Q.179. Why was investment by private businesses disallowed in certain sectors?
a) To ensure proper development in these sectors
b) To prevent corruption in key sectors like infrastructure
c) To ensure steady not inconsistent growth in key sectors
d) To protect the interests of the public sector in these sectors
e) None of these
Q.180. What was the impact of the flourishing Indian software sector?
a) Other companies were unable to be competitive in the global market
b) It fuelled expectations of a good performance from the Indian economy. Page 31

c) Growth rate rose to 12%.
d) It created cut throat competition among software companies which would hinder the sector inthe
long run.
e) None of these
Q.181. Which of the following factors was responsible for the fall In India's growth rate in the late
1990s?
a) The implementation of economic reforms was too rapid.
b) It was expected after achieving & high growth rate of 10%.
c) There was a slowdown in the global economy.
d) There were sanctions against East Asian countries byWTO.
e) The software sector grew but the other sectors were neglected.
Q.182. Which of the following can be said about the reforms of 1991?
a) They benefited Indian industry immediately
b) All Indian companies began to focus on indigenous development instead of looking
foropportunities abroad.
c) They were targeted only at the software sector.
d) India was among the worst affected countries by the East Asian economic crisis because ithad
opened up its economy
e) They encouraged foreign direct Investment in India.
Q.183. What does the author recommend to ensure that the industrial sector continues to perform
better?
a) Subsidies should be provided in infrastructure development
b) Government should keep control of and monitor all infrastructure projects.
c)Wipe out any infrastructure deficit by transferring responsibility of those projects to the
privatesector
d) Ensure a combination of public and private sector involvement in developing infrastructure,
e) None of these
Q.184. What is the author's opinion about the government's decision to liberalise the economy in
1991?
a) It was beneficial because it created confidence in the Indian economy.
b) The timing was wrong since the economy experienced a slowdown in growth rate,
c) It led to a focus on software and other sectors were neglected
d) Foreign companies took advantage of the new policies and exploited certain sectors
e) None of these
Q.185. How did the economic reforms affect the agriculture sector?
a) A system of market determined exchange rate was introduced.
b) Constraints in agriculture increased.
c) Prices were depressed because there was a removal of protection of the sector.
d) Agriculture growth rate doubled.
e) The agriculture sector was not a part of the reforms process.
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold asused in the
passage.
Q.186. extraordinary
a) unusual
b) wonderful Page 32

c) rare
d) beautiful
e) small
Q.187. rise
a) stand
b) increase
c) slope
d) upward
e) progress
Q.188. projected
a) discussed
b) needed
c) estimated
d) achieved
e) thrown
Choose the word which Is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bald as used inthe
passage.
Q.189. attract
a) ugly
b) offend
c) push
d) sick
e) repel
Q.190. persevere
a) give up
b) hide
c) chase
d) disturb
e) slope
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in onepart of
the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Q.191. There is a shortage/ for qualified staff / in many software / companies in India.
a)There is a shortage
b)for qualified staff
c)in many software
d)companies in India
e)No error
Q.192. Mr. Bajaj has resigned / from the post of the Director /which he holds / for over ten years.
a)Mr. Bajaj has resigned
b)from the post of the Director
c)which he holds
d)for over ten years
e)No error Page 33

Q.193. To improve its efficiency / all income tax officers / will be provided with / laptops by next
year.
a)To improve its efficiency
b)all income tax officers
c)will be provided with
d)laptops by next year
e)No error
Q.194. He was not a / good manager because / he did not know / what to react in a crisis.
a)He was not a
b)good manager because
c)he did not know
d)what to react in a crisis
e)No error
Q.195. The Reserve Bank of India are / responsible for ensuring / that the banking sector/
functionseffectively.
a)The Reserve Bank of India are
b)responsible for ensuring
c)that the banking sector
d)functionseffectively
e)No error
Q.196. Since most of the / employees were in / favour of the merger / it was a success.
a)Since most of the
b)employees were in
c)favour of the merger
d)it was a success
e)No error
Q.197. According to the survey /more of forty percent / of Indians do not/ have access to banks.
a)According to the survey
b)more of forty percent
c)of Indians do not
d)have access to banks
e)No error
Q.198. Ram will be suspended / because he opened an account / without obtaining none /of
thenecessary documents.
a)Ram will be suspended
b)because he opened an account
c)without obtaining none
d)of thenecessary documents
e)No error
Q.199. Mr Patil has approached / the bank for / a loan to finance / his son college education.
a)Mr Patil has approached
b)the bank for
c)a loan to finance
d)his son college education
e)No error Page 34

Q.200. Inspite of living / in Kerala for two years / he yet does / not speak Malayalam.
a)Inspite of living
b)in Kerala for two years
c)he yet does
d)not speak Malayalam
e)No error
In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. Those arenumbered
as a)b)c) and d)One of these four words printed in boldmay by either wrongly speltor inappropriate
in the context of the sentence Find out the word,which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The
number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctlyspell and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence,mark e) i.e. 'All Correct' as your answer.
Q.201. In his speech Mr. Leeladhar revealed that banks have to comply with Basel norms last
byMarch next year.
a)revealed
b)comply
c)norms
d) last
e)All correct
Q.202. The government is commited to providingworld class infrastructure to sustain extensive
growthof industries.
a)commited
b)sustain
c)extensive
d) growth
e)All correct
Q.203. The entire process of assinging projects has undergone a charge.
a)entire
b)process
c)assinging
d)undergone
e) All correct
Q.204. The schemewas launched to allowa customer to knowthe states of his loan application.
a) scheme
b)launched
c)allow
d)states
e)AllCorrect
Q.205. The objective of the seminar was to raise awareness about the consequences of corruption.
a)objective
b)raise
c)awareness
d) consequences
e)All Correct Page 35

Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given belowshould replace the phrase given in bold inthe
following sentences tomake the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct asit is and
there is no correction required mark e) i e. 'No correction required' as the answer.
Q.206. The appointments to these posts were temporarily so we shall have to apply to other
companies.
a) is temporary
b) being temporarily
c) will be temporarily
d) are temporary
e) No correction required
Q.207. In our opinion Mr. Dayal's son has carry forward the business well in his absence,
a) carried through
b) been carried out
c) carried on
d) seen carrying away
e) No correction required
Q.208. We have reliably Inform that the new branch will not open till next year.
a) reliably to inform
b) reliable information
c) informed reliability
d) to be reliably inform
e) No correction required
Q.209. In anticipation of the transport strike we have decided for delayed our vacation
a) to delay
b) on delay
c) in delaying
d) delaying
e) No correction required
Q.210. You cannot dismiss him unless you had good reason.
a) until having
b) without
c) except you have
d) if there being
e) No correction required
Arrange the following sin sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence toform a
paragraph; then answer [he questions given below them
(A) He then hid nearby to watch and see who would remove it.
(B) He saw a purse full of gold lying in the middle of the road. It was the king's reward for theperson
who did something about the problem.
(C) The king was tired of his subjects only complaining but doing nothing to solve their problems.
(D) A youth on his way to market saw the stone, put down his produce and rolled the stone to
theside of the road.
(E) Many people passed by but dodged their duty of moving the stone instead blaming the kingfor
not keeping the highways clear.
(F) One day he placed a heavy stone in the middle of the road.
Q.211. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? Page 36

