Annamalai University Medical Entrance - 2018-2019 StudyChaCha

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Old May 24th, 2011, 05:14 PM
Prashant Jain
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Default Annamalai University Medical Entrance

I m planning to give Annamalai University Medical Entrance Exam for 2011 please let me know that after getting good merit in Exam for which all courses i will be available. What the process to fill the application form for this exam.

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Old May 24th, 2011, 06:16 PM
ratika89g's Avatar
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

--Selection of candidates for the various degree programmes will be made on the basis of the performance of the candidates in the qualifying examination and the Entrance Examination, besides the Interview.

--The marks in the prescribed subjects in the qualifying examination reduced to 200 will be added to the marks obtained out of 100 in the Entrance Examination.

-- the marks obtained in the Interview out of 30 will also be added.

The ranking and selection will be made on the basis of aggregate marks obtained out of 330.
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Old May 24th, 2011, 06:18 PM
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

Courses offered


-M.B.B.S (Permanent recognition for 150 admissions granted by MCI/GOI)
-PG Degree Programmes in 18 Subjects & PG Diploma Programmes in 10 Subjects
-B.Sc. Nursing
-M.Sc. Nursing
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Old May 25th, 2011, 04:56 PM
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

Annamalai University is one of the renowned names as far as education institutes are concerned. It provides higher education in various fields like social sciences, arts, literature, management, medical, engineering etc. The university conducts an entrance exam called All India Medical Entrance Examination to admission to its medical courses like MBBS, BDS, BPT, B.Sc (Nursing) and B Pharma.

Courses offered:
1. M.B.B.S
2. B.D.S
3. B.P.T
4. B.Sc (Nursing)
5. B.Pharm

A candidate should have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination with Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English. Those who are appearing for class 12th exams in 2011 can also apply.

Important Dates (Tentative):
Date of Entrance Examination: May 1st week, 2011
Availability of Application Forms: March 1st week-April 1st week, 2011
Last Date for receipt of completed application forms: April 2nd week, 2011

Application forms:
Application forms will be available on the official website and the candidate must download the form from their and fill them with entire information and send them to official address and candidates can send a requisition form along with a Demand Draft of Rs. 300/ in the favor of the university.

Exam Pattern:
The examination will consist of two papers:
1. Biology (Botany & Zoology)
2. Physics & Chemistry

The syllabus covered in the second year of the Higher Secondary Level belonging to the Tamil Nadu State Board.

Selection Procedure:
The selection of the candidates is based upon the written examination and on the interview. Final Selection is based on class 12th marks, entrance test and an interview as follows:
Qualifying Examinations 200 marks
Entrance Examination 100 marks
Interview 30 marks

Contact Details:
Annamalai University
Annamalai Nagar - 608 002
Tamil Nadu
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Old June 19th, 2011, 01:16 PM
sunil nautiyal
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

The dates for medical entrance exam of Annamalai University are

Issue of Application Commences from: 07.04.2011
Last date for Issue & Receipt of Application Forms
MBBS, BDS, BPT, B.Sc (Nursing), Certificate Programme: 10.06.2011
MPT, M.Sc (Nursing), Diploma: 30.06.2011
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Old June 19th, 2011, 01:19 PM
sunil nautiyal
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

Here one more information is missing about Entrance Exam application form and that is the draft have to be Demand Draft should be drawn in favour of THE REGISTRAR, ANNAMALI UNIVERSITY, ANNAMALAIINAGAR- 608002
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Old March 24th, 2013, 11:26 AM
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

when your application last date?
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Old February 26th, 2014, 09:15 AM
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Default Re: Annamalai University Medical Entrance

Annamalai University conducts AU AIMEE - All India Medical Entrance Examination for admissions to MBBS, BDS, BSc Nursing and B Pharma courses from the colleges affiliated to Annamalai University.

