TANCET question paper for ME ECE - 2014-2015 StudyChaCha

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  #1  
Old April 19th, 2012, 05:11 PM
Babu Singh
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Default TANCET question paper for ME ECE

Hello sir, I have applied for appear in Tamilnadu Common Entrance Test (TANCET) for take admission in ME ECE program at Anna university, so can you tell me sir, from where can I get TANCET question paper with answer for ME ECE subject?
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  #2  
Old May 1st, 2012, 11:54 AM
Laila khan
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

I am going to appear for TANCET M.E 2012 so I want old question papers for preparation of the exam. Please provide me the papers soon.
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  #3  
Old May 1st, 2012, 12:05 PM
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

Quote:
Originally Posted by Laila khan View Post
I am going to appear for TANCET M.E 2012 so I want old question papers for preparation of the exam. Please provide me the papers soon.
here I am uploading the 3 papers of TANCET M.E. You can download them from here after doing registration.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf TANCET Mathematics Paper.pdf (395.7 KB, 1273 views)
File Type: pdf TANCET Basic Engineering Paper.pdf (376.5 KB, 1199 views)
File Type: pdf TANCET Specialization Paper.pdf (1.42 MB, 1260 views)
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  #4  
Old February 8th, 2013, 04:18 PM
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

sir i want 10 year previous question and answer for ece
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  #5  
Old February 14th, 2013, 07:00 PM
Cake
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

Please help me for Tancet ME EEE previous Year question paper for 5 years or more
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  #6  
Old March 13th, 2013, 06:46 PM
karl marx.p
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

I need previoz year tancet model n exam question paper.. or is thr any to guide for how to score high markz in tancet exam..
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Old March 20th, 2013, 06:20 PM
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

where i get free download sakthi publication tancet book for me cse....
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  #8  
Old May 27th, 2013, 11:41 PM
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

i need previous 10 year tancet question paper with answer for ece .pls sent it to my mail id: arulprasath.k@hotmai.com
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  #9  
Old December 22nd, 2013, 02:31 PM
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test is a reputed entrance examination for admission in many reputed engineering courses and management courses at various colleges in Tamil Nadu organized by the Anna University

TANCET Previous Year Question paper of ME for ECE

The acceleration of a particle moving along the circumference of a circle with a uniform speed is directed
1. radially
2. tangentially at the point
3. away from the center
4. towards the center

The inherent of a body which offers reluctance to change its state of rest or uniform motion is
1. weight
2. mass
3. inertia
4. momentum

A satellite goes on moving along its orbit round earth due to
1. gravitational force
2. centrifugal force
3. centripetal force
4. none of the above

Stress in a beam due to simple bending is
1. directly proportional
2. inversely proportional
3. curvilinearly released
4. none of the above

The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress is called
1. yielding
2. creeping
3. breaking
4. none of the above

Vicats apparatus is used to perform the test of
1. finess
2. setting time
3. consistency
4. compressive strength

A prestressed concrete member is
1. made of concrete
2.stressed
3. made of reinforced concrete
4. none of the above

A column splice is used to increase
1. length of
2. strength of column
3. cross sectional area of
4. none of the above

The stress in the wall or a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure is
1. hoop compression
2. shear
3. torsional shear
4. hoop tension

For more questions I am attaching a PDF file with it ..
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File Type: pdf TANCET ME ECE paper.pdf (1.42 MB, 89 views)
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  #10  
Old February 5th, 2014, 05:22 PM
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Default Re: TANCET question paper for ME ECE

Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test is a reputed entrance examination for admission in many reputed engineering courses and management courses at various colleges in Tamil Nadu organized by the Anna University

TANCET Previous Year Question paper of ME for ECE

76. The acceleration of a particle moving along

the circumference of a circle with a uniform

speed is directed

1. radially

2. tangentially at the point

3. away from the center

4. towards the center

77. The inherent of a body which offers

reluctance to change its state of rest or

uniform motion is

1. weight

2. mass

3. inertia

4. momentum

78. A satellite goes on moving along its orbit

round earth due to

1. gravitational force

2. centrifugal force

3. centripetal force

4. none of the above

79. Stress in a beam due to simple bending is

1. directly proportional

2. inversely proportional

3. curvilinearly released

4. none of the above

80. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain

under a steady tensile stress is called

1. yielding

2. creeping

3. breaking

4. none of the above

81. Vicats apparatus is used to perform the test

of

1. finess

2. setting time

3. consistency

4. compressive strength

82. For M 150 concrete, according to I.S.

specification local bond stress is

1. 5

10

3. 15

4. 20

83. A prestressed concrete member is

made of concrete

stressed

3. made of reinforced concrete

4. none of the above

84. A column splice is used to increase

1. length of

2. strength of column

3. cross sectional area of

4. none of the above

85. The stress in the wall or a thin cylinder

subjected to internal pressure is

1. hoop compression

2. shear

3. torsional shear

hoop tension

86. The inventor of the term soil mechanic was

1.

2. Dr. Karl Terzaghi

3.

4. Fellenius

87. Pycrometer is used to determine

void ratio

dry density

3. watercontent

4. density index

.... co-efficient of compressibility of soil is

ratio of

stress to strain

2. strain to stress

3. stress to settlement

4. rate of loading to that of settlement

89. The bearing capacity of soil is

1. total load on the bearing area

2. safe load on the bearing area

3. load a t which soil fails

4. load at which soil consolidates

90. Under piles are generally

1. driven piles

2. board files

3. precast piles

4. all of the above

91. The unit of Kinematic viscosity is

2

/sec

m

2. newton per m

3. newton - per

4. per

2

2 3

2

92. From a nozzle exposed to atmosphere, the

liquid jet traverses along

1. a straight line

2. a circular path

3. an elliptical path

4. a parabolic path

93. The standard height of a standard rain gauge

is

1.

2. 20 cm

3. 30cm

4. 50 cm

94. The formula V = 400 1 4) used for

determining the velocity of groundwater flow

in meter per day is known as

1. Meinzer's formula

2. Slichter's

3. Darcy's formula

4.

95. For the estimate of high floods in fan -

shaped catchment, the formula used is

1. Dicken's formula

2. formula

3.

4. None of the above

96. A circular sewer section is preferred to other

shapes because

1. it is cheaper in construction

2. it provides a area for a given

3. it provides hydraulic mean

4. all of the above

97. The coagulant widely used for sewage

treatment is

1. alum

2. ferricchloride

3. ferric sulphate

4. chlorinated sulphur

98. The maximum pressure to a pipe is

subjected to during its operation is known as

1. working pressure

2. design pressure

3. test pressure

4. pipe pressure

99. For controlling the algae, the most commonly

used chemical is

1. copper sulphate .

2. alum

3. lime

4. bleaching powder

Inglish formula

perimeter

depth

100. The most commonly used chemical for

dechlorination of water is

1. sodium thiosulphate

2. sodium bisulphate

3. sodium sulphate

4. all of the above

101. The boundary of water of a still lake,

represents a

1. level surface

2. horizontal surface

3. contour line

4. concave surface

102. Removal of parallax may be achieved by

1. refocusing the objective

2. refocusing the eye-piece

3. refocusing the objective and eye piece

4. none of the above

103. International date line is located along

1. Standard meridian

2. Greenwich meridian

3. Equator

4. longitude

104. The position of the sun when its north

declination is maximum is known as

1. Vernal equinox

2. Autumnal equinox

3. Summer solstice

4. Winter solstice

105. Triangulation surveys are carried out for

providing

1. planimetric control

2. height control

3. both planimetric and height control

4. none of the above

106. If no super evaluation is provided on a road

along curves pot holes may develop at

1. Inner edge of the road

2. Outer edge of the road

3. Centre of the road

4. No where on the road

107. The length of transition curve is governed by

rate of change of radial acceleration

2. rate of change of super-elevation

3.

4. neither nor

108. The basic formula for the determination of

thickness of was first suggested

1.

2. Picket

3. Kelly

4. Gold beck

109. Maximum wheel base distance provided on

Indian B.G. track is

1. 4.096 m

2. 5.096 m

3. 6.096 m

4. 7.096 m

110. The spike commonly used to fix rails to

wooden sleepers in Indian railway is

1.

2. screw spike

3. round spike

4. all of the above

The relation between the air base

photographic base flying height and

the focal length of a vertical photograph is

1.

2.

3.

4.

112. The rotation of the aircraft about axis is

designated by the letter

1. is sometimes called 'roll7

2. is sometimes called 'pitch'

3. is sometimes called 'swing'

4. none of the above

113. The satellite launched by USA is

1.

SPOT

ERS

114. spatial resolution of IRS -IC PAN

satellite data is

1.

2. 36.25 m

3. 5.8 m

4 2 0 m

115. During the cloud, the satellite sensor used to

take observation is

1. optical sensor

2. microwave sensor

3. both optical and microwave sensor

4. none of the above

116. The vector data base structure used in is

1. Network database structure

2. Hierarchical data structure

3. relational data base structure

4. all of the above

117. Data used to study the details of data

available in environment is called

1. relational data base

2. oracle

3. meta data

4.