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) F
Q.212. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Q.213. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Q.214. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Q.215. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered,these numbers are
printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which tits theblank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Our company has set up a foundation which is (216) to spreading literacy. To (217) this
cause thefoundation has a project called 'A Library for Every School' through (218) the foundation
donatesbooks mainly to government school libraries so that children have easy (219) to books on
varietyof subjects. In my (220) as Chairperson of the foundation I travel (221) in rural areas. All
thistravelling has (222) me to understand what children want to read in different parts of the
country.(223) my travels I frequently stay in the houses of people I meet as (224) there are no hotels
insmall towns and villages that I visit. In India a guest is always treated well; an old Sanskrit sayingis
'Atithi Devo Bhava' (225) that God comes in the form of a guest.
Q.216.
a) trying
b) catered
c) involved
d) dedicated
e) responsible Page 37

Q.217.
a) aim
b) contribute
c) perform
d) awaken
e) further
Q.218.
a)whom
b) where
c) these
d) those
e) which
Q.219.
a) purchase
b) access
c) contact
d) opportunity
e) admission
Q.220.
a) role
b) knowledge
c) order
d) feeling
e) decision
Q.221.
a) extremely
b) hastily
c) sometime
d) extensively
e) somehow
Q.222.
a) enabled
b) deprived
c)made
d) ensured
e) provided
Q.223.
a) From
b) Through
c) Besides
d) During
e) Since
Q.224. Page 38

a) neither
b) often
c) either
d) while
e) actual
Q.225.
a) fearing
b) imply
c) naturally
d) threatens
e)meaning
ANSWERS
Q.1
D
Q.2
B
Q.3
C
Q.4
E
Q.5
C
Q.6
A
Q.7
B
Q.8
B
Q.9
B
Q.10 D
Q.11 A
Q.12 C
Q.13 B
Q.14 E
Q.15 D
Q.16 D
Q.17 E
Q.18 E
Q.19 D
Q.20 B
Q.21 D
Q.22 B
Q.23 C
Q.24 A
Q.25 E
Q.26 B
Q.27 A
Q.28 C
Q.29 E
Q.30 C
Q.31 C
Q.32 B
Q.33 D
Q.34 E
Q.35 A
Q.36 E
Q.37 B
Q.38 A
Q.39 D
Q.40 B
Q.41 B
Q.42 D
Q.43 C
Q.44 D
Q.45 B
Q.46 C
Q.47 A
Q.48 B
Q.49 E
Q.50 E
Q.51 E
Q.52 E
Q.53 E
Q.54 B
Q.55 A
Q.56 C
Q.57 D
Q.58 A
Q.59 B
Q.60 C
Q.61 B
Q.62 C
Q.63 D
Q.64 B
Q.65 D
Q.66 D
Q.67 A
Q.68 E
Q.69 D
Q.70 A
Q.71 D
Q.72 A
Q.73 B
Q.74 D
Q.75 E
Q.76 E
Q.77 C
Q.78 D
Q.79 B
Q.80 E
Q.81 E
Q.82 C
Q.83 D
Q.84 B
Q.85 A
Q.86 C
Q.87 B
Q.88 D
Q.89 E
Q.90 B
Q.91 D
Q.92 A
Q.93 C
Q.94 B
Q.95 E
Q.96 C
Q.97 A
Q.98 B
Q.99 E
Q.100 D
Q.101 C
Q.102 D
Q.103 D
Q.104 A
Q.105 A
Q.106 E
Q.107 A
Q.108 C
Q.109 D
Q.110 B
Q.111 C
Q.112 D
Q.113 E
Q.114 A
Q.115 B
Q.116 C

TEST – I GENERALAWARENESS
Q.1. Who has been appointed as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
a) Hans Raj Bhardwaj
b) DevanandKonwar
c) Rameshwar Thakur
d) R.L. Bhatia
e) None of these
Q.2. JeevMilkha Singh is related to _______.
a) Tennis
b) Football
c) Golf
d) Chess
e) None of these
Q.3. KarlMalden who passed away recentlywas a famous______.
a) Politician
b) Sportsman
c) Actor
d) Singer
e) None of these
Q.4. Who is the author of the book "The Making of Barack Obama”?
a) Imran Sheikh
b) R.S. Sharma
c) AmartyaSen
d) RichardWolffe
e) None of these
Q.5. When is the International Youth Day celebrated?
a) July 11
b) August 12
c) September 21
d) June 5
e) None of these
Q.6. Central Statistical Organisation is set up during______
a) 1950-57
b) 1951-52
c) 1952-53
d) 1942-43
e) None of these
Q.7. Regional Rural Banks are the Brain child of_____
a) C. Rangrajan
b) M.Swaminathan Page 2

c) K.C. Niyogi
d) R. Gadgil
e) None of these
Q.8. The largest source of National Income in India is______-
a) Service sector
b) Agricultural Sector
c) Industrial sector
d) Trade sector
e) None of these
Q.9. Which Indian Bank has maximum branch is abroad?
a) Bank of Hindustan
b) State Bank of India
c) Bank of Baroda
d) Canara Bank
e) None of these
Q.10. About how much amount has been approved byCentralGovernment for "PradhanMantriAdarsh"
Gram Yojana" in Budget 2009-10?
a) Rs. 100 cr.
b) Rs. 250 cr.
c) Rs. 285 cr.
d) Rs. 300 cr.
e) None of these
Q.11. How many community colleges are established by government to trained the unskilled person
toimprove their skills?
a) 630
b) 670
c) 600
d) 580
e) None of these
Q.12. How many T-20 tanks are included in Indian Army to strengthen its condition?
a) 50
b) 52
c) 59
d) 49
e) None of these
Q.13. Recently to which bank RBI said to make clearer norm about NPAs?
a) State Bank of India
b) Urban Co-operative Bank
c) Rural Co-operative Bank
d) Allahabad Bank
e) None of these
Q.14. Government approved_____amount for Rural electrification in budget 2009-10. Page 3

a) Rs. 3000 cr.
b) Rs. 7000 cr.
c) Rs. 5000 cr.
d) Rs. 4000 cr.
e) None of these
Q.15. In which city the first EMU Train is launched?
a) Delhi
b) Bangalore
c) Kolkata
d) Bangalore
e) None of these
Q.16. Which of the following countries has launched the World Largest Commercial Satellite?
a) Russia
b) North Korea
c) USA
d) India
e) None of these
Q.17. Who has been appointed as the new Foreign Secretary of Bangladesh?
a) NirupamaRao
b) MijarulQuayes
c) Shiv ShankarMenon
d) M. TouhidHossein
e) None of these
Q.18. Which of the following banks have won the Model Bank Award for 2009?
a) Indian Bank
b) Punjab National Bank
c) Canara Bank
d) Corporation Bank
e) None of these
Q.19. RailwayMinister has announced that____"Adarsh Stations" will be established?
a) 375
b) 400
c) 425
d) 455
e) None of these
Q.20. Goa carbon will be launched its wholly owned subsidiary unit in which country?
a) America
b) China
c) France
d) Japan
e) None of these
Q.21. Who has been appointed as the Secretary in the department of Defence? Page 4