AU AIMEE Eligibility Criteria:
- You must be a citizen of India
- You must be appearing/pass in High School Level Examination (10+2) with the major subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English
- You must be a minimum of 17 years of age at the time of applying

AU AIMEE Exam Pattern:

- It is a three hour exam consisting of two papers with a total of 120 questions in each paper.
Paper I: Biology: consists of 60 questions from botany and 60 questions from Zoology
Paper II: Physical Sciences: consists of 60 questions from Physics and 60 question from Chemistry

AU AIMEE Exam Dates
AU AIMEE 2014 Application Form & online Application Form : 1st week of May, 2014
AU AIMEE 2014 Exam date : 1st week of June, 2014
Late date for submission of form: Last week of May, 2014

Here I am sharing the sample question paper of AU AIMEE -


(Each question carries one mark)
1. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
A. proximal tubule B. distal tubule C. collecting duct D. loop of Henle
[Ans. (A)]

2. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
A. 500 ml B. 140 ml C. 1 litre D. 1.5 ml
[Ans. (B)]

3. Which one is imino acid?
A. Pepsin B. Proline C. Cysteine D. Renin
[Ans. (B)]

4. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
A. Cell membrane B. Cell Wall C. Ribosome D. Mitochondria[
Ans. (B)]

5. ACTH is secreted from
A. Adrenal cortex B. Pituitary C. Adrenal Medulla D. Thyroid
[Ans. (B)]

6. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?
A. SA node AV node Bundle of His Purkinje fibers
B. AV node Bundle of His SA node Purkinje fibers
C. SA node Purkinje fibers AV node Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers AV node SA node Bundle of His
[Ans. (A)]

7. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are line by
A. cubical epithelium B. columnar epithelium C. squamous epithelium D. ciliated epithelium
[Ans. (D)]

8. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
A. CT Scan B. Sphygmomanometer C. ECG D. EEG
[Ans. (D)]

9. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity ?
A. T-lymphocyte B. B-lymphocyte C. I-lymphocyte D. P-lymphocyte
[Ans. (B)]

10. Fertilization occur in
A. Uterus B. Ureter C. Vagina D. Fallopian tube
[Ans. (D)]

11. The Gastrin is secreted from
A. Intestine B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Rectum
[Ans. (B)]

12. The cause of cretinism is
A. Hypothyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism
[Ans. (A)]

13. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?
A. Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Adrenalin D. Aldosterone
[Ans. (D)]

14. The part of the brain where the centre for hunge and thirst is located is
A. Cerebrum B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Medulla Oblongata
[Ans. (B)]

15. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as
A. Monosynsptic reflex arc B. Disynaptic reflex arc
C. Polysynaptic reflex arc D. Asynaptic reflex arc
[Ans. (A)]
16. The lactase hydrolyzes lactose into
A. Glucose B. Glucose and galactose C. Fructose D. Glucose and fructose
[Ans. (B)]

17. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
A. 1.7 litres B. 7 litres C. 17 litres D. 170 litres
[Ans. (D)]

18. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is
A. Dyspnea B. Hypoxia C. Asphyxia D. Apnea
[Ans. (B)]

19. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
A. Calcium B. Sodium C. cAMP D. cGMP
[Ans. (B)]

20. The name of the pace maker of the heart is
A. Lymph node B. S.A. node
C. Juxtaglumerular apparatus D. Semilunar valve
[Ans. (B)]

21. What is a genophore ?
A. DNA in prokaryotes B. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
C. DNA and protein in prokaryotes D. RNA in prokaryotes
[Ans. (A)]

22. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is
A. Ligin B. Suberin C. Inulin D. Starch
[Ans. (D)]

23. Who wrote the famous book "Origin of Species"?
A. Larmarck B. Darwin C. De Vries D. Mendel
[Ans. (B)]

24. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
A. Autopolyploid B. Triploid C. Allopolyploid D. Monoploid
[Ans. (C)]

25. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
A. 0.05 B. 0.15 C. 0.25 D. 0.30
[Ans. (A)]