118. The input device used to enter the data in

environment is

1. scanner

2. digitizer

3. key board

4. all of the above

119. is used for

1. urban planning

2. utility planning

3. disaster management

4. all of the above

120. The two data models used in are

1. TIN model and DEM

2. DEM and DTM

3. Raster and vector

4. None of the above

PART 04 -MECHANICAL, AUTOMOBILE AND AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

76. The efficiency of a Screw Jack is given by 81. The steel used for rails under heavy

1. +

2.

tan

t a n a

4.

tan a

tan( a-

tan a

and on sharp curves is

1. manganese steel

2. chrome steel

3. cast steel

4. mild steel

82. Corrosion resistance of stainless steel is due

to

1. Chromium

2. Vanadium

77. The train value of a gear train is

1. equal to velocity ratio of a gear train 3. Carbon

2. reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear 4. Sulphur

3. always greater than unity 83. Which material will have highest limiting

4. always less than unity

78. The ratio of the maximum displacement of

the forced vibration to the deflection to 2. Cast iron

the static force is known as 3. steel

1. damping factor

2. damping coefficient

3.

4. magnification factor

79. A plate with a circular hole is subjected to a 12 and by radiation to the

transverse load. The magnitude of stress surrounding surfaces at C. The total heat

1. same as the stress in the transverse 1. 1987 W

2. 3 the stress in transverse 2. 2239 W

3. 2 times the stress in the transverse

4. the magnitude of the stress is zero 85. For an irreversible process, entropy change

80. The main constituent of is 1. greater than

1. aluminium

2. manganese

3. copper 3.

4. magnesium 4. equal to zero

train

strength?

1. Aluminium

4. Wrought. iron

84. A 3 hot black surface at C is losing

heat to the surrounding air at 25" C

convection with a convection coefficient of

of the hole in the axial direction is loss from the surface is

direction

direction 3. 2348 W

2. equal to S Q

... coefficient is given by

4. ( S S I S P ) ,

87. Following relationship defines the Gibbs free

energy G

1.

2.

3.

4. F = U - T S

88. Internal energy of an ideal gas

are functions of

1. temperature and pressure

2. pressure only

3. temperature only

4. temperature and specific volume

89. In S.I. Units one ton of refrigeration is equal

to

1. 210

2. 2 1

3. 420

4. 840

90. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour

expansion valve

1. electrically operated throttle valve

2. capillary tube

3. expansion valve

4. thermostatic valve

cycle uses the following type of

91. Which of the following refrigerants has the

lowest freezing point?

1. Freon -12

2. NH,

3.

4. Freon -22

92. The most suitable refrigerant for a

commercial ice plant is

1. Brine

2. Freon -12

3. NH,

4.

93. Air is dehumidified by

1. heating

2. cooling

3. injecting water

4. injecting

94. In which type of welding a pool of molten

metal is used

1. electroslag

2. submerged arc

3. MIG

4. TIG

95. A brazed joint may be satisfactorily used on

components made of

1. tin plate

2. brass

3. copper

4. aluminium

96. In sand moulding, the middle part of flask is

called

1. cope

2. check

3. drag

4. flask-middle

97. For grinding cast iron, brass and aluminium 103. The inertia of the rotating

which one of the following material is used should be

for wheel? 1. maximum

1. Aluminium oxide 2. minimum

2. Silicon carbide 3. zero

3. Borazon

4. Diamond

98. The process in which higher hydrocarbons to reduce

are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons is

called 1. torsional vibrations

1. cracking 2. vehicle speed

2. reforming 3. jerky starts

3. polymerization 4. engine speed

4. alkylation

99. One effect of detonation is

1. delay in ignition

2. interruption in lubrication

3. loss of power

4. deterioration in the quality of air-fuel 4. clutch pedal is depressed

4. 50 % of minimum

104. Cushioning springs in clutch plate are mean;

105. The thrust bearings should come into contact

with the release levers when the

1. vehicle is stationary

2. vehicle is running very fast

3. vehicle is driven very slow

mixture

106. Free pedal play in car clutches is about

100. An indication of quality of diesel fuel

is given by

1. detonation

2. octane number 3. 60mm

3. pre-ignition 4.

4. cetane number

101. The most widely used fuel supply system for slope of a thin airfoil is

car engine is 1. per degree

1. Gravity system

2. Pressure system

3. Vacuum system

4. Pump system

102. Fuel pump pressure should be approximately

107. Thin airfoil theory predicts the lift curve

2. per radian

3. per degree

4. 2n per radian

108. NACA 0014 implies that the airfoil is

1.

2. positively cambered

3. negatively cambered

4. cusped

. component of a transonic airplane for

. nose

3. tail

4. fuselage

Induced drag of an airplane can be reduced

1. boundary layer fence

2. spoilers

3.

4. decreasing aspect ratio

111. V-n diagram is a plot of

1. Velocity Vs normal force

2. Volumetric flow Vs normal force

3. Velocity Vs load factor

4. Volumetric flow Vs load factor

112. The order of temperature in the primary zone

of a can type coinbustor is

1.

2.

3. 400 K

4. 3400 K

The overall air to fuel ratio in a turbojet

engine is approximately

1. 67

2. 15

3. 8

4. 4

The order of pressure ratio that can be

achieved in a single sided centrifugal

compressor is

1. 24

2. 6

3. 42

4. 2

115. For turbine blade cooling, the'coolant air is

tapped from the following range of stages of a

multistage-axial flow compressor

1. 10 to 12

2. 4 to 6

3. 18 to 20

4. 1st and 2nd stages only

transonic area rule applied is

wing

116. In an optimally expanded jet engine nozzle,

the nozzle exit pressure is equal to

1. half of ambient pressure

2. ambient pressure

3. one-fourth of combustion chamber

4. pressure at inlet section of the intake of

pressure

the engine

117. In case of pure shear at a point, the sum of

normal stresses on two rectangular

orthogonal planes is equal to

1. maximum shear stress

2. twice the maximum shear stress

3. half the maximum shear stress

4. zero

118. A hollow shaft of same cross sectional area as

solid shaft transmits

1. same torque

2. less torque

3. more torque

4. depends on the external diameter

119. The effective length of a column with one end

fixed and the other end free is

1. its own length

2. twice its length

3. half its length

4. x its length

120. A spherical vessel with an inside diameter of

2 m is made of material having an allowable

stress in tension of 500 cm

thickness of the shell to withstand a pressure

of 25 bar should be

5cm

2.

3. 2.5 cm

4. 1.25 cm

PART 05 -ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS, COMMUNICATION INSTRUMENTATION

ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

76. How much energy is stored by a 100 81. A shunt generator running at

inductance with a current of 1A? has generated as 200 V. If the speed

1. 100 J increases to 1200 rpm, the generated emf

2. 1J

will be nearly

77. If a network contains B branches and

N nodes then the number of mesh current 4. 2 9 0 V

equations would be

82. In a generator in case the resistance of

the field winding is increased then output

2. voltage will

B- N-1 1. increase

2. decrease

78. 3. remain unaffected

the current 4. fluctuate

1. leads the applied voltage 83. D.C. motors are widely used in

2. lags behind the applied voltage

3. is in phase with the voltage

4. is in quadrature with the voltage

79. In a certain series RC circuit, the true power

4. Machine shops is 2W and the reactive power is 3.5 VAR.

What is the apparent power?

1. 3.5 VA

2. 2 V A 1. armature

3. 4.03VA 2. field

4. 3 V A 3. rotor

80. A sine wave voltage is applied across an 4. stator

inductor when the frequency of voltage is

increased, the current 85. An over-excited synchronous motor takes

1. increases 1. leading current

2. decreases

3. remains the same

4. is zero 4. in phase current

1. sets

2. Air compressors

3. Electric traction

84. The starting winding of a single-phase motor

is placed in

2. lagging current

3. both (1)and (2)

In open loop the control action

1. depends on the size of the system

2. depends on system variables

3. depends on the input signal

4. is independent of the output

87. A controller is essentially a

1. Sensor

2. Clipper

3. Comparator

4. Amplifier

88. A signal flow graph is a

1. topological representation of a set of

differential equations

2. polar graph

3. log log graph

4. special type of graph to analyse

modern control systems

91. A Norton's equivalent is

1. parallel circuit

2. series circuit

3. series-parallel circuit

4. none of the above

92. A resistor of 5 ohms is connected in one

branch of a complex network. The current in

this branch is A. If this 5 resistor is

replaced by 10 resistor the current in this

branch will be

1.

2. A

3. 5 A

4. less than 5 A

93. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop

across a resistor, it is necessary to know the

5

89. the gain margin is positive and the

phase margin is negative, the system is

1. stable

2. unstable

3. stable or unstable depending on the

value of the resistor

2. value of current through the resistor

3. direction of current through the

system

resistor

4. undeterministic

90. The effect of adding poles and zeros can be

determined quickly by which of the

following?

1. Root locus

2. Nyquist plot

3. Bode plot

4. Nicholar chart

4. power consumed by the resistor

94. In a network the number of tree branches

1. is equal to the number of links

2. cannot be equal to number of links

3. is twice the number of links

4. has no relation with the number of link

branches

95. For a voltage source 99. Inverter gain is given by the ratio

1. the source emf and terminal voltage

are equal

2. terminal voltage is always lower than

source emf

3. terminal voltage cannot be higher than

source emf

1. dc output input voltage

2. ac output input voltage

3. dc output input voltage

4. ac output voltageldcinput voltage

100. A diode works on the principle of

1. tunnelling of charge carriers across the

4. terminal voltage is zero

96. Kirchoffs voltage law states that the

1. total voltage drop in a series circuit is

junction

2. thermionic emission

3. diffusion of charge carriers across the

junction

always finite

4. hoping of charge carriers across the

2. sum of emf and voltage drops in a

junction

closed mesh is zero

3. sum of emfs in a series circuit is zero

4. sum of emf and voltage drops in a

closed mesh is not zero

97. In a thyristor, the magnitude of anode

current will

1. increase if gate current is increased

2. decrease if gate current is decreased

3. increase if gate current is decreased

4. not change with variation in gate

101. The major application of chopper drive is in

1. traction

2. computers

3. heating furnishes

4. miniature motors

When a thyristor gets turned on, the gate

drive

1. should not be removed or it will turn

off the SCR

may or may not be removed

current

3. should be removed

4. should be removed in order to avoid

98. For an SCR, dildt protection is achieved

through the use of

1. R in series with SCR

2. L in series with SCR

3. RL in series with SCR

4. RLC in series with SCR

increased losses and higher function

temperature

103. Computer cannot do anything without a

1. chip

2. memory

3. output device

4. program

104. The first computer made available for

1. Mark-I

2. ENIAC

3.