a) Vijay Singh
b) Madhukar Gupta
c) S.N. Menon
d) Raj Kumar Singh
e) None of these
Q.22. Which country comes at the top in the emission Green House Gases?
a) America
b) France
c) China
d) India
e) None of these
Q.23. Which of the following company is the subsidiary of Indian oil cooperation?
a) Manali Petroleum Corporation
b) Chennai PetroleumCorporation
c) Madras Petroleum Corporation
d) Bengal PetroleumCorporation
e) None of these
Q.24. Which of the following Tax is imposed by Central Government?
a) Service Tax
b) Entertainment Tax
c) Sale Tax
d) Land Tax
e) None of these
Q.25. Which Bank started Kiosc Banking in Rural sectors?
a) Corporation Bank
b) State Bank of India
c) Bank of India
d) Allahabad Bank
e) None of these
Q.26. Which of the following state is the largest producer of Tobacco in India?
a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Kerala
e) None of these
Q.27. In Budget 2008-09, About how much additional amount is approved for NREGA?
a) Rs. 400000 cr.
b) Rs. 39100 cr.
c) Rs. 35100 cr.
d) Rs. 45100 cr.
e) None of these
Q.28. In Rajasthan_____-launches "Mini Bank Scheme". Page 5

a) Gramin Bank
b) State Bank of India
c) Allahabad Bank
d) Corporation Bank
e) None of these
Q.29. What is the recent forecast of IMF about economic growth of India?
a) 5.4%
b) 4.7%
c) 9.8%
d) 7.8%
e) None of these
Q.30. Recently which of the following countries has made law for Rural Land Disputes?
a) China
b) Russia
c) India
d) Bangladesh
e) None of these
Q.31. Which of the following countries is the Major Asian Investor in India during 2008?
a) Dubai
b) Singapore
c) Malaysia
d) China
e) None of these
Q.32. "BrainGain" scheme is related to____.
a) Education
b) InfrastructureDevelopment
c) Indian Culture
d) Poverty
e) None of these
Q.33. Which of the following countries celebrate "Bastil Day" as "National Day”?
a) Russia
b) France
c) Japan
d) Thailand
e) None of these
Q.34. Which of the following statements is/are true about Kiosc Banking?
(A) It will provide banking facilities to Rural India.
(B) This banking is started under "State Wide Area Network" scheme.
(C) State Bank of India started this project in Rajasthan
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) A and B
d) All Page 6

e) None of these
Q.35. Recently which country joins membership of InternationalMonetary Fund (IMF)?
a) Bangladesh
b) Kosovo
c) China
d) North Korea
e) None of these
Q.36. How many outlet stores will be opened by Zudas France in India?
a) 290
b) 280
c) 250
d) 270
e) None of these
Q.37. Who is appointed as Chairman of National Developmental Council?
a) Dr.Manmohan Singh
b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
c) NirupamaRao
d) Shiv ShankarMenon
e) None of these
Q.38. With which Bank Tata Motor signed an agreement for purchasing Fiat cars?
a) State Bank of India
b) Allahabad Bank
c) Canara Bank
d) Punjab National Bank
e) None of these
Q.39. Book "India and Global Economic crises” is written by-
a) Ruskin Bond
b) Salman Rushdie
c) Y.V. Reddy
d) AmartyaSen
e) None of these
Q.40. About how much amount has been allocated for Defence Sector in Budget 2009-10?
a) Rs. 17006 cr.
b) Rs. 146100 cr.
c) Rs. 147100 cr.
d) Rs. 141703 cr.
e) None of these
Q.41. Q.IP. stands for–
a) Qualified Investment Placement
b) Qualify Investment Program.
c) Qualified Institutional Placement.
d) Qualified Institution Placement. Page 7

e) None of these
Q.42. Which of the following actors are nominated for 12th Rajiv Gandhi Award?
a) Saif Ali Khan
b) ShahidKapoor
c) Sharukh Khan
d) Amitabh Bachchan
e) None of these
Q.43. Who is appointed as Home secretory of India?
a) Rahul Khullar
b) N. M. Nelkani
c) G.K. Pillai
d) S.S. Menon
e) None of these
Q.44. Who was the Author of Book "Boys will be Boys"?
a) MohammadHanif
b) Ruskin Bond
c) RichardWolfee
d) AmartyaSen
e) None of these
Q.45. 7 July is celebrated as_______-
a) International CooperativeDay
b) International Laughing Days
c) International Population Day
d) International Environmental Day
e) None of these
Q.46. Fiat Money is known as–
a) Legally declaredMoney
b) AdvanceMoney
c) Soft Money
d) Hot Money
e) None of these
Q.47. Finance commission is included under____of Indian constitution.
a) Article 180
b) Article 220
c) Article 280
d) Article 260
e) None of these
Q.48. In the recently released Monetary Policy of RBI which rate is remain unchanged?
a) Cash Reserve Ratio
b) Statutory Liquid Ratio
c) Bank Rate
d) All Page 8

e) None of these
Q.49. Howmany countries are included in Human Development Report which is released by UNO?
a) 176
b) 179
c) 177
d) 165
e) None of these
Q.50. Which one is not included in the Indian economy?
a) M1
b) M2
c) M3
d) Both and
e) None of these
TEST 2 - English Language
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases
have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminishedif
nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was
done by scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR).While global temperatures
would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massivelosses of
Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significantsea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,”
said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the world were to
implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added.
Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial
era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly
carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts
per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional
warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European
Union has called for dramaticcuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a
series of global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They
assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast,
emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results showed
that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees
Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures
would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions
were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 45.0 ppm would
have other impacts, according to the climate modeling study.
Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimeters
(about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimeters (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the summertime would
shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposedto shrinking at least three-
quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half. Page 9

Q.51. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions
?
a) As global warming is not an issue of concern.
b) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate
change.
c) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts.
d) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide.
e) None of these
Q.52. What would NOT be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Temperatures will stop soaring
b) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace
c) The rise in sea level would be lesser
d) All of the above would be the impact
e) None of these
Q.53. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century?
(A) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius.
(B) Arctic warming would be reduced by half.
(C) Thermal expansion will stop completely.
a) Only (A)
b) Only (A) and (B)
c) Only (B) and (C)
d) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
e) None of these
Q.54. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of
climate change”?
a) Climate change can be stopped completely.
b) Climate change can be regularized.
c) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively.
d) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized.
e) None of these
Q.55. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies?
a) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about degree
b) So that they could stabilize the climate change
c) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
d) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
e) None of these
Q.56. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions?
a) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius
b) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches
c) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100
d) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth
e) None of these
Q.57. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage? Page 10