26. Biolistic technique is used in
A. Tissue culture process B. Gene transfer process
C. Hybridization process D. Germplasm conservation process
[Ans. (B)]

27. Example of water soluble plant pigment is
A. Chlorophyll-a B. Chlorophyll-b C. Anthocyanin D. Xanthophyll
[Ans. (C)]

28. Structure element of Chromatin is
A. Histone B. Acid protein and DNA C. Nuclear matrix D. Nucleosomes
[Ans. (D)]

29. Inulin is a polymer of
A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Arabinose
[Ans. (C)]

30. Mannitol is
A. Amino acid B. Amino alcohol C. Sugar alcohol D. Sugar acid
[Ans. (C)]

31. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
A. Zygomorphic B. Actinomorphic C. Regular D. Perfect
[Ans. (A)]

32. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called
A. Explant B. Somaclone C. Inoculant D. Clone
[Ans. (A)]

33. VAM is
A. Symbiotic bacteria B. Saprophytic bacteria C. Saprophytic fungi D. Symbiotic fungi
[Ans. (D)]

34. Ovule integument gets transformed into
A. seed B. fruit wall C. seed coat D. cotyledons
[Ans. (C)]

35. Acid rain is caused by
A. NO2 B. SO2 C. SO3 D. CO2
[Ans. (B)]

36. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants ?
A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus thuringiensis
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
[Ans. (D)]

37. A plant cell becomes turgid due to
A. Plasmolysis B. Exosmosis C. Endosmosis D. Electrolysis
[Ans. (C)]

38. Restriction enzymes are used to cut
A. Single stranded RNA B. Double stranded DNA
C. Single stranded DNA D. Double stranded RNA
[Ans. (B)]

39. Spindle fibre is made up of
A. humulin B. intermediate filament C. flagellin D. tubulin
[Ans. (D)]

40. Edible part of Mushroom is
A. Basidiocarp B. Primary mycelium C. Fungal hyphae D. Basidiospores
[Ans. (A)]

41. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of
A. Parathyroid hormone B. Calcitonin C. Thyroxine D. Adrenaline
[Ans. (A)]

42. Kupffer's cells are
A. Phagocytic B. Mast cells
C. Hormone secreting D. Digestive juice secreting
[Ans. (A)]

43. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature ?
A. Anterior hypothalamus B. Posterior hypothalamus
C. Limbic system D. Red nucleus
[Ans. (A) Heat loss centre i.e. Anterior hypothalamus]

44. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity
A. Myoglobin B. Actin C. Myosin D. Fibrin
[Ans. (A)]

45. Longest phase of meiosis
A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Anaphase I D. Metaphase II
[Ans. (A)]

46. Tetany is caused by
A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism
[Ans. (B)]

47. Which of the following is a gastro intestine hormone ?
A. Prolactin B. Enterokinase C. GH D. FSH
[Ans. (B)]

48. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.
[Ans. (D)]

49. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinson's disease ?
A. GABA B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. Glutamic acid
[Ans. (C)]

50. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
A. facial nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve
[Ans. (C)]

51. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe ?
A. Hearing B. Speech C. Vision D. Memory
[Ans. (C)]

52. Meissner's corpuscles occur is
A. Brain B. Nerve cells C. Skin D. Tongue
[Ans. (C)]

53. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
A. Infants due to protein enertgy malnutrition B. Adults due to protein enertgy malnutrition
C. Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency D. Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency
[Ans. (C)]

54. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by
A. Blood cells B. Bone cells C. Sex chromosomes D. Autosomes
[Ans. (D)]

55. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
A. Pepsin B. Mucus C. Rennin D. HCl
[Ans. (D)]

56. Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria ?
A. Nerve cell B. Red blood cell C. Liver cell D. White blood cell
[Ans. (B)]

57. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?
A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene
[Ans. (C)]

58. Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon ?
[Ans. (D)]

59. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel ?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9

60. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive
character (a) the genotype of parents are
A. Aa Aa B. Aa aa C. AA aa D. AA Aa
[Ans. (B)]

61. Structural lipids of cell membrane are
A. Simple lipid B. Chromolipids C. Steroid D. Phospholipids
[Ans. (D)]

62. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
A. Glycogen B. Sucrose C. Lactose D. Maltose
[Ans. (A)]

63. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG ?
[Ans. (B)]

64. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area ?
A. Sibling species B. Allopatric species C. Sympatric species D. Endemic species
[Ans. (D)]

65. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?
A. Sycon Canal system B. Star fish Radial symmetry
C. Ascaris Flame cell D. Prawn Haemocoel
[Ans. (C)]

66. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?
A. Platyhelminthes B. Annelida C. Mollusca D. Echinodermata
[Ans. (A)]
67. Cardiac muscles are
A. Striated and voluntary B. Striated and involuntary
C. Smooth and voluntary D. Smooth and involuntary
[Ans. (B)]

68. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?
A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
[Ans. (B)]

69. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell ?
A. Macrophage B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Basophil
[Ans. (D)]

70. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man ?
A. Homo habilis B. Australopithecus
C. Rampithecus punjabicus D. Homo neanderthalensis
[Ans. (C)]

71. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
A. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length
B. Proboscis long and palpi short
C. Proboscis short and palpi long
D. Both proboscis and palpi are short
[Ans. (A)]

72. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents
A. Nerve ring B. Cervical papilla C. Excretory System D. Reproductive system
[Ans. (C)]

73. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
A. Biotic potential B. Fertility C. Carrying capacity D. Birth rate
[Ans. (A)]

74. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
A. Habitat B. Niche C. Ecotone D. Ecotype
[Ans. (C)]

75. Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is
A. Always upright B. Always inverted C. Mostly upright D. Mostly inverted
[Ans. (A)]

76. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for green house effect ?
A. SO2 B. CO2 C. CO D. O2
[Ans. (B)]

77. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?
A. Barbus stigma B. Cyprinus carpio C. Labeo bata D. Cirrhinus mrigala
[Ans. (B)]
78. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?
A. TSH and ACTH B. Oestrogen and progesterone
C. FSH and LH D. Vassopressin and oxytocin
[Ans. (C)]

79. Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man?
A. Gametocyte B. Merozoite C. Cryptomerozoite D. Sporozoite
[Ans. (D)]

80. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
A. Bombyx mori B. Antheraea mylitta
C. Antheraea assamensis D. Philosomia ricini
[Ans. (B)]

(Each question carries two marks)
1. What are poikilothermic animals ?
Ans. Also called cold blooded animals. Their body temperature changes according surrounding environment. These
animals are less active.
e.g. all invertebrates, fishes, amphibians, reptiles.
2. Write two functions of juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Ans. Functions :
(i) Juxtaglomerular cells secretes Renin which through RAAS (Renin-Angiotensis Aldosterone System) help in
absorption of Na+ from DCT and therefore increases Blood pressure.
(ii) Its Macula densa cells act as chemorecptor feeding information to JG cells.
3. State two differences between red and white muscle.
Ans. Difference between Red & White Muscle.

Red Muscles White Muscles
i) Rich in Myoglobin. i) Less myoglobin.
ii) Mitochondria are more in number. ii) Less in number.
iii) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum. iii) More sarcoplasmic reticulum.
iv) Can carry out considerable aerobic
iv) Depends mainly on anaerobic
v) Slow rate of contraction for long
v) Fast rate of contraction for short
4. What is the difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis ?

Phagocytosis Pinocytosis
i) Bulk intake of fluid material by cell. i) Intake of solid material from outside to
inside of the cell.
ii) Vesicles formed are small. ii) Large
iii) Lysosome play no role. iii) Lysosomes are essential.
5. State four important functions of plasma membrane.
Ans. (i) Helps in Transport by active and passive processes.
(ii) Take part in Exocytosis and Endocytosis.
6. What is bioaccumulation ?
Ans. Different types of elements and compound deposited inside the living beings. Which is called Bioaccumulation or
Bioconcentration. Like in scallops maximum quantity of Zn, Cu, Cd and Cr deposited and in human beings
maximum Iodide deposieted in thyroid glands.

