Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers - 2015-2016 StudyChaCha

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Old May 28th, 2012, 02:51 PM
jaison Joy
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Default Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers

When Commissionarate of Entrance Examinations-Kerala going to conduct Kerala Medical PG entrance exam? Please tell me can students obtain paper with answer key of Kerala Medical PG entrance from its official website or provide me the paper.
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Old May 28th, 2012, 07:48 PM
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Default Re: Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers

Here is the Kerala Medical PG Medical 2012, paper - 1.
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Old September 15th, 2012, 02:38 PM
paithankar FDH
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Default Re: Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers

I am getting kerla medical PG entrance exam after one month but at yet I don’t know about my exam question paper so can you provide me previous kerla medical PG entrance exam question paper?
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Old September 17th, 2012, 07:07 PM
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Default Re: Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers

Some sample questions of Kerala Medical PG entrance exam is given below:

1. Which of the following conditions is associated with massive splenomegaly?
(A) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
(B) Hairy cell leukemia
(C) Typhoid fever
(D) Sickle cell disease

2. All of the following drugs can be used for treatment of acute gout, EXCEPT:
(A) Colchicin
(B) Corticosteroids
(D) Probenecid

3. Acute presentation of sarcoidosis in the form of inflammatory arthritis, uveitis and erythema nodosum, is known as:
(A) Lofgren syndrome
(B) Loeffler syndrome
(C) Fowler Syndrome
(D) Heerfordt syndrome

For Remaining question I am uploading a PDF file to you. You can download it from here.
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File Type: doc Kerala Medical PG entrance exam sample paper.doc (117.5 KB, 191 views)
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Old February 13th, 2014, 06:03 PM
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Default Re: Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers

Here is the Kerala Medical PG Medical 2012,

1. Bed of stomach is formed by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Pancreas
(B) Duodenum
(C) Left kidney
(D) Left suprarenal

2. All of the following are features of right atrium, EXCEPT:
(A) Fossa ovale
(B) Coronary sinus ostium
(C) Musculi pectinati
(D) Trabeculae carnae

3. Which of the following is NOT a content of posterior mediastinum?
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Thoracic aorta
(D) Phrenic nerve

4. Which of the following does NOT pass through aortic opening of diaphragm?
(A) Aorta
(B) Thoracic duct
(C) Vagus nerve
(D) Azygous vein

5. Root of left lung contains all, EXCEPT:
(A) Pulmonary bronchus
(B) Pulmonary veins
(C) Bronchial arteries
(D) Phrenic nerve

6. Characteristic features of memory do NOT include:
(A) Memory develops due to long-term inhibition of synapses
(B) Most of memory is stored in cerebral cortex
(C) Spinal cord can also store small amount of information *
(D) Stored memory is used in thinking processes

7. Following are the characteristics of thrombomodulin, EXCEPT:
(A) It is a procoagulant
(B) It activates factors VII and IX
(C) Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex acts as anticoagulant
(D) It is not found in cerebral microcirculation

8. "Shear stress", a force applied on the endothelium by the flowing blood, is:
(A) Parallel to the long axis of vessel
(B) The rate at which at axial velocity increases from the vessel wall towards lumen
(C) Expressed mathematically in the Poiseuille-Hagen formula
(D) Not dependent upon the velocity of blood flow

9. Isoelectric point is:
(A) The pH of the medium at which the lipids dissociate
(B) The temperature of a compound at which it changes its shape
(C) The optimum pressure at which the gas becomes liquid
(D) The pH value at which a substance is electrically neutral

10. The fetus is in effect a transplant of foreign tissue in mother; however fetus is not rejected by mother because of the following, EXCEPT:
(A) Placental trophoblast, which separates maternal and fetal tissues, does not express the polymorphic class I & IIMHC genes
(B) Immunity of mother is lowered during pregnancy
(C) There is a Fas ligand on the surface of the placenta, which binds to T cells causing them to undergo apoptosis
(D) Placental trophoblast express HLA-G, a nonpolymorphic gene; therefore the antibodies against the fetal tissues are not developed