a) A study of the rise in water level
b) A study of rise in temperatures
c) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions
d) A study of the Arctic region
e) A study of change in seasons
Q.58. Which of the following statements is TRUE in context of the passage?
a) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm.
b) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.
c) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during .the pre-industrial era.
d) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.
e) None of these
Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Q.59. PREDOMINANTLY
a) clearly b) aggressively c) mainly d) firstly e) faintly
Q.60. MASSIVE
a) tall b) tough c) total d) little e) severe
Q.61. SHRINK
a) contract b) physician c) wither d) shrivel e) reduce
Q.62. DRAMATIC
a) unprecedented b) thrilling c) spectacular d) effective e) feeble
Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Q.63. OPPOSED
a) resistant
b) against
c) favouring
d) similar
e) agree
Q.64. DIMINISHED
a) created
b) rose
c) increased
d) lessen
e) finished
Q.65. SIGNIFICANT
a) substantial
b) minuscule
c) incoherent
d) unimportant Page 11

e) irrelevant
Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in boldin the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given
and no correction is required, mark e) as the answer.
Q.66. Naturally, with everything gone so wellfor them, it was time for celebration.
a) go so well
b) going so well
c) gone as well
d) going as well
e) No correction required
Q.67. The ban was imposed by the state’s commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a
certain community, which had threat to burncinema halls screening the controversial movie.
a) had threats of burning
b) had threated to burn
c) had threatened to burn
d) had threatened to burning
e) No correction required
Q.68. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the
match tomorrow in Pune.
a) will be inaugurating
b) is inauguration
c) will inaugurating
d) is inaugurate
e) No correction required
Q.69. At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang
beautifully and made the evening truly memorable.
a) come forward
b) come to the fore
c) came to the forth
d) came to the fore
e) No correction required
Q.70. Although scared of heights, she gather all her courageand stood atop the 24-storey building to
participate in the activities.
a) gathered all her courage
b) gathered all courageous
c) gather all courageous
d) is gathered all courage
e) No correction required
Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Q.71. Along with a sharp rise in _______, a recession would eventually result in more men, women, and
children living in_______. Page 12

a) crime, apathy
b) fatalities, poor
c) deaths, slums
d) unemployment, poverty
e) migrations, streets
Q.72. Behaving in a________and serious way, even in a________situation, makes people respect you.
a) calm, difficult
b) steady, angry
c) flamboyant, tricky
d) cool, astounding
e) silly, sound
Q.73. An air place with_________passengers on board made an unscheduled______as the airport to which
it was heading was covered with thick fog.
a) irritable, slip
b) faulty, stop
c) variety, halt
d)tons, wait
e) numerous, landing
Q.74. The government has________to provide financial aid to the ones_______by severe floods in the city.
a) desired, troubled
b) promised, havoc
c) failed, affected
d) wanted, struck
e) decided, ill
Q.75. Deemed universities_____huge fees, but have not been successful in providing_______ education
to our students.
a) collect, maintaining
b) pay, better
c)ask, good
d) charge, quality
e) demand, quantitative
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) In turn the buyer is called the franchise.
(B) These two parties are called the franchisor and franchisee.
(C) This means that it gives permission for the buyer to use its name and sell its products.
(D) He pays money to the franchisor, and agrees to obey the rules the franchise or makes.
(E) A franchising agreement includes two parties.
(F) The franchisor is the business house/entity which grants the franchisee license.
Q.76. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)sentence after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D Page 13

d) E
e) F
Q.77. Which of the following should be the THIRDsentence after rearrangement?
a) E
b) F
c) A
d) D
e) B
Q.78. Which of the following should be the FOURTHsentence after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Q.79. Which of the following should be the FIRSTsentence after rearrangement?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Q.80. Which of the following should be the SECONDsentence after rearrangement?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
Q.81.
a) The angry at being
b)left out of the bonanza
c) is palpable among
d)employees of the organization
e) No error
Q.82.
a)There are just too few trains
b)for, the ever-growing
c)number of passengers
d)in the city.
e) No error
Q.83. Page 14

a)If all goes well,
b)the examination scheduled for next month
c) is all set to be completely free
d)from annoying power cuts and disruptions.
e) No error
Q.84.
a)His comments came after
b) the research group said that its
c) consumer confidence index were
d)slumped to its lowest level.
e) No error
Q.85.
a)The buzz at the party was
b) that a famous
c) film star and politician, would
d)probable drop by for a while.
e) No error
Q.86.
a)The President has denied
b)that the economy is in recession
c) or was go into one
d)despite a spate of downcast reports.
e) No error
Q.87.
a)Aggression in some teenage boys
b) may be linkage to overly
c)large glands in their brains,
d)a new study has found.
e) No error
Q.88.
a)The Opposition disrupted proceedings
b) in both Houses of Parliament
c)for the second consecutive day
d)above the plight of farmers in the country.
e) No error
Q.89.
a)In response to the growing crisis,
b) the agency is urgently asking for
c)more contributions,
d)to make up for its sharp decline in purchasing power.
e) No error
Q.90. Page 15

a)The tennis player easy through
b) the opening set before her opponent,
c)rallied to take the final two sets
d)for the biggest victory of her young career.
e) No error
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country’s Gross
Domestic Product (GDP) for at least two quarters. A recession is (91)by rising unemployment,
increase in government borrowing, (92)of share and stock prices, and falling investment. All Of these
characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market
declines.
The real-estate market also usually (93) before a recession. However real-estate declines can last
much longer than recessions. During an economic decline, high (94) stocks such as financial services,
pharmaceuticals and tobacco (95)to hold up better. However when the economy .starts to recover
growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and
utilities tend to (96).
In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic
downturn. These (97)high oil prices, which led to (98)high food prices due to a dependence of food
production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an
(99)to petroleum; and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis leading to the drastic bankruptcy of
large and well (100)investment banks as well as commercial banks in various, diverse nations
around the world; increased unemployment; and signs of. contemporaneous economic downturns in
major economies of the world, a global recession.
Q.91.
a) visualized
b) characterized
c) imagined
d) depict
e) shown
Q.92.
a) decrease
b) abundance
c) increase
d) variance
e) more
Q.93.
a) strengthens
b) volatile
c) weakens
d) initiates
e) awakens
Q.94. Page 16

a) result
b) payment
c) maintained
d) yield
e) heavy
Q.95.
a) yearn
b) made
c) are
d) want
e) tend
Q.96.
a) increased
b) fight
c) distribute
d) recover
e) wait
Q.97.
a) included
b) encompass
c) meant
d) show
e) numbered
Q.98.
a) healthy
b) nutritious
c) fearful
d) dangerous
e) abnormally
Q.99.
a) element
b) integral
c) alternative
d) variant
e) substitute
Q.100.
a) created
b) established
c) wealthy
d) costly
e) stand Page 17