7. What is a test cross ? Why is it so named ?
Ans. When F1 progeny is crossed with recessive parent then it is called Test Cross. Test Cross helps to find out the
genotype of dominant individual.
8. What is ribozyme ?
Ans. Ribozymes are the RNA molecules (Non protein enzyme) that possess catalytic activity they function in RNA
splicing reactions.
9. What are mycorrhizae?
Ans. The association of fungi with the roots of higher plant, is called mycorrhizae. Mycorrhizal association fround in
conifers plant.
10. Write down the scientific name of China rose plant. Give its floral formula.
Ans. Hibiscus rosasinensis :
Br Epi7 k(5) C5 A( ) G(5 )

1. N molecules each of mass m and v velocity collides with a wall of a container and

then absorbed, the pressure applied on the wall is :

(1) mNV2

3 2

2. The law of far a day is obtained by conservation of :

(1) Charge (2) Energy (3) Energy and magnetic field (4) Magnetic field

3. There is a q charge placed in the centre of a cube, then the emergent flux is :

(1) q (2) q (3) q (4) q_

6∈0 8 ∈0 2 ∈0 ∈0

4. Two thin lenses are put close to each other, focal length of the combination is :

(1) less than the small focal length

(2) more than the bigger focal length

(3) equal to the arithmetical average of the focal length

(4) equal to the geometrical average of the focal length

5. A car is moving on a horizontal circular path with 10 m/s constant speed. A rigid

body is suspended from ceiling of car with a 1 m. long light rod, the angle between

rod and path is :

(1) 600

(2) 450

6. Two sources of E1 and E2 emf r1 and r2 internal, resistances, are connected in the

parallel combination, the emf of the combination is :

(1) E1E2 (2) E2r1 + E1r2 (3) E1r1 + E2r2 (4) E1 + E2

E1+E2 r1 + r2 r1 + r2 2

7. In a AC circuit R = 0 ΩΩ, XL = 8ΩΩ and XC = 6ΩΩ phase difference between voltage

and current is :

(1) 110

(2) 450

8. Relative permeability of a medium is r and relative permittivity is ∈∈ r then the

velocity of an electro magnetic wave is :

(1) c (2) √∈rr (3) √0t0 (4) 1

∈00 r∈r r∈r

(2) mNV2

(3) 2 mNV2

(4) mNV2

(3) 300

(4) zero

(3) 370

(4) 120

√ r∈r

9. Ration of radius of two soap bubbles is 2 : 1 then the ratio of their excess

pressure is :

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1: 2

10. Ratio of sound velocities is H2 and O2 will be :

(1) 32 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

11. In which of the waves the energy is not propagated :

(1) em waves

(2) longitudional waves

(3) stationary waves

(4) transverse waves

12. A body of 2 kg. mass is moving under a force, relation between time and

displacement is x = t3

is : 3

(1) 1.6 J (2) 16 J (3) 160 J (4) 1600 J

13. A uniform chain of L length and M mass, two third part of chain is on a

frictionless table and one third part is vertically suspended, work done to pull the

whole chain on table, is :

(1) MgL (2) MgL (3) MgL (4) MgL

18 9 6 3

14. If the intensity and frequency of incident light is doubled then :

(1) photo electric current will become is times

(2) kinetic energy of the emitted electron will be increased and current will be 2 times

(3) kinetic energy of electrons will be 4 times

(4) the kinetic energy of electrons will be 2 times

15. A car travels half distance with 40 kmph and rest half distance with 60 kmph

then the average speed of car is :

(1) 60 kmph (2) 52 kmph (3) 48 kmph (4) 40 kmph

16. Two particle are moving with same velocities in the circular paths of r1 and r2

radius then the ratio of their centripetal forces is :