11. Cholesterol from dietary sources is transported to the peripheral tissue by:
(A) Chylomicron

12. All are TRUE about chaperones, EXCEPT:
(A) Many of them are known as heat shock proteins
(B) They use energy during the protein-chaperone interaction
(C) Ubiquitin is one of the most important chaperone
(D) They are present in wide range of species from bacteria to human

13. All of the following are found in diabetic keto-acidosis, EXCEPT:
(A) Increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
(B) Increased production of ketone bodies
(C) Hyperkalemia
(D) Decrease in catabolism of proteins

14. Which of the following is a non-aromatic amino acid with a hydroxyl R-group?
(A) Phenylalanine
(B) Lysine
(C) Threonine
(D) Methionine

15. The base sequence of the strand of DNA used as a template has the sequence 5'GATCTAC 3'. What would be the base sequence of RNA product?
(A) 5' CTAGATG 3'
(B) 5' GAUCUAC 3'
(C) 5' GTAGATC 3'
(D) 5' GUAGAUC 3'

16. Half-life of a drug provides information regarding all, EXCEPT:
(A) Loading dose
(B) Time to reach steady state after change of dosing schedule
(C) Rate of decline of plasma concentration after discontinuation of the drug
(D) Time of decline of plasma concentration after discontinuation of the drug

17. Besides the presence of tight junctions, the penetration of a drug into the CNS is restricted by:
(A) High lipophilicity of a drug
(B) P-glycoprotein
(C) Inflammation
(D) Specific uptake transporters

18. Which of the following {3-lactam antibiotics can be safely used in a patient with a history of allergy to penicillins?
(A) Aztreonam
(B) Monobactam
(C) Loracarbef
(D) Ceftriaxone

19. Cholinergic stimulation is likely to produce all, EXCEPT:
(A) Skeletal muscle contraction
(B) Vasodilatation if endothelium is intact
(C) Contraction of the ciliary muscle for near vision
(D) Contraction of trigone and sphincter of the bladder

20. In the treatment of anaphylactic shock with epinephrine, which of the following considerations are important?
(A) Epinephrine has a long duration of action and it is not necessary to repeat
(B) The solution used for IV administration is 1 in 1000
(C) It can cause side effects like palpitations, restlessness, tremor and arrhythmias
(D) Subcutaneous route is the route of choice

21. Besides valproate, which of the following antiepileptic drugs is effective in most types of seizures, including partial and generalized seizures?
(A) Carbamazepine
(B) Primidone
(C) Lamotrigine
(D) Topiramate

22. Following statements are TRUE regarding alprazolam, EXCEPT:
(A) Alprazolam, a triazolobenzodiazepine, has been marketed as an anxiolytic with additional antidepressant properties
(B) Its analogue, adinazolam, also has partial antidepressant activity
(C) It is also useful in panic disorder, like other benzodiazepines, alprazolam is effective in acute and generalized anxiety
(D) High-dose alprazolam is useful and well tolerated in the treatment of anxiety associated with schizophrenia

23. Regarding medication compliance, which is FALSE?
(A) Only about half of patients take the prescription drug as directed
(B) Frequent dosing improves compliance
(C) Poor comprehension of the benefits of taking the drug decreases compliance
(D) Fewer drugs in the prescription improve compliance

24. Cryptococcus neoformans is best stained by:
(A) Haematoxylin eosin
(B) Gomori's trichrome
(C) Alizarin red stain
(D) PAS-alcian blue

25. Which statement is TRUE for apoptosis?
(A) It occurs normally both during development and throughout adult hood
(B) It is seen only in pathological condition
(C) It is observed only in tumors
(D) It is synonymous with cell death due to ischemia

26. Amyloid protein in human being is:
(A) A naturally present protein in normal individuals
(B) Involves selectively blood vessels
(C) Is visible by naked eyes as whitish cheesy material
(D) A material which gets deposited in extra-cellular spaces

27. Which is a well-documented oncogenic DNA virus?
(A) . Human T cell leukemia virus -Type I
(B) Human immunodeficiency virus
(C) Hepatitis C virus
(D) Hepatitis B virus