TEST – III - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Q.101-110.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
Q.101. 65% of 240 +?% of 150 = 210
a) 45
b) 46
c) 32
d) 36
e) None of these
Q.102. 3/5of5/9 of 2/7 of 9450 =?
a) 960
b) 480
c) 450
d) 900
e) None of these
Q.103. 358.085 + 42.91 +25.55=?
a) 425.565
b) 426.545
c) 426.555
d) 425.545
e) None of these
Q.104. 45 × 390 ÷ 26 =?
a) 645
b) 675
c) 765
d) 745
e) None of these
Q.105. 140% of 56 + 56% of 140 =?
a) 78.4
b) 158.6
c) 156.6
d) 87.4
e) None of these
Q.106. 3895-1563 + 1089 =?
a) 3321
b) 3527
c) 3329
d) 3429
e) None of these
Q.107.
=
a) 28
b) 24
c) 169
d) 256 Page 18

e) None of these
Q.108. 3 + 2 - 4 =?
a) 1
b)
c) 1
d) 1
e) None of these
Q.109. 232.8× 237.2× 233.6 = 23?
a) 13.6
b) 12.6
c) 12.8
d) 13.8
e) None of these
Q.110. 2.2 × 5.6 + 17.8 =?
a) 30.12
b) 30.012
c) 31.12
d) 31.012
e) None of these
Q.111. If the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.15, 000/- in two years is Rs.2,496/-.What
is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.? .
a) 8
b) 10
c) 6
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.112. If the digits of a two digit number are interchanged, the number formed is greater than the original
number by 45. If the difference between the digits is 5.What is the original number?
a) 16
b) 27
c) 38
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Q.113. Area of a rectangle is equal to the area of circle whose radius is 14 cms. If the breadth of the
rectangle is 22 cms. What is its length?
a) 24 cms.
b) 28 cms.
c) 26 cms.
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these Page 19

Q.114. Ages of A and B are presently in the ratio of 5: 6 respectively. Six years hence this ratio will
become 6: 7 respectively. What was B’s age 5 years ago?
a) 25 years
b) 30 years
c) 36 years
d) 31 years
e) None of these
Q.115. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISPLAY be arranged?
a) 5040
b) 2520
c) 720
d) 1440
e) None of these
Q.116. Harshad bought 15 pieces of DVD.players@RS.4,500/- each and sold all of them at the total
price of Rs.81, 000/-. What is the percent profit earned in the deal?
a) 16
b) 20
c) 25
d) 20.5
e) None of these
Q.117. 75%of a number is equal to four-fifth of another number. What is the ratio between first numberand
the second number?
a) 5:3
b) 15:16
c)3:5
d) 16:15
e) None of these
Q.118. Mr. Morey spent 20% of his monthly income on food and 15% on children’s education. 40% of
the remaining he spent on entertainment and transport together and 30% on the medical. He is
left with an amount of Rs.8, 775/- after all these expenditures. What is Mr. Morey’s monthly
income?
a) Rs.40, 000/-
b) Rs.35, 000/-
c) Rs.42, 000/-
d) Rs.38, 000/-
e) None of these
Q.119. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 25% and the denominator is doubled, the fractionthus
obtained is . What is the original fraction?
a)
b)
c)
d) Cannot be determined Page 20

e) None of these
Q.120. P, Q and R invested Rs.45, 000/-, Rs. 70, 000/- and Rs. 90,000/- respectively to start a business.
At the end of two years, they earned a profit of Rs.1, 64,000/-. What will be Q’s share in the
profit?
a) Rs.56, 000/-
b) Rs.36, 000/-
c) Rs. 72, 000/-
d) Rs.64, 000/-
e) None of these
Q.121-125.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
Q.121.56? 45 184
a) 15
b) 12
c) 16
d) 9
e) None of these
Q.122. 8 4 6? 52.5
a) 9
b) 12.5
c) 15
d) 16
e) None of these
Q.123. 37 84 260? 5234
a) 306
b) 512
c) 1146
d) 1046
e) None of these
Q.124. 2 3 10? 172
a) 45
b) 39
c) 36
d) 42 e) None of these
Q.125. 7 15? 63 127
a) 32
b) 29
c) 33
d) 31
e) None of these
Q.126-130. What approximate value will come in place of the (You are not expected to calculate the
exact value.) question mark (?) in the following questions?
Q.126. (35.95)2 - (24.001)2 =? Page 21

a) 680
b) 700
c) 720
d) 740
e) 730
Q.127. 75% of 230 -? = 64% of 249
a) 14
b) 17
c) 22
d) 18
e) 20
Q.128. (24.99)2 + (31 .05)2 = (?)2
a) 45
b) 36
c) 32
d) 30
e) 40
Q.129. 367.85 ÷ 22.95 × 14.93 =?
a) 280
b) 240
c) 260
d) 220
e) 290
Q.130. 5687.285 + 4872.35 ÷12 =?
a) 5995
b) 5905
c) 6025
d) 6095
e) 6295
Q.131-135. Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
Strength (number of students) of seven institutes over the years
Institutes
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Years
2002
750
640
680
780
740
620
650
2003
700
600
720
800
720
580
720
2004
800
620
730
820
760
640
730
2005
820
660
670
760
750
560
750
2006
740
760
690
790
780
650
680
2007
720
740
700
810
730
630
690
2008
780
700
660
840
720
660
740 Page 22

Q.131. What is the ratio between total strength of institutes A, B and C together in year 2003 and the
total strength of institutes E, F and G together in 2005 respectively?
a) 103 :101
b)101 :103
c)51 : 53
d)53 : 51
e) None of these
Q.132. If in the year 2002, the overall percentage of students passed from all the institutes is 70%, total
how many students passed in 2002 from all the institutes together?
a) 3402
b) 3420
c) 3422
d) 3382
e) None of these
Q.133. If from institute B, overall 60% students passed for all the given years, approximately what is
the average number of students passed?
a) 430
b) 425
c) 390
d) 395
e)405
Q.134. Strength of institute F in the year 2004 is what percent of the total strength of that institute for all
seven years together? (rounded off to two digits after decimal).
a) 14.28
b) 14.98
c) 12.90
d) 14.75
e) None of these
Q.135. What is the difference between the total number of students in 2006 for all the institutes together
and total number of students in the year 2008 for all the institutes together?
a) 50
b) 70
c) 10
d) 30
e) None of these
Q.136-140. Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
INVESTMENTS (IN LAKH RS.) OF TWO BUSINESS PARTNERS A & B OVER THE YEARS Page 23

Q.136. What was the percent rise in A’s investment in the year 2004 from the previous year?
a) 25%
b) 20%
c) 33 %
d) 33 %
e) None of these
Q.137. What was the percent rise in investment of B in the year 2004 from 2001?
a) 45.6
b) 37.5
c) 30
d) 60
e) None of these
Q.138. What was the percent rise/fall in the total investment of A & B together from the year 2002 to
2005? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
a) 8.33%fall
b) 9.09% rise
c) 8.33% rise
d) 9.09%fall
e) None of these
Q.139. What is the ratio between total investment of A in the year 2001, 2002 and 2003 together and the
total investment of B in these three years together respectively?
a) 5:6
b) 6:5
c)15:17
d)17:15
e) None of these
Q.140. Investment of B in the year 2003 is approximately what percent of his total investment for all the
years together?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 20
d) 17 Page 24