(1) r2 (2) r2 (3) r1 2 (4) r2 2

r1 √ r1 r2 r1

17. No. of electrons in the 92 U 235 nucleus is :

(1) 143 (2) 235 (3) 92 (4) zero

where x in meter and t in time work done in first two seconds

18. The wavelength of photon and electron is λph and λe and energy (E) of the two is

same then :

(1) the difference can be obtain if E is given

(2) λe>λph

(3) λph . λe

(4) λph=λe

19. A lift is moving with acceleration a in upward direction then the force applied by

mass m on the floor of lift will be :

(1) ma (2) m(g-a) (3) m(g+a) (4) mg

20. Two cars of m1 and m2 mass are moving in the circular paths of r1 and r2 radius,

their speed is such that they travels one cycle in the same time, the ratio of their

angular velocities is :

(1) m1r1 : m2r2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) r1 : r2 (4) m1 : m2

21. A ring of mass M, radius r is moving with angular velocity w, if another two

bodies each of mass m is placed on its diameter, the resultant angular velocity will

be :

(1) w(M + 2m) (2) w(M 2m) (3) wM (4) wM

M (M + 2m) (m+m) (M+2m)

22. The wavelength of 1 ke V photon 1.25 x 10-9 m the frequency of Me V photon

will be:

(1) 1.24 x 1023 (2) 2.4 x 1023 (3) 2.4 x 1023 (4) 1.24 x 1015

23. Size of nucleusis of the order of :

(1) 10-13 cm (2) 10-10 cm. (3) 10-8 cm. (4) 10-15 cm.

24. If MI, angular acceleration and torque of body is I, ∝ and τ, it is revolving with

ω angular velocity then :

(1) τ = α (2) M= 1 (3) τ= Iα (4) τ=Iω

I α

25. In a uniform circular motion :

(1) both acceleration and speed changes

(2) both acceleration and speed are constant

(3) both acceleration and velocity are constant

(4) both acceleration and velocity changes

26. Ratio of average kinetic evergies of H2 and O2 at a given temp. is :

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16

27. To make the working of a machine, free of magnetism, the cover of this machine

must be of :

(1) non magnetic substance

(2) diamagnetic substance

(3) paramagnetic substance

(4) ferro magnetic substance

28. λα, λβ and λr are the wavelengths of k α , kβ and kr lines of X-ray spectrum then :

(1) λβ >λa>λr (2) λα < λB<λr (3) λα > λβ > λr (4) λα = λβ = λr

29. Angular momentum of electron of H atom is proportional to :

(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) √r (4) r2

r √ r

30. MI, rotational kinetic energy and angular momentum of a body is I, E and L

then :

(1) E= L2

(2) E2

2I L 2I

31. In a diode value, the state of saturation can be obtained easily by :

(1) high plate voltage and high filament

(2) low filament current and high plate voltage

(3) low plate voltage and high plate tem

(4) high filament current and high plate voltage

32. A magnet is dropped in a long coppertube vertically, the acceleration of magnet :

(1) equal to g (2) less than g (3) zero (4) greater than g

33. Joule-second is unit of :

(1) rotational power

(2) angular momentum

(3) rotational energy

(4) torgue

34. A 3 coulomb charge enerts 3000 N force in a uniform electrical field, the

distance between two points is 1 cm. potential difference will be :

(1) 9000 V (2) 1000 V (3) 90 V (4) 10 V

35. 1000 drops, each v volt, are combined to form a big drop, then the potential of

the drop will be how many times :

(1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000

36. A plane is revoloving around the earth with 100 km./hr. speed at a earth, the

changes in the velocity as it travels half circle is :

(1) 100 √2 kmph (2) 150 kmph (3) 200 kmph (4) zero

37. 3 x 107 kg. water is initially constant and it is displaced 3 m. by applying 5 x 104

N force. Velocity of water will be (if resistance of water is zero) :

(1) 50 m/sec. (2) 0 1 m/sec. (3) 60 m/sec. (4) 1.5 m/sec.