28. Which histological feature is observed in Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
(A) Hurthle cell hyperplasia
(B) C-cell hyperplasia
(C) Well preserved thyroid follicles
(D) Sheets of undifferentiated cells

29. Mallory body in hepatocytes is characteristically seen in alcoholic hepatitis and represents:
(A) Degenerated intermediate filaments
(B) Swollen mitochondria
(C) Superadded viral infection
(D) Engulfed alcohol

30. The adult counterpart of childhood rickets with similar morphological feature is:
(A) Osteopetrosis
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Osteogenesis imperfecta

31. PAS stain for fungus best stains the:
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus
(D) Cell wall

32. The bacterial nucleoid differs from eukaryotic nucleus by all of the following EXCEPT:
Histone proteins
G+C content

33. The Svedberg constant of IgE is:
(A) 7s
(B) 8 s
(C) lis
(D) 19s

34. Babesiosis is characterized by the presence, in the RBC, of:
(A) Ring stages
(B) Rings and gametocytes
(C) Only gametocytes
(D) All stages

35. The FASTEST stain for detection of Pneumocystis jiroveci is:
(A) Direct fluorescent monoclonal antibody
(B) Periodic acid Schiff
(C) Toluidene blue
(D) Methenamine silver

36. Which of the following is TRUE about arbovirus viremia?
(A) Transient and low viral titre
(B) Prolonged and low viral titre
(C) Transient and high viral titre
(D) Prolonged and high viral titre

37. Infectious mononucleosis-like picture is seen in infection caused by:
(A) Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) virus
(B) Dengue virus
(C) Human parvovirus
(D) Human cytomegalovirus

38. Which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for JE virus transmission?
(A) Water-logged paddy fields
(B) Aedes aegypti mosquitoes
(C) Piggeries
(D) Ardeid birds

39. Which is most useful for sex determination?
(A) Femur
(B) Pelvis
(C) Skull
(D) Ulna

40. Green urine is characteristic of poisoning by:
(A) Phenol
(B) Copper sulphate
(C) Barbiturates
(D) Lead

41. Mark the FALSE statement about transmission of HIV infection:
(A) Circumcision reduces the risk of transmission
(B) Presence of other sexually transmitted diseases has no bearing on the risk of transmission
(C) Heterosexual contact is the main mode of transmission in females
(D) Despite rigorous testing, HIV transmission can occur following blood transfusion

42. 'Mode' is:
(A) The alternative name of 'median'
(B) Arithmetic average of values
(C) Geometric mean of values
(D) Value with greatest frequency of distribution

43. Post-exposure prophylaxis in health care personnel is recommended in all, EXCEPT:
(A) Rabies
(B) Influenza
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Hepatitis B

44. Cross-transmission of multi-drug resistant organisms in a hospital can be prevented by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Isolation facilities for infectious cases
(B) Following hand hygiene recommendations
(C) Fumigation of hospital wards
(D) Quality control of sterilization and disinfection processes

45. For an indicator to be "valid", which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) It should actually measure what it is supposed to measure
(B) The answer should be same if measured by different people in similar circumstances
(C) It should be sensitive to changes in the situation concerned
(D) It should reflect changes only in the situation concerned

46. As per Universal Immunisation Programme of India, measles vaccine is given to babies at:
(A) Birth
(B) One and a half month
(C) Six months
(D) Nine months

47. Legal age for marriage of males in India is:
(A) 19 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 22 years

48. UNICEF stands for:
(A) United Nations Children Fund
(B) United Nations Children Emergency Fund
(C) United Nations International Children Emergency Fund
(D) United Nations Children Foundation