e) 14
Q.141-145. Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
Number of students appeared and passed in an examination from five different schools over the years
Q.141. What is the ratio between the total number of students appeared from all the schools together in
the year 2004 and 2005 respectively?
a) 286 :295
b) 277: 286
c)286 : 277
d)295 : 286
e) None of these
Q.142. During year 2006, which School had the highest percentage of students passed over appeared?
a) C
b) B
c) A
d) D
e) E
Q.143. For School D, which year had the lowest percentage of students passed over appeared?
a) 2004
b) 2005
c) 2006
d) 2007
e)2008
Q.144. What was the overall percentage of students passed over the number of students appeared from
all the schools together in the year 2007? (rounded off to next integer)
a) 74
b) 73
c) 76
d) 72
e) None of these
Q.145. What is the ratio between average number of students passed from Schools B and C respectively
for all the given years?
a) 70:51
b) 70:53
c) 53:70
School
A
B
C
D
E
Year
App. Pass App. Pass App. Pass App. Pass App. Pass
2004
600 350
450 250 520 350 580 460
620 500
2005
580 250
480 300 550 420 600 480
650 550
2006
640 300
420 280 500 400 560 420
580 500
2007
650 400
460 320 560 450 620 450
660 550
2008
680 450
500 380 580 480 640 520
680 580 Page 25

d) 51:70
e) None of these
Q.146-150. Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
AVERAGEMONTHLY EXPENDITURE OFAN ORGANISATION UNDER VARIOUS HEADS
TOTAL EXPENDITURE RS. 18,50,000
Q.146. What is the difference between the expenditure on salary to staff and loans to staff?
a) Rs.37,200/-
b) Rs.35,700/-
c) Rs.37,500/-
d) Rs.35,000/-
e) None of these
Q.147. What was the total expenditure on Electricity and Water together?
a) Rs.4,25,000/-
b) Rs.4,25,500/-
c) Rs.4,22,500/-
d) Rs.4,25,800/-
e) None of these
Q.148. How much amount spent on Transport subsidy and Canteen subsidy together?
a) Rs.3,34,000/-
b) Rs.3,43,000/-
c) Rs.3,30,000/-
d) Rs.3,33,000/-
e) None of these
Q.149. Amount spent on medical to staff is what percent of the amount spent on salary?
a) 30%
b) 33%
c) 25% Page 26

d) 22%
e) None of these
Q.150. Howmuch amount spent on Telephone?
a) Rs.2,75,500/-
b) Rs.2,70,,500/-
c) Rs.2,77,500/-
d) Rs.2,77,000/-
e) None of these
TEST – IV TEST OF REASONING
Q.151. ‘JM’ is related to ‘PS’ in the same way as ‘BE’ is related to __?
a) HJ
b) HK
c) IL
d) JM
e) None of these
Q.152. Howmanymeaningful English words can bemade with the letters ‘ELRU’ using each letter onlyonce in each word?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Q.153. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to
that group?
a) Plastic
b) Nylon
c) Polythene
d) Terelyn
e) Silk
Q.154. In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is MEAN written inthat code?
a) 5216
b) 3126
c) 3216
d) 9126
e) None of these
Q.155. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one thatdoes not belong to
that group?
a) Blue
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Violet
e) Black
Q.156. Howmany such pairs of letters are there in the word STORM each of which-has as many lettersbetween them in
the word as in the English alphabet?
a) None Page 27

b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Q.157. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 53261489 are interchanged. Similarly,the positions of
the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the right end
after the rearrangement?
a) 8
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) None of these
Q.158. What should come next in the following letter series?
M L K J I H G F M L K J I H G M L K J I H M L K J I
a) K
b) N
c) H
d) M
e) None of these
Q.159. In a certain code DENIAL is written as MDCMBJ. How is SOURCE written in that code?
a) TNRFDS
b)RNTFDS
c) TNRSDF
d) TRNDBQ
e) None of these
Q.160. M is sister of D. R is brother of D. F is father of M and T is mother of R. How is D related to T?
a) Brother
b) Son
c) Daughter
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.161-166. In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II andIII? You have
to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from thethree given statements disregarding commonly known
facts. Then decide which of the answersa), b), c), d) and e) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Q.161. Statements:All stamps are packets. Some packets are buckets. All buckets are tubes.
Conclusions:I.Some tubes are stamps. II.Some buckets are stamps.III.Some tubes are packets.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only II and III follow
Q.162. Statements:All machines are crowns. All crowns are tablets. Some tablets are bottles.
Conclusions:I. Some bottles are crowns. II. Some tablets are machines.III. Some bottles are machines.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows Page 28

c) Only III follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) None of these
Q.163. Statements:All rooms are hotels. All hotels are buildings. All buildings are mountains.
Conclusions:I. Some mountains are hotels. II. Some buildings are rooms. III. Some mountains are rooms.
a) Only I and II follow
b) Only I and III follow
c) Only II and III follow
d) All I, II and III follow
e) None of these
Q.164. Statements:Some towns are villages. Some villages are lanes. Some lanes are hamlets.
Conclusions:I. Some hamlets are villages. II. Some lanes are towns.III. Some hamlets are towns.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only I and II follow
Q.165. Statements:Some rivers are hills. No hill is taxi. All taxis are buses.
Conclusions:I. Some buses are rivers. II. Some taxis are rivers. III. No bus is river.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only II follows
e) Only either I or III follows
Q.166. Statements:Some doors are windows. Some windows are lamps. All lamps are candles.
Conclusions:I. Some candles are doors. II. Some candles are windows. III. Some lamps are doors.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only I and II follow
e) None of these
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
E % 3 R 5 # A 6 B I J @ 2 9 H U 4 © M 1 * F 7 $ W 8 P N D
Q.167. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the abovearrangement?
35A l@9 4M*?
a) 7WP
b) 7W8
c) $8N
d) FWP
e) None of these
Q.168. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the abovearrangement?
a) ©
b)@
c) 3
d) P
e) None of these Page 29

Q.169. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately;preceded by a
letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Q.170. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediatelypreceded by a
consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
a)None
b)One
c)Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Q.171. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 4 U ©
b) 8 W P
c) 6 B A
d) R 3 5
e) H 9 U
Q.172. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the
left end?
a) J
b) ©
c) *
d)@
e) None of these
Q.173-178. In the following questions, the symbols@, ©, $,% and # are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of thethree conclusions I, II
and III given below them is/are definitely true.
Q.173. Statements:B % H, H $ E, E @ K Conclusions: I. K$H II. K$B III. E©B
a) None is true
b) Only III is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only I is true
e) Only I and III are true
Q.174. Statements:M # W, W % N, N $ B Conclusions: I. N % M II. N©M III. M $ B
a) Only either I or II is true
b) Only either I or III is true
c) Only either I or II and III are true Page 30

d) Only III is true
e) None of these
Q.175. Statements:M©T, T#J, J$K Conclusions: I. K©T II. M©J ,III. K @ M
a) None is true
b) Only III is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only I is true
e) Only I and II are true
Q.176. Statements:F # N, N © D, D @ R Conclusions: I. D # F II. R$N III.R $ F
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
Q.177. Statements:W@F, F$M, M©D Conclusions: I. D $ F II. W©M III.F $ D
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only II and III are true
Q.178. Statements:R © F, F # D, D @ M Conclusions I. R©D II. M % F III. M $ R
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only I and II are true
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the center. H is fourth to the left of B and second to the right
of F. A is third to the left of C who is not an immediate neighbor of F. G is second to the left of A. D is second to the right
of E.
Q.179. Who is third to the left of A?
a) C
b) F
c) B
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.180. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbors of E?
a)DH
b)HC
c) CA
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.181. Who is to the immediate right of B?
a) D
b) E Page 31