4. UNIVAC

105. When did Intel announce its 16-bit 80286

chip?

1. 1980

2. 1982

3. 1984

4. 1986

106. How many bits can be stored in the 8 K

RAM?

1. 8000

2. 8192

3. 4000

4. 4096

107. The larger the RAM of a computer, the faster

its processing speed is since it eliminates the

1. need of ROM

2. need for external memory

3. frequent disk

use was

109. The most suitable thermocouple to be used

for measuring temperature in the range of

C to 1500" C is

2. Iron-Constantan

3.

Platinum-Rhodium

110. LVDT is a

1. displacement transducer

2. velocity transducer

3. acceleration transducer

pressure transducer

need for wider data path

108. Which of the following types of transducers

can be used for measuring the angular

position?

(a) Circular potentiometer

LVDT

E-Pick off

Synchro

111. In a strain measuring equipment using a

resistance strain gauge the output quantity

is

1. resistance

2. voltage

3. current

4. impedance

112. If the temperature increases by C, the

resistivity of a thermistor is likely to become

1. one half of initial value

2. one fiftieth of initial value

3. twice the initial value

4. no change

113. The purpose of duplexer is

1. to convert TDM to FDM

2. to provide same antenna both for

3. to convert pulsed transmission to

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

1. and

2. (a) and

3. and

4. and

transmission and reception

transmission

4. both (1)and

114. In FM transmission, amplitude of the 118. Generally the aircraft electrical system

modulating signal determines supply frequency of

1. rate of frequency variations

1. amount of frequency shift

3. total balance of transmission 2. 60 Hz

4. distance of broadcast

115. The highest harmonic generated in human

voice is 4. 115 Hz

3. 400 Hz

1kHz

2.

3. 3kHz

4.

116. If the reflection coefficient of a line is zero,

the line is

1. Infinite line

2. Open-circuited

3. Short-circuited

4. Very short line

117. The receiving antenna most used

for TV broadcasting in the UHF band is

1. turnstile antenna 2. any altitude

119. In GPS Navigation, there can be integration

between

1. GPS and INS

2. GPS and LORAN C

3. GPS and ILS

4. GPS and DME

120. Mach Number is defined as the ratio between

True air speed and speed of the sound at

1. sea level

dipole antenna

3. antenna

4. antenna

3. a particular altitude

4. all altitudes

PART 06 -EARTHSCIENCES

(Answer ALL questions)

The margins a t which the plates neither gain

nor lose surface area are called

1. Continental margins

2. Destructive margins

Conservative margins

4. None of the above

Geosynclines located on the tectonically

stable margins of the continents are referred

as

1. Paralia-geosynclines

2. Mio-geosynclines

4. Eugeosynclines

A network of parallel or sub-parallel streams

developed along strike and dip direction is

known as

1. Resequent

2. Trellis

3. Dendritic

4. Pinnate

The Hawaiian islands are examples of

1. Transform fault

2. Fissure eruption

3. Interplate volcanoes

4. Intra volcanic chain

Part of the sea floor adjoining a landmass is

known as

1. Continental shelf

2. Continental slope

3. Beach

4. Continental rise

The crustal model of isostasy was proposed

1. Washington and Clark

2. Wegener

3. Jacob

4. Sir George Airy

Higher roundness of grains indicates

1. Degree of Weathering

2. Longer distance of transport

3. Maturity of sediment

4. Shorter distance of transport

Schist is a rock associated with

1. Tin

2. Gold

3. Copper

4. Aluminium

the following is first to

crystallize on cooling?

1. Quartz

2. Feldspar

3. Olivine

4. Mica

Diamonds are usually associated with

1. Granite

2. Sandstone

3.

4.

Leucocratic rocks are

1. Dark coloured

2. Medium grey coloured

3. Light grey coloured

4. to dark grey coloured

is a rock that possesses

1. Porphyro-blastic texture

2. Granitic texture

3. Vesicular texture

4. Ophitic texture

Joints that are perpendicular to fold axes and

having steep dips are called

1. Release joints

2. Extension joints

3. Shear joints

4. None of the above

Petrofabric diagram occurring as girdle will

represent

B-Tectonite

2. R-Tectonite

3. S-Tectonite

4. Both and

90. Dome and basin structures are characteristic 97. Blue Quartz veins are of special value in

of searching for

1. Type I interference pattern

2. Type interference pattern

3. Type interference pattern

4. None of the above

91. The ratio of transverse strain to axial strain 98. The metallic mineral known to be a good

is called conductor of electricity is

2. Poisson's ratio

4. Breaking strength

92. A group of beds which are able to lift their 99. In cavity filling deposits, the ore is built up in

own weight and that of overlying rock strata successive layers called

without much internal flowage is called 1.

1. Incompetent beds

2. Ductile material

3. Competent beds

4. Rheid

93. The hingeline of a doubly plunging fold will measured are not stationary but vary with

be time is

1. Curvilinear

2. Horizontal

3. Rectilinear

4. None of the above

94. The host rocks for banded iron formation are 101. Overbreak is a term associated with

1. Quartzites 1. Construction of dams

2.

3. Granite

4. Schist

95. Fluorspar deposits at Amba are 102. dam in Kerala is an example of

associated with 1. Masonry dam

1. Granites 2. Arch dam

2. Carbonatites 3. Gravity dam

3. Phyllites 4. Embankment dam

4. Marbles

96. Bauxite mining in India is mainly done in of a well can be measured by

1. Deccan traps 1. Caliper logging

2. Lateritic terrains 2. Neutron logging

3. Phyllites

4. Granites

1. Gold

2. Silver

3. Lead

4. Zinc

Compressibility 1. Hematite

Modulus of Elasticity

2. Chromite

3.

4. Galena

2. Geode

3. Druse

4. Crustification

100. The geophysical technique in which the fields

1. Electrical

2. Magnetic

3. Gravity

4. Seismic

2. Tunneling operation

3. Bridge construction

4. Drilling bore wells

103. Well diameter and mud content of the walls

3. Photoelectric logging

4. Electrical logging

104. The geophysical method that can successfully 110. The coefficient of permeability is

locate copper, lead and zinc deposits is expressed as

1. Seismic method

2. Magnetic method

3. Gravity method

4. Airborne electromagnetic method

105. Airborne magnetometry, used to locate

magnetic minerals can be effective a

depth of

1. 600 to 800

2. 400 to 600 metres

3. to 1200 metres

200 to 400 metres

4. None of the above

111. Which one of the following has the highest

porosity?

1. Limestone

2. Sandstone

3. Clay

4. Gravel

112. The water stored and released after flood is

called as

1. Specific retention

2. Specific yield

3. Flood yield

4. Bank storage

113. Specific retention may be expressed as

1. =- loo W

106. The fastest method of drilling for

groundwater is

1. Cable tool method

2. Hydraulic rotary method

3. Boring method

4. None of the above

107. In an unconsolidated aquifer, where the

water table is at shallow depth, suitable

well would be

1. Dug well

2. Driven well

3. Bored well

4. Jetted well

108. Water of magmatic origin is known as

1. Meteoric water

2. Capillary water

3. Connate water

4. Juvenile water

109. Recharge area is that region which

1. Supplies water to perched aquifer

2. Supplies water to unconfined aquifer

4. Supplies water to confined aquifer

Receives water from confined aquifer

114. Water containing less than 1 gm of salts per

kilogram of water is classified as

1. Hot water

2. Salt water

3. Cold water

4. Fresh water

115. The relationship between fresh and saline

water can be understood by

1. Hill's method

2. Ghyben-Herzberg principle

3. Darcy's law

4. Reynold's number

76. Electroforming is particularly useful for 82. The concept of can be easily

1. Non-ferrous components

2. Thin walled parts requiring order 2. T joint of accuracy and internal surface finish

3. Manufacturing electrical conductors 4. V joint

4. Parts cannot be machined

The investment castings tolerances be

expected to the extent of

1.

3. Butt joint

The shielding gases used in is

83.

1. any gas

2. only inert gas

3. of gases where inert gas

4. combination of two different

a must

gases only

78. Shot peening 1. Free vibration

1. is a t recrystallisation

2. changes the crystalline structure of

3. improves the fatigue life of parts

4. refines the grain structure

79. The process used for manufacturing the body

of a carburettor is

1. Fine sand casting

2. Metal spraying

3. Die casting

4. Continuous casting

80. Construction of FLD curve is based upon

1. Applied load during forming

2. Circumferential strains

3. Frictional stresses

4. Chemical composition of material

81. Hidden welding is mainly carried out by

1. TIG

2. Under water welding

3. EBW

4. LBW

temperature 3. Random vibration

In machine tools chatter occurs due to

2. Forced vibration

4. Self excited vibration

85. In cutting tool materials, considering the

property of hardness, the next hard

to diamond is

1. Stellite

2. CBN

3. Coated carbides

4.

86. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by

1. Sine bar

2. Bench micrometer

3. Optical

4. Optical projector

87. Optical flats are made of

1. Quartz

2. Glass

3. Plastic

4. Silicon

88. Vee Block used in the workshop is to

the

2. Surface roughness

3. Dimensions of an oval job

4. Taper on a job

Roundness of a cylindrical work

89. Electron beam machining removes materials

1. Shear

2. Melting and vapourisation

3. Erosion

4. Abrasive action

90. The type of chip produced when cutting cast

iron is

1. Discontinuous

2. Continuous

3. With built up edge

4. Curled

91. The percentage of Pearlite present in

0.4 C steel is

96. The coding system which consist of 5 digit

form code and 4 digit supplementary code is

1. system

2. OPITZ system

3. DCLASS system

4. COFORM system

97. The protocol developed

jointly by industries for Network

Communication is

1. MAP

2. JIT

3. TQM

4. SNA

98. The data structure used to represent the

B-Rep is known as

1. Edge vertice data structure

2. Winged edge data structure

3. Model based data structure

4. Linked list data structure

99. The Euler-Pontcare formula to check the

validity of the solid model is

2.

3.

92. is an alloy of Aluminium and

1. Copper

2. Magnesium

3. Zinc

4. Silicon

93. Which one of the following pair constitutes

Pearlite?

1. Ferrite + Austenite

2. Austenite + Cementite

3. Cementite + Ferrite

4. Ferrite + Martensite

94. The corrosion resistance of stainless steel is

due to the presence of

1. Chromium

2. Nickel

3. Silicon

4. Tungsten

95. During Vulcanizing, the rubber is heated

with

1.

2. Sulphur

3. Silicon

4. Zinc

100. Which of the following datum selection is

difficult for process planning engineer?

1. The machine

2. The fixture datum

3. The part datum

4. The tool datum

101. A small firm produces 100 pens per day. The

direct material cost is found to be Rs. 160,

direct labour cost is Rs. 200 and factory

overheads chargeable to it is Rs. 250. If the

selling on cost is 40 % of the factory cost,

what must be the selling price of each pen to

realise a profit of 14.6 % of the selling price?

1. Rs. 8.54

2. Rs. 10

3. Rs. 6.10

Rs. 8.10

For a shop producing one type (or) class of

product, the suitable over-head allocation

method would be

1. Man-hour rate

2. Machine hour rate

3. Unit rate

4. Machine and man hour rate

103. The material used for the manufacture of Jig

Bush is

1. Bronze

2. Brass

3. Copper

4. Hardened Steel

104. The locator used in milling operation is

1. Stepping block

2. Height gauge

3. Setting block

4. V-block

105. In press operation, the size of the blanked

part is dependent on the size of

1. die and clearance

2. punch and clearance

3. die

4. punch

106. Queuing theory deals problems of

1. material handling

2. reducing the waiting time

3. better utilization of manpower

4. effective utilization of machines

107. PERT has the following time estimates

1. One time estimate

2. Two time estimate

3. Three time estimate

4. Four time estimate

108. The simplex method is the basic method for

1. Value analysis

2. Queueing problems

3. Linear

4. Network analysis

109. The probability distribution of project

1. Normal distribution

2. Binomial distribution

3. Beta distribution

4. Exponential distribution

110. A two person zero sum game is known as

1. person game

2. Fair game

3. Zero sum game

4. Rectangular game

111. Work study is concerned with

1. improving present method and finding

2. motivation of workers

3. improving production capability

4. improving production planning and

112. String diagram is used when

1. a team of workers is working at a place

2. handling is involved

3. idle time is to be reduced

4. machining time is to be reduced

113. ABC analysis deals with

1. analysis of process

2. flow of material

3. scheduling

4. controlling inventory costs

114. Process layout is employed for

1. batch production

2. continuous production

3. effective utilization of machines

4. mass production

115. The economic order, quantity is the

1. highest level of inventory

2. lot corresponding to break even point

3. capability of the plant

4. optimum lot size

in PERT follows

standard time

control

PART 08 -COMPUTER SCIENCE ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

of the following languages cannot be 81

I. string of a's an equal

number of b's

All possible strings consisting of a's and

b's

A string with zero or more occurrences

of a's followed by zero or more

occurrences of b's

A string in which every occurrence of 'a'

is followed by an even of b's

1. I

2. I1

3.

4.

77. The contrapositive of the formula is

78. Given the premises and

H 2 :P,the conclusion is

Q

2. P

3.

4.

The instructions for which equivalent object

code are not generated during assembling are

1. machine operations

2. pseudo operations

3. binary operations

4. macro operations

80. The tool Yacc in UNIX generates

1. lexer

2. parser

3. code generator

4. code optimizer

down parsers cannot be built for

1. left factored

2. right factored

3. left recursive

4. right recursive

82. The tenn 'dead code' refers to that section of

the source program that is

1. dead

2. reentrant

3. unreachable

4. redundant

83. The descriptor table registers are used for

implementing

1. task switches

2. interrupt transfers

3. virtual memory

4. control transfers

84. Call gates are used for Accessing

1. higher privileged code

2. interrupt service routines

3. subroutines

4. control segments

85. Which of the following cannot be used to

connect external devices?

1.

2. SCSI

3. USB

4.

86. Masking of an interrupt

1. enables the interrupt

2. disables the interrupt permanently

3. changes the priority of the interrupt

4. hides the interrupt from

the processor

87. Pick out the odd one

1. 8087

2. 80287

3. 80387

4. 8257

88. The Intel family of microprocessors supports

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4.

89. The ASSUME assembler directive is used to

1. load the segment registers with their

2. indicate which logical segment is to be

3. make the assembler assume certain

certain delay

branch

after the branch instructions

number of privilege levels

instruction per cycle

together

appropriate values

associated with the physical

default settings

tell the assembler to ignore certain

default settings

93. A delayed branch

1. is a branch that is executed after a

2. is the penalty paid for speculating a

3. refers to placing useful instructions

4. none of the above

94. A superscalar processor is

1. a vector processor

2. a processor which issues more than one

3. a number of scalar processors

4. all of the above

95. Segmentation results in

1. internal fragmentation

2. external fragmentation

3. both external and internal

4. neither external nor internal

fragmentation

fragmentation

90. The value represented by the hex number

number, with 1 is

1. 4.5

2. 45000000

3. 2.5

4. 0.22

91. A microprogramme control unit is better than

a hardwired control unit, because it is

1. flexible

2. faster

3. easier to design manually

4. cheaper

92. Which of the following is not part of a

microprogrammed control unit?

1. Micro PC

2. Control store

3. Clock

4. Control step counter

representing a floating point

96. A computer with a 32-bit address uses a two

level page table. Virtual addresses are split

into a 9-bit top level page table field, a

offset. How large are pages?

1. 9 K

second level page table field and an

97. Consider a swapping system in which

memory consists of the following hole sizes in

memory order :

K , 4 K, 20 K, K, 7 K, K a n d

K

Which hole is taken for successive segment

.requests of 12 K, 10 K, 9 K for best fit?

1 0 K, 20 K, K

requests come into the disk driver for 104. The output of assembler in code is

10, 22, 20, 2, 40, 6 and 38 in that referred to as

order. A seek takes 4 m per cylinder

moved. How much seek time is needed for 1. assembly program

First Come First Served disk scheduling? The 2. object program

arm is initially at cylinder 15.

2. 564 m

3. 596 m

4. 112 m

99. The system call to create a process in UNIX

is 1. cycles

1. execve 2. instructions

2. wait

3.

4. fork

100. Process holds resource and waits for

resource Rz. Process holds resource and 1. work stations

waits for resource There are only single

instances of and Rz. The system is said to 2. Super mini computers

be

2. deadlocked

3. waiting 107. Which of the following value for SQLCODE

4. running indicates successful execution of embedded

SQL statements 101. A running process makes a read system call.

Then the process will 1. Negative

1. move to ready state

2. remain in running state

3. move to blocked state

4. move to terminated state 4. Hundred

102. MAR register maintains the 108. Recovery in distributed databases uses the

1. address of data values in the memory 1. Two phase protocol

2. address of the current instruction being

3. contents of the word being addressed 3. Three phase commit protocol

4. address of the next instruction to be 4. Mobile protocol

109. Which of the following is not a recovery 103. Pseudocode technique?

1. is a counterfeit and abbreviated version

2. is used for machine level programming 2. Immediate update

3. is used to solve complex logical

4. is used in transmission of signals 4. Write ahead logging

569 m

3. source program

4. macro instructions

105. T h e speed of computers used for

application is measured in

second

3. logical inferences

4. revolutions

synchronized

3. Time sharing terminals

4. Graphic work stations

2. Zero

3. Positive

executed 2. Two phase commit protocol

executed

of actual computer instruction 1. Deferred update

programming 3. Shadow paging

110. Which of the following is an integrity 113. In frame relay which bit in the address field

constraint? is set to one to signify the last address byte?

1. Domain constraint

2. Entity integrity

3. Referential integrity

4. All of the above

111. Which of the following is not a front end tool?

1. Oracle

2. Visual Basic

3.

4. Power Builder

112. The physical layer protocol directly specified

for the X protocol is

1. RS 232

2.

3. DB-15

4. DB 37

1. DE (discard eligibility)

2. EA (extended address)

3.