49. According to 2001 Census of India, literacy rate of females was:
(A) 44%
(B) 54%
(C) 64%
(D) . 74%

50. Which of the following diseases spread through water?
(A) Tetanus
(B) Measles
(C) Typhoid fever
(D) Tuberculosis

54. Which of the following is an occupational health hazard of nurses?
Dental caries
Otitis media

52. Which of the following DOES NOT present with fever and rashes?
(A) Measles
(B) Chicken pox
(C) Rabies
(D) Rubella

53. Which of the following vaccines can be given at birth?
(A) Oral polio
(C) Measles

54. Which of the following diseases is caused by vitamin D deficiency?
(A) Scurvy
(B) Caries
(C) Rickets
(D) Fluorosis

55. Pasteurization of milk is tested by:
(A) OTA test
(B) Phosphatase test
(C) Acid chromatin test
(D) Nitric acid test

56. Defluoridation of water can be done by: "
(A) Lime and alum
(B) Bleaching powder
(C) Ozonization
(D) Bromides

57. Which of the following diseases occur in India, at present?
(A) Small pox
(B) Dracunculiasis
(C) Schistosomiasis
(D) Yellow fever

58. About Primary Health Centre, which of the following is FALSE?
(A) Covers a population of20,000-30,000
(B) Looks after MCH including family planning
(C) Ensures safe drinking water supply and basic sanitation
(D) Has one medical officer and five nurses

59. Concentration of bleaching powder, suitable for disinfection of feces and urine is:
(A) 5 %
(B) 10%
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %

60. The last case of small pox in India was reported in:
(A) 1970
(B) 1975
(C) 1980
(D) 1985

61. Normal range for pC02 is:
(A) 20-40 mm Hg
(B) 25-30 mm Hg
(C) 30-40 mm Hg
(D) 35-45 mm Hg

62. Which of the following drugs CANNOT be nebulized?
(A) Theophylline
(B) Salbutamol
(C) Ipratropium
(D) Budesonide

63. What is NOT possible with thoracoscopy:
(A) Pleural biopsy
(B) Lung biopsy
(C) Mediastinal lymph node biopsy
(D) Pleurodesis

64. High pressure alarm in mechanical ventilator means all, EXCEPT
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Asthma
(C) Ventilator disconnection
(D) Small endotracheal tube

65. Spirometry should NOT be done in:
(A) Chronic cough
(B) Active hemoptysis
(C) Vocal cord dysfunction
(D) Lung cancer

66. Blood supply to the lung is primarily by:
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchial artery
(C) Subclavian artery
(D) Coronary sinus

67. Transpulmonary pressure is defined as:
(A) Difference between alveolar and pleural pressures
(B) Difference between airway and pleural pressures
(C) Difference between supradiaphragmatic and infradiaphragmatic pressures
(D) Difference between parietal and visceral pleural pressure

68. The following bronchopulmonary segment is NOT normally present separately in the left lung:
(A) Anterior segment of upper lobe
(B) Lateral basal segment of lower lobe
(C) Medial basal segment of lower lobe
(D) Superior segment of lingular lobe

69. Clubbing of fingers is often seen in all, EXCEPT:
(A) Lung cancer
(B) Benign mesothelioma
(C) Crohn's disease
(D) • Sarcoidosis

70. The following is an anti-tubercular drug with sterilizing capacity:
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Streptomycin
(D) Ethambutol

71. In India, category II (re-treatment) regimen under RNTCP:
(A) Is indicated for all patients who have disease relapse and are sputum smear positive
(B) Is indicated for all patients who are HIV positive
(C) Consists of 2 months of intensive phase and 6 months of continuation phase
(D) Should be given as daily therapy for patients who are suspected to have drug resistance

72. Manifestations of disseminated or miliary tuberculosis can include all, EXCEPT:
(A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
(B) Unilateral pleural effusion
(C) Bilateral empyema
(D) Granulomatous hepatitis

73. Aerosol deposition in the lung is influenced by all, EXCEPT:
Type of aerosol-generating system
Presence and severity of airflow obstruction
Breath holding time
Total number of doses of the drug present in the aerosol-generation system

74. Exercise induced asthma:
(A) Occurs only in extrinsic asthmatics
(B) Is more common in swimmers than runners
(C) Is effectively blocked by cromoglycate
(D) Occurs only in those with severe asthma

75. All of the following factors are responsible for a decreased ability of a person to respond to tuberculin, EXCEPT:
(A) BCG vaccination
(B) Live virus vaccinations (eg measles, mumps)
(C) Old age
(D) Miliary tuberculosis