c) F
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.182. Who is to the immediate right of H?
a) E
b) C
c) H
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.183. Who is to the immediate right of F?
a) H
b) A
c) G
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Q.184. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the secondperson?
a) EH
b) CE
c) AF
d) DB
e) None of these
Q.185-190. In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/ symbols
numbered a), b), c) and d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If
none of the combinations correctly represents the .group of letters, mark e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter: F P M R E K D A I H T U J W
Digit/Symbol: 6 5 4 * 8 1 2 © 7 3 $ @ % 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be inter-changed.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.
Q.185. MUPRKE
a) 4@5*18
b) 8@5*14
c) 8@5*18
d) 4@5*14
e) None of these
Q.186. HMUIWA
a) 34@79©
b) 34@793
c) ©4@79©
d) ©4 ©793
e) None of these
Q.187. DAHITJ
a) 2©37$%
b) %©37$% Page 32

c) %©37$2
d) 2©37$2
e) None of these
Q.188. AJFIKD
a) ©1%672
b) ©%671©
c) 2%671©
d) 2%6712
e) None of these
Q.189. EWMAPH
a) 894©53
b) 394©58
c) 894©58
d) 8945©3
e) None of these
Q.190. IPDTWU
a) 752$97
b) 752$9@
c) @52$9@
d)@52$97
e) None of these
Q.191-200.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Chief Manager - Sales in an organization. The candidate must -
(i) be graduate in any discipline with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in the selection process.
(iii) be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.5.2009.
(iv) be a post graduate degree/diploma holder in Marketing/Sales Management.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least eight years in the Sales/Marketing division of an organization.
If the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT-
(A) at (ii) above but has secured more than 65 percent marks in graduation, the case is to be referred to GM-Sales.
(B) at (v) above but has post qualification work experience of at least five years as Manager - Sales ‘ in an organization,
the case is to be referred to VP-Sales.
In each question below details of one candidate are given. You are to take one of the following courses of action based
on the information and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as
the answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each case.All these cases are given
to you as on 01.05.2009.
Mark answer a) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answerb) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer c) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answerd) if the case is to be referred to the GM-Sales.
Mark answer e) if the case is to be referred to the VP-Sales,
Q.191. Mohan Das was born on 25thMarch 1976. He has secured 60 percent marks in both graduation and the selection
process. He is a first class post graduate degree holder in Management. He has been working for the last eight years in
the sales division of an organization.
Q.192. Joseph D’Souza was born on 18th February 1979. He has secured 60 percent marks in graduation and 55 percent
marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past six years as Manager-Sales in an organization after
completing his post graduate diploma in Sales Management. Page 33

Q.193. MitaKeswani has been working in the marketing division of an organization for the past eleven years after
completing her post-graduation. She has secured 62 percent marks in the selection process and 70 percent marks in
graduation. She was born on 2nd November 1978.
Q.194. PravinVohra was born on 2nd July 1972. He has been working in the sales division of an organization for the past
ten years after completing his postgraduate degree in Sales Management with 50 percent marks. He has secured 68
percent marks is graduation and 50 percent marks in the selection process.
Q.195. MeenaSrivastava has been working in the Sales division of an organization for the past twelve years after
completing her postgraduate degree in sales management with 65 percent marks. She has secured 58 percentmarks in
graduation and 57 percent marks in the selection process. She was born on 12th May 1976.
Q.196. KalpeshMehta was born on 16th February 1970. He has secured 68 percent marks in graduation and 58 percent
marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past six years as Manager-Sales in an organization after
completing his post graduate diploma in Sales.
Q.197. AbhinavShukla has secured 62 percent marks in graduation and 58 percent marks in the selection process. He has
been working in themarketing division of a company for the past nine years after completing his post graduate diploma
in Marketing with 55 percent marks. He was born on 5th August 1974.
Q.198. AkashMalhotra was born on 6th April 1975. He has been working in the sales division of a company for the past
ten years after completing his post graduate diploma in Marketing Management. He has secured 65 percent marks in
graduation and 56 percent marks in the selection process.
Q.199. SeemaMahajan was born on 12th July 1973. She has secured 56 percent marks in the selection process. She has
been working in the sales division of an organization for the past thirteen years after completing her post graduate
degree in Sales Management. She has secured 59 percent marks in graduation.
Q.200. JayantSahu has secured 52 percent marks in the selection process and 72 percent marks in graduation. He has
been working for the past twelve years in the marketing division of a company after completing his post-graduation in
Marketing Management. He was born on 19th March 1972.
Q.201-205.In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish be- tween ‘strong’
arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the
question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the
question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument a
‘strong’ argument is and which a ‘weak’ argument is.
Give answer a) if only argument I is strong.
Give answer b) if only argument II is strong.
Give answer c) if either argument I or II is strong.
Give answer d) if neither argument I nor II is strong.
Give answer e) if both arguments I and II are strong.
Q.201. Statement:Should there be no examination up to IX Std. in all the Schools in India?
Arguments: I. No, students need to go through the process of giving examinations right from the young age.
II. Yes, this will help students to think laterally and achieve their creative pursuits.
Q.202. Statement:Should the sale of tobacco products be restricted to only few outlets in eachcity/town?
Arguments: I. Yes, this will substantially reduce consumption of tobacco products.
II. No, those who want to purchase tobacco products should get them at convenient locations. Page 34

Q.203. Statement:Should the sale of all the toys made in China be banned in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, these are very cheap and hence will put the local toy manufacturers out of business.
II. No, Indian toys are of much better quality and their sale will not be affected.
Q.204. Statement:Should there be only a uniform rate of income tax irrespective of the level of income?
Arguments: I. Yes, this will substantially reduce the work of the officials of the income tax department.
II. No, this will reduce Govt. tax collection to a large extent.
Q.205. Statement:Should there be only two political parties in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, in many developed countries there are only two political-parties.
II. No, Indian electorate is not matured to select between only two political parties.
Q.206-210. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer a) if only Assumption I is implicit.
Give answer b) if only Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit.
Give answer d) if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
Give answer e) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
Q.206. Statement:Major retail store announced thirty percent reduction on all food items during the weekend.
Assumptions: I. People may still prefer buying food items from other stores.
II. Large number of customers may visit the retail store and buy food items.
Q.207. Statement:The captain of the school football team selected only fourteen players to play all the eight matches of
the interschool football competition.
Assumptions: I. There may be adequate number of football Players for all the matches.
II. The captain may be able to play in all the matches.
Q.208. Statement:The railway authorityhas rescheduled the departure time of many long distance trains and put up the
revised timing on its website.
Assumptions: I. The passengers may note the change in departure times from the website.
II. The passengersmay be able to notice the change and board their respective trains before departure.
Q.209. Statement:The school authority has decided to give five grace marks in English to all the students of Std. IX as the
performance of these students in English was below expectation.
Assumptions: I. Majority of the students of Std. IX may still fail in English even after giving grace marks.
II. Majority of the students of Std. IX may now pass in English after giving grace marks.
Q.210. Statement:The civic administration has asked the residents of the dilapidated buildings to move out as these
buildings will be demolished within next thirty days.
Assumptions: I. The civic administration may be able to demolish these buildings as per schedule.
II. The residents of these buildings may vacate and stay elsewhere.
Q.211-215. Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent
causes ormay be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be ‘the effect of the
other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer a) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answerb) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answerc) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answerd) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes. Page 35