= 2I (3) E = 2IL (4) L = E2

38. In a wheat stone circuit P = Q = 10Ω and R = S = 15 Ω and G = 20 Ω. If a cell of 1.5

volt emf is used, the current drawn from the cell is :

(1) 0.021 amp (2) 0.025 amp (3) 0.060 amp (4) 0.125 amp

39. Two waves of same frequency and different amplitude, if the phase difference is π/2

then the Lissajous figure will be :

(1) 8 shape (2) an ellipse (3) a circle (4) a straight line

40. A monoatomic gas (r = 5/3) and a diatomic gas (r= 7/5) are mixed in equal ratio then

the r of mixture will be :

(1) 3.07 (2) 1.53 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.4

41. Velocity of e.m. waves in paraffine is 2.07 x 108

(1) 2.10 (2) 1.87 (3) 1.45 (4) 1.22

42. After emission of a β-particle, the nucleus :

(1) A 4, Z 2 (2) A,Z-1 (3) A, Z-2 (4) A + 2, Z

43. Charge on a proton is 9.6 x 107 c/kg. A proton is moving in a 1T magnetic field in 0.5

m radius circular path, the energy of proton in Mev.

(1) 16.34 (2) 12.02 (3) 8.25 (4) 4.84

44. If d2

ω + αx = 0 then the angular frequency will be :


(1) √α (2) α2

45. Noble prize presented to Einstein for :

(1) therories of LASER

(2) photo electric effect

(3) theory of relativity

(4) theory of specific heat in solids

46. Before saturation current the ratio of plate currents at 400 v and 200 v plate voltage


(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2√2 (4) √2

2 4

47. If I = I0 sin (ω t - π/2) and E = E0 sin ωt then the power loss is :

(1) EI (2) E0I0 (3) E0I0 (4) zero

√2 2 √2

48. If the temp. of an ideal gas filled in a container is increased 10

pressure is 0.4%, the initial temp. of the gas is :

(1) 1200

C (2) 2000

49. Plate resistances of two triode values is 2KΩ and 4KΩ, amplification factor of each

of the value is 400

resistance, will be :

(1) 10 (2) 4/4 (3) 4/3 (4) 16/3

m/sec. then the dielectric constant is:

(3) α (4) zero

K (3) 2500

K (4) 2500


. The ratio of voltage amplifications, when used with 4kΩ load

50. Relation between displacement x and time t is x = 2 5t + 6t2


(1)-3 m/sec. (2) 12 m/sec. (3) 2 m/sec. (4) 5 m/sec.

51. Focal length of a convex lens is 16 cm. it is dipped in water. The refractive indices of

the substance of lens and water are 1.5 and 1.33 resp., now the focal length will be :

(1) 64 cm. (2) 18 cm. (3) 24.24 cm. (4) 16 cm.

52. In a half wave rectifier circuit, the input signal frequency is 50 Hz, the the output

frequency will be :

(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 200 Hz (4) 100 Hz

53. In the following circuit :



(1) the loop will be displaced along the length of wire

(2) PQ unchanged

(3) the loop will repell the wire

(4) wire will attract the loop

54. In a triode the ratio of small change in plate voltage and small changes in grid

voltage is, if plate current is constant :

(1) DC plate resistance

(2) mutual conductance

(3) AC plate resistance

(4) amplification factor

55. Two particles accelerated with same voltage eneters in a uniform magnetic field

perpendicularly, the radii of the circular paths is R1 and R2, the charge on particles is

same the ratio of m1 is :

2 m2 2

(1) R2 (2) R2 (3) R1 (4) R1

R1 R1 R2 R2

56. Light Velocity in diamond is ( = 2.0)

(1) 60 x 1010 cm/sec.

(2) 2 x 1010 cm/sec.

(3) 3 x 1010 cm/sec.