76. The cavernous sinus receives blood directly from all, EXCEPT:
(A) Superior ophthalmic vein
(B) Inferior ophthalmic vein
(C) Spheno-parietal sinus
(D) Internal jugular vein

77. Structures that are anterior to the meibomian glands include all, EXCEPT:
(A) Glands of Zeis
(B) Glands of Moll
(C) Wolfring glands
(D) Muscle of Riolan

78. All are features of the cilioretinal artery, EXCEPT:
(A) Is found in 30% of the population
(B) Supplies the papillomacular fibres
(C) Arises from the long ciliary artery
(D) Is filled early during fluorescein angiography before the retinal artery

79. The following is FALSE about the optic nerve:
(A) Enters the middle cranial fossa through the same foramen as the ophthalmic artery
(B) Has the ciliary ganglion on its medial side
(C) Enters the middle cranial fossa mediajl to the internal carotid artery
(D) Contains more fibres in fetal than in adult life

80. The medial wall of the orbit includes all, EXCEPT:
(A) The body of the sphenoid
(B) The frontal process of the maxilla
(C) The anterior and posterior ethmoidal canals
(D) The trochlear fossa

81. Optic atrophy:
(A) Is an early sign of outer retinal layer damage
(B) Usually requires 4-8 weeks to develop after optic nerve injury
(C) Is never segmental
(D) Is always associated with a central scotoma

82. Which of the following intravitreally administered antibiotics has the greatest potential for causing retinal toxicity?
(A) Ceftazidime
(B) Vancomycin
(C) Gentamicin
(D) Penicillin

83. Which of the following organisms usually causes the least virulent endophthalmitis?
(A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes
(D) Serratia marcescens

84. All are features of paralytic squint, EXCEPT:
(A) Unequal fixation
(B) Vertigo
(C) Amblyopia
(D) Abnormal head posture

85. Congenital Horner's syndrome is associated with miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis, and:
(A) Chemosis
(B) Jaw-winking
(C) Lagophthalmos
(D) Iris hypopigmentation

86. The basic structural unit of bone (osteon) consists of all, EXCEPT:
Central haversian canal
Lacunae containing osteoblasts
Lamellar rings

87. Clinical factors associated with poor prognosis in Pott's paraplegia are all, EXCEPT:
(A) Grade IV neurological deficit
(B) Early onset
(C) Kyphotic deformity >60°
(D) Healed vertebral disease

88. The following are used for skeletal traction, EXCEPT:
(A) Steinmann pin
(B) Pavlik harness
(C) Kirschner wire
(D) Cancellous screw

89. The usual treatment modality in articular fractures includes all, EXCEPT:
(A) Skeletal traction
(B) External fixation
(C) Arthrodesis
(D) Anatomical reduction and internal fixation

90. Increased borie density on X-ray is caused by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Deposition of uric acid crystals
(B) Fracture and collapse of cancellous bone
(C) Increase in thickness of trabeculae
(D) Periosteal reaction

91. . The commonest malignancy of bone is:
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Chondrosarcoma
(C) Secondaries
(D) Ewing's sarcoma

92. The perichondrial ring is found around:
(A) Joint cartilage
(B) Early bone around cartilage magnum
(C) Epiphysial plate
(D) All fetal diaphyses

93. Osteochondromatosis or hereditary multiple exostoses:
(A) is readily apparent in neonatal period
(B) is seldom noticed before 2 years of age
(C) does not manifest until 4-6 years age
(D) is mainly manifest at puberty

94. Post-traumatic avascular necrosis is common in fractures of:
(A) Humerus surgical neck
(B) Distal radius
(C) Scapular neck
(D) Femoral neck

95. Bilateral congenitally dislocated hips are associated with all, EXCEPT:
(A) Lordotic spine
(B) Excessive genu valgum
(C) Bleeding disorder
(D) Shelton's line defect on X-ray

96. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) Microwave energy is absorbed in tissues with high conductivity
(B) The core of microwave apparatus is a multi-cavity magnetron valve
(C) Microwave diathermy is deeper than capacitive shortwave or ultrasonic heating
(D) Microwaves produce some non-thermal effects