4. FECN (forward explicit congestion

notification)

114. A bridge has access to the

address of a station on the same network

1. physical

2. network

3. service access point

4. IP

115. A device that has two IP addresses is

1. a computer

2. a router

3. a gateway

any of the above

PART 09-CHEMISTRY, CHEMICAL ENGINEERING AND CERAMIC TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

How much work is done by mol of a gas 81. Viscous heat sensitive liquids are

during a reversible non-flow concentrated in

expansion an initial to a 1. open pan evaporators

final volume when the equation of state is 2. long tube vertical evaporators

P ( V = RT , where is a positive

constant? 3. agitated film evaporators

W = RT

4. none of the above

82. In a boiling curve, the peak heat flux is called

1. the melting

2. frost

3. the boiling

4. burn out

point

77. Clausius-Clapeyron equation is applicable in 83. The binary diffusivity in gases and liquids

1. melting processes only vary respectively as

2. vaporization processes only

3. sublimation processes only

4. all of the above

78. Mollier chart is a

1. pressure Vs enthalpy chart

2. pressure Vs volume chart

3. enthalpy Vs entropy chart

4. temperature Vs entropy chart

79. Which of the following factors control the 2. both the operating lines coincide with

deactivation of a porous catalyst pellet? diagonal

1. decay reactions

2. pore diffusion

3. form of surface attack by poison

4. all of the above 85. Peclet number for mass transfer is

80. Which of the following is an autocatalytic defined as

reaction?

1. Photochemical reactions

2. Microbial fermentation reaction

3. Enzyme fermentation reaction

4. Ammonia synthesis reaction

1. and T

2. T and

3. and

4. and

84. In method, at infinite

ratio

1. the overhead product is minimum

3. both and

4. neither nor

86. Dynamic similarity is the similarity of

1.

2. streamline pattern

3. forces influencing the fluid motion

4. discharge

87. The pressure drop in flow through

pipe is equal to

92. Catalytic oxidation of naphthalene produces

1. Styrene

2. Phenol

3. Phthalic anhydride

4. None of the above

93. In a fuel cell

1. electrical energy is converted into

2. chemical energy is converted into

3. electrical energy is converted into

4. mechanical energy is converted into

chemical energy

electrical energy

mechanical energy

electrical energy

88. The discharge through a sharp-crested

rectangular weir is proportional to

1. H

2.

3.

4.

89. Turbulent flow generally occurs for cases

involving

1. highly viscous fluid

2. very narrow passages

3. very slow motion

4. none of the above

90. The continuity equation

1. represents the conservation of energy

2. represents the conservation of mass

3. represents the conservation of

4. none of the above

91. Which of the following impurities in feed

water for high pressure boiler is most

detrimental?

1. Silica

2. Dissolved oxygen

3. Suspended salt

4. Dissolved salt

momentum

94. Yeast cannot be used in the manufacture of

1. loaf of bread in bakeries

2. pencillin

3. wine

4. all of the above

95. In process of paper manufacture, white

cooking liquor consists of caustic soda

1. Sodium sulphide, Sodium carbonate

2. Sodium sulphite, Sodium carbonate

3. Sodium sulphite, Sodium sulphide

4. None of the above

96. The optical component in IR is made up of

1. Nernst Glower

2. Copper Chloride

3. Sodium Chloride

4. electric cell

97. Which one among the following compounds is

IR active?

1.

2. 0,

3. co,

4.

. and Intra molecular hydrogen bonding

can be distinguished by

1. vapourising the sample and eluting

2. diluting the sample and recording IR

3. using C, H, N, S analyzer

4. applying law

99. The NMR signal for ethanol would be

1. a triplet, a doublet, a singlet

2. two triplet, one doublet

3. two triplet, one singlet

4. two singlet, one triplet

100. Using GC-mass spectrophotometer, we can

1. Structural determination

2. Separation of from

3. Quantitative determination

4. (2) and

101. The with least hardness is

1. talc

2. zircon

3. diamond

4. carbon

102. Whiskers are

1. Monocrystalline

2. Polycrystalline

3. Nono-crystalline

4. Noncrystalline

103. Rice hulls are used to produce

whiskers

1. Carbon

3. Cellulose

105. Ceramic materials generally have an

extremely low value of

elastic modulus

through a chromatographic column

spectra

2. hardness

3. strength

4. fracture toughness

106. The strength is highest for a

1. glass-ceramic

2. annealed glass

3. glass fiber

4. tempered glass

107. Glass which is completely soluble in water is

Sodium Silicate

and identification

2. Borosilicate

3. Vitreous Silica

4. None of the above

108. The prescribed cooling rate for a fiber of

0.065 diameter with of suspended

load as per ASTM is

0.4'

2.

3. 0.4'

4. 4.0"

109. The operating temperature of rotary kiln for

cement making is

1700 - C

104. The material used as a dehumidifying and

dehydrating agent is

1. Hydro gel

2. Ionic gel

3. Silica gel

4. Alumina gel

2. 900 - C

3. 1400 - C

4. 700 - C

110. Ring formation inside a rotary kiln occurs in

1. steaming zone

2. transition zone

3. sintering zone

4. cooling zone

111. Which of the following characteristic is not 116. The sequence of various steps involved in

represented by graphite refractories? galvanising process is

1. High resistance to corrosion action of

2. They do not allow the heat to pass

3. Closure texture

4. Excellent refractory material and can

1. preliminary treatment, pickling, zinc

slag and bases

through

2. pickling, preliminary treatment, zinc

be used under neutral or reducing

conditions

3. preliminary treatment, pickling,

4. annealing, pickling, preliminary

112. Periclase refractory contains mainly

bath treatment and annealing

respectively

bath treatment and annealing

respectively

annealing and zinc bath treatment

treatment and zinc bath treatment

respectively

3.

113. Heat conduction of a fired brick when

compared to unfired brick is

1. high

2. low

3. similar

4. none of the above

114. Point out the wrong statement in addition

polymerisation

1. The presence of one or more double

2. units simply add to one

3. Small molecules such as

bonds in monomers and generally only

one monomer is used

another

are evolved during

4. Process is faster than condensation

reaction

polymerisation

117. Strong electrolytes are those which

1. dissolve readily in water

2. dissolve readily in organic solvents

3. dissociate into ions at all

4. pass electricity

118. According to theory, the

viscosity of a polymer solution or melts is

proportional to

1. concentration

2. molecular weight

3. both and

4. none of the above

119. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in

1. ethanol

2. diethyl ether

3. ethyl chloride

4. trimethylamine

120. Which of the following compounds is oxidised

to prepare methyl ethyl ketone?

1. Propanol-2

2.

concentrations

115. An injection molding machine may be a

1. plunger type

2. piston type preplasticating

3. reciprocating screw

4. any one of above

4. t-butyl alcohol

PART 10-TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

76. The tensile strength of polynosic fibre is 81.

around

1. 3 to 3.5 gmsldenier 1. to 1.2

The tenacity range of acrylic fibre in

gmsldenier is

3. to gmsldenier

77. In viscose solution preparation xanthation 82.

process takes normally from

1. 10 minutes

60 to 180 minutes

3. 5 hours

4. 24 hours

78. The temperature of molten polymer in nylon

66 manufacture is around 83. High bulk yarns are produced from

The modern false twist texturizing machines

can impart false twist in to moving yarn at

the rate of

1. six million RPM

2. 12 million RPM

3. only 30,000 RPM

4. RPM only

1. relaxed fibres

2. unrelaxed fibres

3. a blend of relaxed and unrelaxed fibres

filaments

79. In acrylic fibre manufacture, the polymer

concentration ranges from

The cord fabrics used in conveying belt

84.

applications approximately weigh

4. 70 to 80 %

80. The work factor of viscose staple fibre is

around

The cotton cloth construction normally

85.

applied in V-belts in and

is

86. The standard strength of nylon

parachute cloth in width is

1. 2 to 3

2. 7 to 10

3. 25 to 30

4. 50 to 100

87. The number of twistslmetre involved in high

stretch yarns is around

1. 100

2. 2500

3. 500

4. 250

88. An unbalanced structure in weft knitting

process is

1. Polka rib

2. Royal rib

3. Eight lock

4. Derby rib

89. In Jacquard knitting the maximum design

width of intermediate Jacquard is

1. 48 wales

2. 24 wales

3. 144 wales

4. 182 wales

90. The normal cut of the non-Jacquard knitting

machine is around

1. 24

2. 48

3. 72

4. 88

91. Knitted fabric width is expressed as

1. Total number of needles x wales per

inch

2. Total number of needles wales per

inch

3. Total number of needles - wales per

inch

4. Wales per inch Total no. of needles

92. According to law which of the

following relations is correct in weft knitting?

where S = Stitch density

is constant

= Stitch length

93. In purl knitting machine the two needle beds

are set at

1.

2.

3.

4.

94. From tricot knitting machine the fabric

comes off the machine at an angle of

2.

3.

4.

95. The width of Raschel machines varies from

1. 480 to 600 cm

2. 200 to 350 cm

3. to 1500 cm

150 t o 200 cm

96. In the dielectric phenomenon of fibres water

is considered to be

1. Induced dipole

2. Permanent dipole

3. Temporary dipole

4. An ordinary molecule

97. The percentage amorphous region in wool

fibre is around

101. The best synthetic fibre for good elastic

recovery is

1. Polyester

2. Nylon

3. Acrylic

4. Polypropylene

102. The % absorption moisture regain of nylon

6.6 at 65%R.H. and 20°C is

1. 4.1

2. 2.1

3. 8.0

4. 0.4

103. The chemical potential of a solute in an ideal

solution may be expressed as

98. Higher the bi-refringence of a fibre

1. higher will be the orientation

2. lower will be the orientation

3. higher will be the amorphous portions

4. higher will be the crystallinity

99. The optical orientation factor of an isotropic

fibre is

104. The reactive dyeing process for 100 % cotton

garment involves duration of dyeing as

1. 1to 2 hours

2. 2 to hours

3. 3 to 4 hours

4. 5 to 6 hours

105. The interfibrillary swelling takes place in

1. water solution

2. acid and strong alkali solution

3. water and weak alkali solution

4. alkali solution

106. The heat of for cotton fibre is

1. 17.9

100. With increase in relative humidity, the

strength of wool fibre

1. increases

2. decreases

3. first increases and then decreases

4. does not change

107. The simple test for mercerization of cotton is

1. Examining under sunlight

2. Examining under U.V. light

3. Examining through microscope

4. Examining through infra-red light

108. The cross-section of cotton fibre changes due

to mercerization from

1. Flat shape to oval shape

2. Bean shape to round shape

3. Round shape to elliptical shape

4. Elliptical shape to bean shape

109. The removal of sericine results in a weight

loss of silk by

1. 40 to 75 %

2. 70 to 90 %

3. 20 t o 2 5 %

110. The california bearing ratio resistance in

textiles is expressed as

1. CBR resistance = failure load cross-
sectional area

2. CBR resistance = cross-sectional area

failure load

3. CBR resistance = failure load x cross-
sectional area

4. CBR resistance = cross-sectional area -

failure load

111. The top roller of two bowl calender used for

calendering process is made of

1. hard plastic

2. hard steel

3. soft paper

4. wood

112. Which one of the following fibres is not used

for the production of cord?