(4) 1.5 x 1010 cm/sec.

57. If Arsenic is dopped to silicon then its conductivity :

(1) becomes zero

(2) unchanged

(3) increases

(4) decreases

58. Two condensers of c and 2c capacity are connected in parallel and these are charged

upto v volt. If the battery is removed and dielectric medium of k constant is put between

the plates, then the potential at each condenser is :

(1) v (2) 2+ k (3) 2v (4) 3v

k + 2 3v k + 2 k+2

59. Equation of wave is y = 15 x 10-2 sin (300t 100x) where x in meter and t in sec. the

wave velocity is :

(1) 1.5 m/sec. (2) 3 m/sec. (3) 0.5 m/sec. (4) 1 m/sec.

60. Escape velocity at the surface of earth is 11 km/sec., if radius of earth is doubled then

the escape velocity will be :

(1) 15.5 km/sec. (2) 5.5 km/sec. (3) 11 km/sec. (4) 22 km/sec.

61. Kinetic energies of two bodies of 1 kg. and 4 kg. are same, the ratio of their

momentum is :

(1) 1 : 16 (2) 1 : 2 (3) √2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

62. A body takes 5 minute to cool from 300

cool from 600

(1) 40 minute (2) 10 minute (3) 30 minute (4) 20 minute

63. AC voltage is v = 200 sin 300t and if R = 10Ω and L = 800 mH, peak value of current

is :

(1) 1.83 (2) 1.5 (3) 2.0 (4) .83

64. Two charges + q and q are placed at r distance from each other. If one of the charge

is stationary and other is rotated around, work done is one circle is :

(1) kq2 (2) kq (3) kq2


r r

65. Peak value of AC current is 4√2, RMS current is :

(1) 2√2 (2) 8 (3) 4 √2 (4) 4

66. A monoatomic gas is compressed to its 1/8th volume adiabatically (r = 5/3), the

pressure will be :

(1) 32 times (2) 40 times (3) 8 times (4) 24 times

3 5

67. A condenser is charged and then battery is removed, a dielectric plate is put between

the plates of condenser, then correct statement is :

(1) Q constant V and U decreases

(2) Q constant V increases U decreases

(3) Q increases V decreases U increases

(4) None

68. The MI of a disc wrt its diameter is I, MI wrt. And axis passing through its

circumference and parallel to diameter is :

C to 300

C, if room temp. is 200

C to 500

C :

C. How much time it will take to

(4) zero

(1) 41 (2) 61 (3) 31 (4) 51

69. Length of two wires is 0.5 m and distance between the wires is 1 m. If 1 amp.

current is passed in the wires, force per unit length between the wires is :

(1) 4 x 10-7 (2) 2 x 10-7 (3) 10-7 (4) None

70. Relation between internal energy U and absolute temp. T of an ideal gas as kinetic

theory of gases, is :

(1) U does not depends upon T

(2) U ∝ T2

(3) U ∝ T

(4) U ∝ √T

71. Light wavelength in a glass is 6000Ǻ and refractive index is 1.5, the wavelength

of light is :

(1) 12000 Ǻ (2) 4000 Ǻ (3) 9000 Ǻ (4) 6000 Ǻ

72. Two sources of sound A & B placed near to each other produces 4 beats per second.

If A is loaded with wax then 2 beats/sec. are produced. If the frequency of A is 256 Hz,

The frequency of B will be :

(1) 262 (2) 260 (3) 252 (4) 250

73.Work done to rotate a dipole by a 900

(1) PE (2) 2 PE (3) 2PE (4) PE

74. Zener diode may be used as a :

(1) rectifier (2) oscillator (3) amplifier (4) voltage regulator

75. Wavelength of first line of Balamer series is 6561 Ǻ then the wavelength of second

line of Balmer series will be :

(1) 3500 Ǻ (2) 4860 Ǻ (3) 6561 Ǻ (4) 2430 Ǻ

angle, is :

Annamalai University
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