Mark answere) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
Q.211. (A) Most of the students enrolled themselves for the educational tour scheduled for nextmonth.
(B) The school authority cancelled the educational tour scheduled for next month.
Q.212. (A) The “prices of fruits have dropped substantially during the last few days.
(B) The prices of food grains have increased substantially during the last few days.
Q.213. (A) The road traffic between the two towns in the state has been disrupted since last week.
(B) The rail traffic between the two towns in the state has been disrupted since last week.
Q.214. (A) Heavy showers are expected in the city area during next forty-eight hours.
(B) The inter-club cricket tournament scheduled for the week was called off.
Q.215. (A) Govt. has decided to distribute part of the food grain stock through Public Distribution System to people
below poverty line.
(B) There has been bumper khariff crop for the last two seasons.
Q.216-220. In each of the following questions series begins with unnumbered figure on the extreme left.One and only
one of the five numbered figures in the series doesnot fit into the series. The twounnumbered figures one each on the
extreme left and the extreme right fit into the series. Youhave to take as many aspects into account as possible of the
figures in the series and find outthe one and only one of the five numbered figures which does not fit into the series.
The numberof that figure is the answer.
Study the following question.
a)b)c)d)e)
In this question the number of lines in the figures goes on increasing by one from left to right. Ifwe go by this aspect of
‘number of lines’ only then there is no wrong figure in the series. But if wealso consider the ‘manner’ in which the
‘number of lines’ in the figures goes on increasing fromleft to right we come to know that the figure No.4 does NOT fit
into the series. Therefore, d) is theanswer.
Now solve the following questions.
Q.216.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.217.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.218. Page 36

a)b)c)d)e)
Q.219.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.220.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.221-225. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the rightshould come after the
problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
PROBLEM FIGURES
ANSWER FIGURES
Q.221.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.222.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.223.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.224.
a)b)c)d)e)
Q.225.
a)b)c)d)e)

ANSWERS
Q.1 C
Q.2 C
Q.3 C
Q.4 D
Q.5 B
Q.6 B
Q.7 B
Q.8 A
Q.9 C
Q.10 A
Q.11 C
Q.12 A
Q.13 B
Q.14 B
Q.15 C
Q.16 C
Q.17 B
Q.18 A
Q.19 A
Q.20 B
Q.21 D
Q.22 C
Q.23 B
Q.24 A
Q.25 B
Q.26 C
Q.27 B
Q.28 A
Q.29 A
Q.30 A
Q.31 B
Q.32 A
Q.33 B
Q.34 C
Q.35 B
Q.36 C
Q.37 A
Q.38 C
Q.39 C
Q.40 D
Q.41 C
Q.42 B
Q.43 A
Q.44 B
Q.45 A
Q.46 A
Q.47 C
Q.48 D
Q.49 C
Q.50 B
Q.51 B
Q.52 E
Q.53 A
Q.54 D
Q.55 E
Q.56 B
Q.57 C
Q.58 D
Q.59 C
Q.60 E
Q.61 E
Q.62 D
Q.63 D
Q.64 C
Q.65 D
Q.66 B
Q.67 C
Q.68 E
Q.69 D
Q.70 A
Q.71 D
Q.72 A
Q.73 E
Q.74 C
Q.75 D
Q.76 C
Q.77 B
Q.78 B
Q.79 E
Q.80 A
Q.81 A
Q.82 A
Q.83 C
Q.84 C
Q.85 D
Q.86 C
Q.87 B
Q.88 D
Q.89 B
Q.90 A
Q.91 B
Q.92 A
Q.93 C
Q.94 D
Q.95 E
Q.96 D
Q.97 A
Q.98 E
Q.99 C
Q.100 B
Q.101 D
Q.102 D
Q.103 B
Q.104 B
Q.105 E
Q.106 E
Q.107 E
Q.108 C
Q.109 A
Q.110 A
Q.111 A
Q.112 D
Q.113 B
Q.114 D
Q.115 A
Q.116 B
Q.117 D
Q.118 E
Q.119 C
Q.120 A
Q.121 E
Q.122 C
Q.123 D
Q.124 B
Q.125 D
Q.126 C
Q.127 A
Q.128 E
Q.129 B
Q.130 D
Q.131 B
Q.132 A
Q.133 E
Q.134 D
Q.135 C
Q.136 E
Q.137 D
Q.138 B
Q.139 A
Q.140 E
Q.141 B
Q.142 E
Q.143 D
Q.144 A
Q.145 D
Q.146 E
Q.147 B
Q.148 D
Q.149 A
Q.150 C
Q.151 B
Q.152 C
Q.153 E
Q.154 C
Q.155 E
Q.156 D
Q.157 B
Q.158 D
Q.159 A
Q.160 D
Q.161 D
Q.162 B
Q.163 D
Q.164 A
Q.165 E
Q.166 B
Q.167 C
Q.168 A
Q.169 B
Q.170 D
Q.171 C
Q.172 C

Q.173 B
Q.174 C
Q.175 D
Q.176 C
Q.177 A
Q.178 A
Q.179 C
Q.180 B
Q.181 E
Q.182 A
Q.183 B
Q.184 D
Q.185 B
Q.186 E
Q.187 D
Q.188 E
Q.189 A
Q.190 C
Q.191 A
Q.192 E
Q.193 C
Q.194 D
Q.195 B
Q.196 E
Q.197 A
Q.198 A
Q.199 B
Q.200 D
Q.201 A
Q.202 A
Q.203 D
Q.204 D
Q.205 D
Q.206 B
Q.207 D
Q.208 E
Q.209 B
Q.210 E
Q.211 D
Q.212 D
Q.213 E
Q.214 A
Q.215 D
Q.216 C
Q.217 C
Q.218 D
Q.219 A
Q.220 E
Q.221 A
Q.222 E
Q.223 B
Q.224 B
Q.225 A
__________________
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  #3  
Old November 4th, 2015, 12:04 PM
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Default Re: Where to get Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Previous year papers

Hey buddy I’m preparing for Andhra Bank Clerk Exam for that will you please get the exam paper so that I can prepare for it easily?
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  #4  
Old November 4th, 2015, 12:08 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Dec 2011
Posts: 21,910
Default Re: Where to get Andhra Bank Clerk Exam Previous year papers

As per your demand I will help you here to get the exam pape for the post of Clerk exam conducted by the Andhra Bank so that you can easily solve and score well in the exam.

Here is the exam paper of Clerk post issued by the Andhra Bank.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts andbarren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help mankind with it.

Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. Hisexploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honor.

. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these

What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these

Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these

Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these

Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British

Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only

The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only

Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these

In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these

Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
(5) most

. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation

TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived

Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque

BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy

VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5)

What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5)

When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5)

If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)

The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5)

When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)

It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5)

His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5)

Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)

He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential

Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth

. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature

If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide

I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those

In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct" as the answer.

. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct

(1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct

(1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct

(1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct

(1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct

Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).

(1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious

(1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient

. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing

(1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding

(1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated

. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed

(1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated


. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues

(1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence

. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight
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