1. Viscose rayon

2. Glass

3. Polyester

4. Silk

113. The stelometer is made of CRL system by

1. step synchronous motor

2. damping device

3. cam drive

4. beam design

114. For 3 % trash in mixing the cleaning

efficiency expected in is

1. 65 %

2. 35 %

3. 80 %

4. 25 %

In single yarn tensile strength test, higher

the strain rate will result

1. lower the strength

2. no change in strength

'3. higher the strength

4. no change in extension

PART 11 -LEATHER TECHNOLOGY

(Answer ALL questions)

76. The cells that synthesis collagen are called as

1. myoblasts

2. fibroblasts

3. lymphocyte

4. erythrocytes

77. Hair and wool are made up of

gelatin

3. a-keratin

4. elastin

78. Collagen in animal is mainly of the type

1. I

4. IX

79. Iso-electric point of native collagen in skin is

at a pH of

4.25 -4.5

5.0 -5.25

3. 6.0 -6.25

4. 6.75 -7.0

80. The percentage of nitrogen present in

collagen is around

1. 1.75

3. 17.5

4. 27.5

81. During of wet salted

which of the following protein is released into

spent liquor?

1. collagen

2. keratin

3. elastin

4. globulin

82. Preservation of by dry salted

method reduces the average moisture content

from % to %

1. 45

2. 45

3. 35

4. 65, 15

83. The mechanism of unhairing by sodium

sulphide and lime system can be better

described as

1. nucleophilic addition

2. nucleophilic substitution

3. oxidative addition

4. free radical displacement

84. Fibre opening in liming is enhanced by the

addition of

1.

2. hypo

3. KC1

4. glucose

85. Hydrochloric acid based pickling is preferred

for leathers

1. Upper

2. Glove

3. Sole

4. Harness

86. Which part of the tree does the vegetable

tannin wattle is sourced predominantly?

1. Fruits

2. Root

3. Bark

4. Leaves

87. How many electrons are there in 4d orbital

for

1. 0

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4

88. Synthetic fatliquors are based on long chain

hydrocarbons of chain length

common salt

89. The glass transition temperature of a

forming material for leather application

should be

2. o

<

Oc

96. BOD standard for the discharge of tannery

waste water in inland water bodies is

1 10

2. 20 ppm

3. 30 ppm

40

90. The abrasion resistant sole leather is

characterized by

1. high angle of weave

2. angle of weave

3. low angle of weave

91. Indian cow hide is referred to in the

international trade as

2. freezer hide

3.

4. butty

92. Penetration of vegetable tannin is aided by

treatment with

1. chrome

2.

3. zirconium

4. syntans

93. Plate releasing property in finishing is due to

the use of in the season

mixture

1. resin binder

2. plasticiser

3. pigment

4. wax emulsion

94. Which of the following dyes will exhibit good

wash fastness characteristics for chrome

tanned leathers?

1. Acid dyes

2. Direct dyes

3. Basic dyes

none of the above

light cow

97. Which of the following is an important

requirement for upholstery leather?

1. fullness

2. softness

3. fire resistance

4. wrinkle free

98. Treatment using trickling filters is a

1. primary

2. secondary

3. tertiary

4. aerobic

99. Dog chews are prepared from

1. crushed bones

2. meat meal

3. poultry feathers

4. hide trimmings and splittings

100. BOD of spent liquors range in the order

of

2. 2000-4000

3. 4000 -6000

treatment system

500-2000

6000 -10000

Metal complex dyes

95. Use of phenolic syntans the

light fastness of leather

1. decreases

2. increases

3. does not change

4. none of the above

101. UASB is a Treatment system

1. aerobic

2. secondary

3. primary

4. tertiary

Speed of the liming drum should be around

1. 3 rpm

2. 6 rpm

3. 10 rpm

4. 16 rpm

103. If the radius of a drum is doubled, effective

1. 2

2. 8

is increased by a factor of

104. Hydraulic motors are useful because of their

1. constant speed characteristics

2. high speed characteristics

3. variable speed characteristics

4. low speed characteristics

105. One Baume is equal to

1. 6.9' BK

2. BK

106. The finish adhesion test is carried out by

1. tensometer

2.

3. flexoineter

penetrometer

107. The time of incubation for BOD test is

1. 24

2. 48 hrs

3. 72 hrs

4. 120 hrs

108. Run in glove leather is

2. elastic stretch

3. contraction across the

4. cloth like feel

109. Degree of tannage is the ratio of

1. final dry weight of the leather to limed

2. fixed vegetable tannins to hide

3. final dry weight of the leather to

4. final dry weight of the leather to raw

non elastic stretch

pelt weight

substance

shared weight

weight

110. Eriochrome Black T is used in

1. checking the penetration of

2. quantitative analysis of water

3. estimation of chrome content in

4. dyeing of tanned leather

111. Minimum stitch tear strength (double hole) of

lining leathers should be

1. 50

2. 50 thickness

3. 50 kg/cm3

4. 50 thickness

112. Which of the following property is more

essential for sole leather?

1. Bursting strength

2. Elongation

3. Abrasion resistance

4. Water absorption

113. The line where bottom and upper surface of

the last meet is known as

1. central line

2. lasting line

3. feather line

4. all of the above

114. Which of the following is an Ornament in

leather goods?

1. zip

2. lining cloth

3. piping

4. brass chain

115. A material shaped to conform to the last and

inserted between lining and upper is known

as

1. Toe puff

2. Stiffners

3. Insole

4. Sock

chrome in the cut cross section of pelt

tanning salt

PART 12-

(Answer ALL questions)

76. Which one of the following comes under the 82.

category of 'Rock Cut Architecture'?

1. Stupa, Sanchi

2. Saranath Pillar

3. Chaitya Hall, Karli

4. Shore temple, Mahabalipuram

77. Find the odd available in the

following city

1.

2. Vellore

3. Thanjavur

4. Thiruvannamalai

78. Which one of the following is not a tomb?

1. Tajmahal

2.

3. Qutub

4. Bibi Ka Maqbara

79. Who designed the Piazza S. Pietro, Rome?

1. Michelangelo

2. Bramante

3. Bernini

4. Alberti

80. Flying buttresses were used in

1. Peterborough Cathedral

2. Notre-Dame, Paris

3. Caen

4. Pisa Cathedral

81. The Image of the city was written by

1. Gideon

2. Kevin Lynch

3. Aldo Rossi

4. Lewis

Which of the following books did Robert

Venturi write?

1. Vers une architecture

2. The Language of Post Modern

3. Complexity and contradictions in

4. Pattern Language

'Structure is the giver of light'. To which

Architect this statement attributed?

1. Paul Rudolph

2. Oscar Nimeyer

3. Louis Khan

4. Le Corbusier

Which one of the following is associated with

De Stijil movement?

1. Piet Mondarin

2. John

3. Bob

4. Richard Rogers

Which one of the following is a key figure

amongst constructivist artists and architects?

1. Kandinsky

2. Tolstoy

3. Richard Neutra

4. Mario Botta

Who wrote the book 'Cities In History'?

86.

1. Golden

2. Edmund Bacon

3. John

4. Lewis

Architecture

Architecture

87. 'Brise-Soleil' is a principle of architectural

design adopted by

1. Louis Sullivan

2. Frank Lloyd Wright

3. Le Corbusier

4. Alvar Aaalto

88. Forest Institute of Management at Bhopal

was designed by

1. Raje

2. Charles Correa

3. Raj Rewal

4. Doshi. B

89. Bharat Diamond Bourse Complex a t Mumbai

was designed by

1. Hafeez contractor

2. Doshi. B

3. Correa

4. Raj Rewal

90. Which one of the following is associated with

20th Century Art Nouveau Movement?

1. Schindler

2. Albert Speer

3. Adolf Loos

4. Mackintosh

91. The book 'Architecture for poor' was written

92. Which one of the following is not designed by

F.L. Wright?

1. Fransworth House

2. Falling Waters

3. Unity temple

4. Praire House

93. Which of the following were key figures in

Arts and Crafts movement?

1. John and William Moris

2. John and Santa Elia

3. Gaudi and Lissitsky

4. Mackintosh and Brunelschi

94. Which one of the following is a

conceptfposition that engages universal

modern and yet retains regional identity?

1. Regionalism

2. Critical Regionalism

3. Neo-classicism

4. Neo Modernism

95. Which one of the following redesigned the

new city in India?

1. Otto Koenigsberger

2. Le Corbusier

3. Charles Correa

4.