97. Which is the portion of the quadriceps that crosses two joints?
(A) Rectus femoris
(B) Vastus medialis
(C) Vastus lateralis
(D) Vastus intermedius

98 . Which of the following determinants of gait prevents a drop in the body's centre of gravity?
(A) Lateral pelvic tilt in frontal plane
(B) Knee flexion during stance
(C) Physiologic valgus of the knee
(D) Pelvic rotation in the transverse plane

99. Which of the following is FALSE about exercise order?
(A) Small muscle groups should be exercised before large muscle groups
(B) High intensity exercises should be performed before lower intensity exercises
(C) Multi-joint muscles should be exercised before single joint muscles
(D) Warm up should be done before the main phase of exercise

100. At what level does lumbar disc prolapse most commonly occur?
(A) L5/S1
(B) . L4/L5
(C) L3/L4
(D) L2/L2

101. The following is TRUE for inverted papilloma:
(A) It occurs in children only
(B) Causes nasal obstruction alone
(C) Absolutely benign in nature
(D) Appears as polypoidal mass arising from lateral wall of nose

102. The follo wing is TRUE for anatomy of the nasopharynx:
(A) The lower boundary is the anterior faucial pillar
(B) The eustachian tube opens at the level of the inferior turbinate
(C) The internal carotid artery is in close relation to fossa of Rosenmuller
(D) Passavant muscle is made up of fibres of palatopharyngeus

103. The following is TRUE for middle ear acoustic impedance:
(A) Presence of fluid affects mainly the low frequencies
(B) Ossicular chain discontinuity with intact drum results in reduced compliance
(C) Otosclerosis and adhesive otitis media results in increased compliance
(D) Tympanosclerosis increases the middle ear compliance

104. The following statement about cartilages of the larynx is TRUE:
(A) Epiglottis consists of hyaline cartilage
(B) Epiglottis consists of elastic cartilage
(C) The thyroid cartilage contains elastic cartilage
(D) The cricoid cartilage contains elastic cartilage

105. Which is FALSE about recurrent respiratory papillomatosis?
(A) Caused by HPV 6 and 11
(B) Diet rich in indole-3-carbinol is beneficial
(C) Cabbage and cauliflower in the diet may be.harmful
(D) Microdebrider is preferable

106. Critical factors for avoidance of facial nerve injury during mastoid surgery include all, EXCEPT:
(A) Use of a monitor
(B) Drilling parallel to the nerve
(C) Using a diamond burr
(D) Exposing the sheath of the nerve by removing the overlying bone

107. Common causes of bilateral vocal cord paralysis include all, EXCEPT:
(A) Thyroid surgery
(B) Bronchogenic carcinoma
(C) Viral catarrh
(D) Thyroid malignancy

108. The following bone DOES NOT take part in the formation of the medial wall of the orbit:
(A) Greater wing of sphenoid
(B) Ethmoid
(C) Lacrimal
(D) Frontal process of maxilla

109. Anterior wall of external auditory canal is formed:
(A) By the tympanic and squamous temporal bone
(B) By the squamous bone alone
(C) By tympanic, squamous and mastoid temporal bone
(D) Entirely by the tympani bone

110. Structure passing through the sinus of Morgagni:
(A) Eustachian tube alone
(B) Eustachian tube and levator palati
(C) Eustachian tube and tensor palati
(D) Eustachian tube, tensor and levator palati

111. The spine of Henle develops:
(A) As a separate bone itself
(B) From squamous part of temporal bone
(C) From petrous bone
(D) From tympanic bone

112. A neurofibroma arises from:
Schwann cell
Both Schwann cell and sympathicoblast
Cell of origin is not known

113. After laryngectomy, the sound of esophageal speech emanates from:
(A) Base of tongue
(B) Mucosal folds of esophagus
(C) Neopharynx
(D) Nasopharynx

114. The tympanic membrane DOES NOT have:
(A) Epithelial layer
(B) Endothelial layer
(C) Fibrous layer
(D) Mucosal layer

115. The tympanic plexus is formed by:
(A) The tympanic branch of the vagus nerve and auricular branch of the glossopharyngeal
(B) The tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve and auricular branch of the vagus
(C) The tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve and caroticotympanic nerves from sympathetic plexus around internal carotid artery
(D) The caroticotympanic nerves and auricular branch of the vagus