96. Which one of the following involved in

the planning of Chandigarh before

was commissioned?

1. Lauries Baker

3. M. Gandhi

4. B. Doshi

1. Maxewell Fry and Navinder Lamba

2. Fry and Jane

3. Edward Lutyen and Jane drew

4. Homi Bhaba and

97. Autobhan is a kind of

1. Airport

2. Automobile

3. Road

4. Building structure

98. Jaipur city was built by

1. Correa

2. Doshi

3. Sawai Mansingh

4. Sawai Jaisingh

99. Who said "House form is not simply the

result of physical forces or any single casual

factor but is the consequence of a whole range

of socio cultural factors"?

1. Amos Rapoport

2. Joseph Rykwert

3. Heidegger

4. B.V. Doshi

100. The "Incremental Concept" of, Housing is

aimed at

1. Low cost development

2. High density development

3. Development in stages

4. at one stage

101. House loans by Public Sector Agencies in

India are given to an Individual based on

1. Size of his family

2. Built up area preferred by him

3. His affordability

4. Only if he belongs to high income group

102. Quality of Housing environment can be

improved only if

1. the building regulations are made more

2. there is increased investment by the

3. the total development is taken over by

4. there is effective participation by the

rigid

government

public sector

community

103. Informal urban housing means

1. Houses developed with different sizes

2. Houses developed outside the legal

3. Low cost housing development

4. Private sector development

104. In sites and services scheme land is sold to

EWS at cheaper price because of

1. Internal cross subsidy

2. Progressive development

3. Large scale development

4. Full cost recovery

105. A form of social survey in housing intended to

obtain quickly general information on the

study areas is

1. Origin and destination survey

2. Scanning survey

3. Detailed survey

4. Aerial survey

106. The most secured form of Land tenure is

1. Leasehold

2. Co-operative

3. Traditional

4. Private freehold

and shapes

planning system

107. As per DCR prevailing for 10 % open

space reservation is mandatory for a site

development that exceeds

1. 500

2. 1200

3. 2000

4. 3000

111. The window shutter in external wall is fixed

to open outside mainly

1. to improve appearance

2. to avoid projection inside

3. to prevent seepage of rainwater

4. for easy handling

112. Number of bricks

for 100 of brick work will be

108. Toilets are not usually constructed in the

basement floor due to

1. Problem of ventilation

2. Restricted use

3. Problem of soil water

4. Pumping necessary for waste disposal

109. Deformed steel bars are used in R.C.C. work

due to

1. the increased strength

2. better friction with concrete

3. non corrosive nature

4. cheaper than plain bars

110. In Madras terrace roof, the roofing material

is

1. Brick Jelly Lime concrete

2. Terrace bricks

3. Plain cement concrete

4. Timber

113. Life cannot be sustained in human body if the

body temperature drops below

1. C

114. The reflection of Long wave Infrared

Radiation depends upon the

1. texture of surface

2. colour of surface

3. size of surface

4. colour and texture of surface

115. The thermal insulation of a brick masonry

can be much improved

1. With air cavity

2. Without air cavity

3. Air cavity with a metal foil hung in it

4. Air cavity filled with sand

PART 13 -PHYSICS AND MATERIAL SCIENCE

(Answer ALL questions)

76. Materials exhibiting different properties 81. If the lattice parameter of cubic crystal is

along different directions are called 1 nm and the distance between two parallel

1. isotropic

2. amorphous

3. anisotropic 1. (110)

4. crystalline

77. The coordination number of BCC structure is

1. 6

planes is nm, the Miller indices of the

planes are

2. (1 0

3. 0

82. The plastic deformation of a crystal is due to

the presence of

78. Effective number of atoms belonging to the 1. Schottky defect

unit cell of FCC structure is

1. 14

4. Dislocations which move 3. 4

4. 2 83. A plate carrying charge of 0.5 coulomb is

79. If 0.28 nm is the interatomic distance of

1. 0.14 nm 1. hours

2. 2. Joules

3. 0.56 nm

4. None of the above

80. In a crystal cell, a, b and c represent unit

translational vectors along x, y and axes. 84. There are two charges coulomb and

A plane makes intercepts 2a, 3b along and +5 coulomb interacting among themselves.

y axes and runs parallel to axis. Miller The ratio of forces on them will be

indices corresponding to this plane is

1.

2. Point defects

3. Frenkel defect

accelerated through a potential of 2000 volts.

crystal, the lattice parameter is It attains a kinetic energy equal to

3.

4. 1500 ergs

W

85. There are 1 0 condensers each of capacity

5 The ratio between maximum and

minimum capacity obtained from these

condensers will be

1. 100 : 1

2. 60 : 9

3. 1 : 100

4. 1 : 5

86. Two bulbs, one of 50 watts and another of

25 watts are connected in series to the mains.

The current

1. through the 25 watt bulb is more

2. through the 50 watt bulb is more

3. is different in different bulbs

4. is the same in both the bulbs

87. A bar magnet is cut exactly at the middle of

its length. The pole strength of the resulting

magnets

1. reduces to half its original value

2. increases twice to its original value

3. reduces to one fourth of its initial value

4. remains the same

88. The magnetic field a t a distance d from a

short bar magnet in longitudinal and

transverse position are in the ratio

1. 1 : 4

89. If E is the kinetic energy of the material

particle of mass m, then the de Broglie

wavelength is given by

1.

90. Existence of matter wave was experimentally

first demonstrated by

1. Newton

2. Planck

3. Davission and Germer

4.

91. When an electron is accelerated, if

wavelength is 1 then the applied voltage is

nearly equal to

1. 15 Volts

2. 1 2 Volts

3. 500 Volts

4. 150 Volts

92. When the potential difference between the

electrodes of an X-ray tube is increased, it

results in an increase in

1. intensity

2. frequency

3. wavelength

4. speed of X – rays

93. T. invented

1. He-Ne laser

2. CO, laser

3. Ruby laser

4. Nd:

94. We observe colours in thin films only because

1. thick films absorb light 99.

2. reflection is possible only in thin films

3. interference condition is satisfied only

4. dispersion is possible only in thin films

95. An alpha particle of energy MeV is

scattered through by a fixed

nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of

order of

The picture tube screens in television sets

operate on

1. thermoluminescence

2.

3.

4. photoluminescence

The rest mass of an electron is when it

with a velocity = 0.6 then its

mass is

in thin films

The relation between three moduli of

elasticity is given by

1.

96. The ratio of Rydberg constant for helium to

the Rydberg constant for hydrogen is

1. 2 . 3

2. 3 . 2

97. What percentage of original radioactive

atoms is left five half-lives?

1. 10

1 1 1 3. -

E N K

9 3 1 4.

E N K

is more elastic in nature?

1. Ivory

2. Rubber

3. Aluminium

4. Wax

102. Crystals like diamond and silicon are brittle

because

1. they contain no dislocations

2. they are non-crystalline

3. the stress required to a

4. they contain very few dislocations

103. The energy gap in diamond is

1. 5.4

2. 2-3

3. 1.1

4.

104. Pure silicon a t OK is an

1. intrinsic semiconductor

2. extrinsic semiconductor

3.

4. insulator

105. has an energy gap of 1.43 The

wavelength of the radiation emitted during

an electronic transition in will be in the

1. visible range

2. ultraviolet range

3. infrared region

4. X-ray range

106. The entropy of mixing of 0.5 mole of Ni atoms

and 0.49 mole of Cu atoms on mole of sites

in is

dislocation is high

107. The entropy becomes zero at for a

1. pure element

2. perfect crystal

3. solid solution

4. none of the above

108. A reaction takes 500 min in 1 min

respectively a t C and C. The time it

would take at C is

3. 10 min

4. 6 min

109. In a single component the

of phases that can coexist in

is

1. 2

2. 3

110. Boltzmann distribution law which governs

the distribution of atoms among the various

energy levels is given as

111. Choose the correct statement

1. Thermal conductivity of a metal does

not vary with temperature

2. Thermal conductivity of a metal varies

as a function of temperature

3. Thermal expansion coefficients are

isotropic for all materials

4. Thermal vibration of atoms contribute

for electronic specific heat

112. The main raw material used for the

manufacture of porcelain is

1. Clay

2. Alumina

3. Zirconia

4. Silicon carbide

113. Rotary kiln is used to produce

1. Cement clinker

2. Sanitary ware

3. Ceramic tiles

4. Porcelain ware

114. Which of the following material is inorganic

graphite?

1. Aluminium nitride

2. Silicon nitride

3. Boron nitride

4. Silicon carbide

115. Lead oxide is widely used in glass industry to

make

1. Photosensitive glass

2. Translucent glass

3. Opaque glass

4. Radiation shield glass

PART 14-APPLIED PROBABILITYAND STATISTICS

(Answer ALL questions)

76. For any two events A and B, P ( A- is

equal to

2. -

3. -P ( An

4. -P ( An

77. Two events A and B such that =112

and P ( A =114, then P ( A is

1. 112

2. 314

3. 1

4.