116. Remifentanyl:
(A) Is metabolized by ester hydrolysis
(B) Is long acting
(C) Half-life is affected by hepatic and renal function
(D) More potent than sufentanil

117. Which of the following is FALSE about heliox?
(A) Is a mixture of helium and oxygen
(B) Is a high density gas
(C) Is less viscous than air
(D) Decreases the work of breathing in patients with upper airway obstruction

118. Drug of choice for bupivacaine toxicity includes:
(A) Lignocaine
(B) Isoprenaline
(C) Metoprolol
(D) Bretylium

119. Fat embolism syndrome has the following features, EXCEPT:
(A) Petechiae may be seen on the anterior chest
(B) Fat globlet in the urine is diagnostic
(C) Serum amylase levels may be increased
(D) More common in obese females

120. Air embolism during neurosurgical anesthesia is seen most'bommonly in the following position:
(A) Prone
(B) Supine
(C) Sitting
(D) Left lateral

121. Primary lesion in scabies is a:
(A) Pustule
(B) Burrow
(C) Papule
(D) Nodule

122. The condition in which normally odorless apocrine secretions produce foul odor is-known as:

123. Scarring alopecia can be caused by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Lupus erythematosus
(D) Psoriasis

124. Balanoposthitis can be caused by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Candida spp
(B) Trichomonas spp
(C) Mycoplasma genitalium
(D) Herpes simplex virus

125. Lesions of pityriasis versicolor primarily involves:
(A) Epidermis
(B) Dermis
(C) Sweat glands
(D) Sebaceous glands

126. Which of the following is TRUE about leprosy and related complications?
(A) Lepra reactions are caused by dapsone
(B) MDT should be stopped in lepra reactions
(C) Single lesion leprosy is treated by 3 doses of ROM
(D) Steroids are given in leprosy reactions

127. Disseminated gonococcal infection is best treated with:
(A) Penicillin
(B) Ceftriaxone
(C) Streptomycin
(D) Cotrimoxazole

128. Arthritis is component of:
(A) Lupus erythematosus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Reiter's syndrome
(D) Lichen planus

129. Infantile eczema results from:
(A) Atopy
(B) Use of diapers
(C) Scabies
(D) Bacterial infection

130. Candidal balanoposthitis indicates possibility of underlying:
(A) Diabetes insipidus
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) Cushing's disease

131. Anna Freud has been associated with:
(A) Experimental psychology
(B) Interpersonal psychology
(C) Ego psychology
(D) Existential psychology

132. The basal ganglia are generally considered to include all of the following, EXCEPT:
(A) Caudate nucleus
(B) Globus pallidus
(C) Subthalamic nucleus
(D) Dentate gyrus

133. The phenomenon of long term potentiation (LTP) occurs prominently in the:
(A) Thalamus
(B) Prefrontal cortex
(C) Hippocampus
(D) Entorhinal cortex

134. Genetic transmission in schizophrenia can be explained by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Multifactorial polygenic inheritance
(B) Mendelian inheritance
(C) Single major locus inheritance
(D) Oligogenic inheritance

135. The psychic apparatus is divided into id, ego and superego by the following Freudian theory:
(A) Topographical
(B) Ego-psychology
(C) Structural
(D) Object relations

136. One of the most sensitive and specific markers of alcohol dependence is:
(A) Alpha glutamyl transferase (AGT)
(B) Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
(C) Uric acid
(D) Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)

137. Psychotic syndromes can be induced by all, EXCEPT:
(A) Cocaine
(B) Ecstasy (MDMA)
(C) Amphetamine
(D) Ketamine

138. The following is a recognized dimension of schizophrenia:
(A) Reality distortion
(B) Avolition
(C) Disorientation
(D) Loosening of associations

139. A mood stabilizer particularly useful in the treatment of bipolar depression is:
(A) Sodium valproate
(B) Tipiramate
(C) Lamotrigine
(D) Gabapentin