78. If the events A and B are independent, then

-

82. The quantity -a ) is minimized, if

the value of'a' is

n

1=1

n is

3. P

4. None of the above

79. With a pair of dice thrown at a time, the

probability of getting a sum more than that of

9 is

1. 5118

2. 7/36

3. 116

4. 7/24

80. If A and B are disjoint and then

1. 1

2. 0

3. 112

4. 114

81. There are two bags. One bag contains 4 red

and 5 black balls and the other one contains

5 red and 4 black balls. One ball is to be

drawn from either of the two bags. The

probability of drawing a black ball is

1. 113

2. 16181

3. 112

4. 10181

is

83. If the observations in a sample are denoted

by , the sample range r is

1. min -

2. + min

3. max

4. max -min

84. If 3 is subtracted from each observation of a

set, then the mean of the observation is

reduced by

1. 6

2. 3

3. 312

4. -3

85. The standard deviation of the five

observations 6, 6, 6, 6, 6 is

1. 0

2. 5

3. 25

4. 125

86. If a distribution has mean = 7.5, mode = 10

and skewness a = -0.5, the variance is

1. 5

2. 10

3. 20

4. 25

87. First and third quartiles of a frequency

distribution are 30 and 75. Also its coefficient

of skewness is 0.6. The median of the

frequency distribution is

1. 40

2. 39

3. 38

4. 41

88. The cumulative distribution function for a

92. The generating function for

geometric distribution with parameter

p = is

variable X i s

The value of (-3 is

1. e

2. e

3.

4. +

89. The and the variance of a

distribution are 8 and 4 respectively. Then

P(X = is equal to

-6 -8

-3 -4

93. If a random the as

f = c , 2 x 1 3 the value of 'c is

I

c x

, otherwise,

94. If X and Y are two Poisson variate such that

X - and - then the

probability P(X + Y = 3) is

90. The probability mass function of a random

variable X is as follows :

The mean and variance of X are

1. 1, 3

2. 3, 0

3. 3, 2

4. 3, 1

91. The distribution for which the does not

exist is

1. Normal distribution

2. Gamma distribution

3. Continuous rectangular distribution

4. F-distribution

95. The cumulative distribution function of a

continuous uniform distribution of a random

variable X lying in the interval ( a , is

1.

2.

1

b -a

x - a

b -a

4.

b -a

96. random variable X follows Poisson

distribution if P(X= = 3 and

P(X = 2). Then variance of X is

1.

2.

3. 1

4. 2

97. The moment generating function of the

standard normal variate X is

e

98. If the of a random variable X i s given by

0 , otherwise,

101. If the observations recorded on five sampled

items are 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, the sample variance is

1. 1

2. 1.5

3. 2

4. 2.5

102. The terms prosperity, recession, depression

and recovery are in particular attached to

1. Secular trend

2. Seasonal fluctuation

3. Cyclical movements

4. Irregular variation

103. A sample of 16 items from an infinite

population having S.D. = 4, yielded total

scores as 160. The standard error of

distribution of mean is

1. 1

2. 112

3. 114

then 1)is

1.

2.

3. 114

4. 1

99. For any non negative variable X and

constant a > 0 , the Markov's inequality is

104. By the method of one can estimate

1. all constants of a population

2. only mean and variance of a

distribution

all moments of a population

distribution

4. all of the above

105. If X is a Poisson the sufficient

statistics for is

1.

100. Suppose that X is the number of observed

"successes" in a sample of observations

where is the probability of success on each

X . observation, then =-is

1. Biased estimator ofp

2. Unbiased estimator of 'n'

3. Unbiased estimator ofp

4. None of the above

n

106. If X and Y have a bivariate normal 111. Value of b in = a + remains same with

distribution with = then X and Y are the change of

1. independent

2. dependent

3. mutually exclusive

4. none of the above

107. If = the two lines of regressions are

1. Coincident

2. Parallel

3. Perpendicular to each other

4. None of the above

108. If are n independent

identically distributed random variables, the

i = l correlation between and X = is

1. origin

2. slope

3. data

none of the above

n

112. The best method for finding out seasonal

variation is

1. Sample average method

2. Ratio to moving average method

3. Ratio to trend method

4. None of the above

113. For the given five values 15, 24, 18, 33, 42,

the three years moving averages are

1. 19, 22, 33

2. 19, 25, 31

109. If the two lines of regression are coincident,

the relation between the two regression

coefficientsis

114. The equation of the parabolic trend is

Y If the origin is

shifted backward by three years the equation

of the parabolic trend will be

110. If X and Y are two independent variables

with variances var = 25 and

var =15, the correlation coefficient

between = X and V = X - Y is

3. Y = 27.7

4. None of the above

115. Method of least square for determining trend

is used when

1. trend is known

2. trend is curvilinear only

3. the value of Y is not a function of time t

4. none of the above

PART 15-SOCIAL SCIENCES

(Answer ALL questions)

76. The population of India as on 31st March

2001 is

1. 1,080 million

2. 1,028 million

3. 1,008 million

4.

77. How many places in India are classified as

urban?

1. 5,050

2. 4,800

3. 4,500

4. 1,028

78. Settlements with more than

population are classified as

1. State

2. Country

3. City

4. Town

79. As per the 2001 census the population

density of India is

1. 1000 per

2. 324 per

3.

4. 850 per

80. is famous for

1. Granite Industry

2. Steel Industry

3. Glass Industry

4. Diamond Industry

81. The first copper smelting unit in India was

started at

1. Maubhandar

2. Khetri

3. Balaghat

4.

82. Volkswagen decided to locate its green field

plant in

1. Tamil Nadu

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Karnataka

4. Maharashtra

83. Security Paper Mills is located at

1. Remikoot

2. Rupnarainpur

3. Hoshangabad

4. Kovur

84. Most important area in India for diamond is

1. Kolkatta

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Rajasthan

4. Karnataka

85. Mobile phone subscription as in Feb. 2007 is

205 million

2. 300 million

3. 162.5 million

4. 150 million

86. Contribution of IT and ITES to the GDP

expected in the year 2008 is

1. 20 percent

2. 15 percent

3. 8 percent

4. 7 percent

87. An information system that supports internal

business operations and extends to suppliers

is

1. Back-office Information System

2. Front-office Information System

3. Operations Information System

4. Supply chain Information System

88. The aim of land reform is to

1. Increase agricultural productivity

2. Increase the land holding by the poor

3. Increase Government control of land

4. Distribute the land to landless labours

91. Religion is the chief initiator of social change

according to

Weber and Frazer

2. Sorokin and Davis

3. Marx and Engles

4. Park and Burgess

92. Who was the first sociologist to elaborate the

idea of cultural lag?

1. Taylor

2. Spencer

3. Meed

4. Ogburn

The Peasant Struggle was

launched in

1910

89. Poverty is

1. human condition

2. living condition

3. monetary condition

4. economic abstraction

2. 1947

3. 1967

4. 1950

94. Which one of the following factors is

negatively correlated with modernization?

1. Religiosity

2. Cosmopolitanism

3. Achievement motivation

4. Empathy

95. Schumpeter attributed much of the capitalist

development to the innovative role of the

1. Scientist

2. Technologist

3. Politician

4. Entrepreneur

96. National Policy for Older Persons was

announced in the year

1. 1990

90. Theory of social change is known as

1. Theory of evolution

2. Theory of elites

3. Theory of economic determination

4. Theory of dominant class

1997

3. 1999

4. 2000

97. As per 2002 survey of the National Sample

Survey Organization the estimated number

of persons with disability is

2. 3.5 crore

3. 2.85 crore

4. 2.5 crore

98. The number of villages to be electrified in

India is

1.

2.

3.

4.

99. The National Rural Employment Scheme

aims to provide

1. 100 days of employment in the

2. 150 days of employment in the

4. No limits for the days of employment in

financial year

financial year

230 days of employment in the

financial year

the financial year

102. As per the Department of Industrial Policy

and Promotion the Industrial growth rate for

April-December 2006 is

1. percent

2. 25 percent

3.

4. 8.8 percent

103. The largest provider of employment after

agricultural sector is

1. Construction

2. Textiles

3. Information Technology

4. Mining

104. The Environmental Impact Assessment was

made mandatory since the year

1. 2000

2. 2006

3. 1994

4. 1999

100. Special Economic Zone was passed in the

Parliament in

1. Feb 2006

2. May 2005

3. August 2004

4. January2001

101. To speed up the process of disinvestment

Government of India had setup a separate

Department of Disinvestment in the year

1. 2001

2. 2000

3. 2003

4. 2005

105. The Central Pollution Control Board was

setup in the year

1. 1970

2. 1975

3. 2000

4. 1974

106. In the net irrigated area in India, wells

account for more than

1. 60 percent

2. 40 percent

3. 30 percent

4. 10 percent

107. The National Capital Region covers 112. Simple linear aggregation of income accruing

Whole of Delhi

2. Whole of Delhi and parts of Haryana

3. Whole of Delhi and parts of Haryana,

Rajasthan and Uttarpradesh

4. Whole of Delhi and parts of Haryana

and Uttarpradesh

to the factors of production supplied by the

normal residents of the country is

1. Industrial Income

2. Real Income

3. National Income

4. Marginal Income

108. National Slum Development Programme was

launched in the year

1. 1974

2. 1979

3. 1996

4. 1994

113. Productive Consumer is a

1. segment of the market

2. division of population

3. segment of society who don't waste

products

4. model consumer

109. Urban Mapping Scheme was taken up as a

pilot project during

1. Fifth Five Year Plan

2. Eighth Five Year Plan

3. Tenth Five Year Plan

4. Seventh Five Year Plan

114. The basic dimensions of the Human

Development Index are

1. Family Welfare and Education

2. Life expectancy, adult education and

standard of living

110. Increase in the age at marriage is a

1. Non-family planning measure

2. Family planning measure

3. life style of poor

4. life style of industrialized world

111. Dais Training Programme is a

1. Family Planning Programme

2. Family welfare Programme

3. Health Care Programme

4. Rural Development Programme

3. Income and standard of living

4. Education and standard of living

115. The Report of Technical Group on Population

Projections 1996 has projected the population

of India in 2016 as

1. 1179 million

2. 1264 million

3. 1169 million

4. 1646 million
__________________
Answered By StudyChaCha

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