140. Cenesthesic hallucinations refer to:
(A) Hallucinations in many sensory modalities
(B) Occurrence of auditory and visual hallucinations simultaneously
(C) Hallucinations similar to cinematic experience
(D) Unfounded sensations of altered state of bodily organs

145. Half-life of Caesium-137 is:
(A) 5.2 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 1620 years

146. Investigation of choice for a 2 month infant with one month history of non- bilious vomiting and palpable epigastric lump is:
(A) X-ray abdomen
(B) Ultrasound
(C) CT scan
(D) Upper GI contrast study

147. Which of the following is NOT a feature of mammography tube?
(A) Glass window
(B) Target is made of molybdenum
(C) Closer spacing of cathode and anode
(D) Molybdenum filter

148. Hemorrhagic brain metastases occur from the following primary sites, EXCEPT:
(A) Gastrointestinal tract
(B) Bronchus
(C) Renal cell carcinoma
(D) Breast

149. Investigation of choice for diagnosis of acute sub-arachnoid hemorrhage is:
(A) Unenhanced CT scan
(B) Unenhanced MRI
(C) Contrast enhanced CT scan
(D) Contrast enhanced MRI

150. Regarding vertebral anomalies:
(A) Intervertebral fusion is commonest in the lumbar region
(B) Cervical ribs are found in less than 2% of the normal population
(C) Non-fusion of the neural arch of L5 or SI is seen in 5% of the normal population
(D) Posterior arch of the atlas is not fused in 5% of the normal population

Here is the answer key:
1. B 25. A 49. B 73. D 97. A 121. B 145. B
2. D 26. D 50. C 74. C 98. D 122. A 146. B
3. D 27. D 51. B 75. A 99. A 123. D 147. A
4. C 28. A 52. C 76. D 100. B 124. C 148. B
5. D 29. A 53. A 77. C 101. D 125. A 149. A
6. A 30. C 54. C 78. C 102. B 126. D 150. D
7. B 31. D 55. B 79. B 103. A 127. B
8. A 32. C 56. A 80. D 104. B 128. A
9. D 33. B 57. C 81. B 105. C 129. C
10. B 34. A 58. D 82. C 106. D 130. B
11. A 35. C 59. A 83. A 107. # 131. C
12. C 36. A 60. B 84. C 108. A 132. D
13. D 37. D 61. D 85. D 109. D 133. C
14. C 38. B 62. A 86.0 110. B 134. B
15. D 39. B 63. C 87. B 111. D 135. C
16. A 40. A 64. C 88. # 112. A 136. D
17. B 41. B 65. B 89. C 113. C 137. D
18. A 42. D 66. A 90. A 114. B 138. A
19. D 43. B 67. A 91. C 115. C 139. C
20. C 44. C 68. C 92. C 116. A 140. D
21. C 45. A 69. D 93. B 117. B 141. C
22. D 46. D 70. B 94. D 118. D 142. A
23. B 47. C 71. A 95. B 119. B 143 . C
24. D 48. A 72. B 96. C 120. C 144. A
Answered By StudyChaCha Member
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Old December 26th, 2014, 09:14 PM
Junior Member
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Posts: 1
Smile Kerala medical pg

Dear Sir,

Will u please provide kerala medical pg question papers for practice now?
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Old January 16th, 2015, 03:44 PM
Junior Member
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Posts: 1

pls provide d second paper kerala 2012
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Old February 3rd, 2015, 11:24 AM
Junior Member
Join Date: Feb 2015
Posts: 1
Question Kerala PG med papers

Hi can I please know where can i get 2012,2013 & 2014 Kerala Medical PG entrance exam papers. Reply ASAP please
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Old February 7th, 2015, 10:03 PM
Junior Member
Join Date: Jan 2015
Posts: 1
Default Re: Kerala Medical PG entrance question papers

kerala pg medical question 2012 paper 2
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Old June 8th, 2015, 02:28 PM
Posts: n/a
Angry pg entrance 2015

why is the syllabus for pg entrance exam 2015 in various courses not available???????????
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